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SGT Exam > UoF > Flashcards

UoF Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 circumstances where on officer can use Force

A
  1. To protect themselves
  2. To protect others
  3. To effect a lawful arrest
  4. To effect a lawful detention
  5. To conduct a lawful search
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2
Q

T/F. Officers should, if reasonable, make clear their intent to detain, arrest, or search the subject.

A

T

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3
Q

Legal standards of Tennessee v Garner

A
  1. Protect selves or others from imminent death/serious bodily harm
  2. Prevent escape of fleeing felon who committed violent felony crime and is danger to public
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4
Q

What should officers gather prior to arrival

A
  1. Info on incident
  2. Assess Risks
  3. Assemble Resources/Equipment
  4. Slow momentum
  5. Communicate/coordinate a response
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5
Q

Officers should start to develop a tactical plan prior to arriving at the scene and, when applicable, (fill in blank)

A

They are mentally ill, or have developmental disabilities

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6
Q

What factors must officers weigh when considering force options?

A
  1. Extreme Age (under 13 over 70)
  2. Physically frail
  3. Pregnant
  4. Disabled
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7
Q

In responding as a team, officers should manage the (blank) or (blank) of the subject.

A

Containment; Isolation

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8
Q

What should officers use as an alternative to higher levels of force? (WHEN FEASIBLE)

A
  1. Warnings
  2. Advisements
  3. Verbal persuasion
  4. Other tactics
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9
Q

The use of (blank), building more distance, or withdrawal to a more (blank) should be considered as options to help create time to diffuse a situation.

A

Cover; tactically secure position

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10
Q

T/F Officers will perform their work in a manner that avoids unduly jeopardizing their safety or the safety of others through poor tactical decisions.

A

T

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11
Q

T/F The prospect of a favorable outcome is not often enhanced when a supervisor becomes involved in the management of the overall response to a violent encounter

A

F

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12
Q

Supervisors WILL possess a thorough knowledge of (blank) and ensure their officers perform to a (blank)

A

Tactics; standard in accordance with LVMPD policy and training)

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13
Q

Supervisors (will/should) respond to a scene where the use of reportable force is probable.

A

WILL!!!

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14
Q

T/F Supervisors are encouraged to manage the deployment of resources and equipment.

A

F- they WILL manage

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15
Q

What WILL supervisors provide In dynamic and highly charged incidents?

A

clear direction and communication to officers regarding their positioning and roles.

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16
Q

What will the supervisor do if they observe an officer making substandard approaches or flawed tactical decisions?

A

They WILL promptly act to correct deficiencies

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17
Q

Duty to intervene means

A

That when when an officer, regardless of rank, observed another officer using force beyond what is justified; they must intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force when in a safe position to do so.

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18
Q

Who will an officer inform that they have observed unreasonable force being used?

A

They WILL immediately inforM their supervisor; or the next level of supervision if their supervisor is using unjustified force. .

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19
Q

What shall a supervisor do if they observe on officer using unjustifiable force?

A

They will immediately issue a direct order to stop the violation

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20
Q

How long does an officer have to report in writing any unjustifiable uses of force?

A

10 days after occurrence.

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21
Q

3 things that need to be included in a report of unjustifiable force being used

A
  1. Date/Time/Location of incident
  2. Identity (if known) and description of participants
  3. Description of actions taken as a result of the observation.
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22
Q

Nevada assembly bill 3 protects against what?

A

Retaliation against an officer that reports unjustifiable uses of force

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23
Q

T/F persons who are in a prolonged physical encounter with officers may be at an increased risk of medical distress.

A

T

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24
Q

An officer WILL summon medical attention and continuously monitor a subject after using force if…

A
  1. There are observable signs of injury
  2. Complaints of injury or;
  3. Difficulty in breathing.
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25
Q

T/F Officers are not required to monitor for signs of life, but will update medical with condition of subject

A

F- officers will monitor subject

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26
Q

In terms of people injured as a a result of a use of force:

Incidents involving these persons (will/should) be considered medical emergencies.

A

SHOULD

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27
Q

In the case of a medical emergency or injury to a suspect, Do officers need to provide only height and weight?

A

No. Age, gender nature of the injury and any information pertaining to medical care (nature of injury, labored breathing, complain of chest pain, or involvement in foot pursuit)

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28
Q

(Will/should) render medical aid within the scope of their departmental training. Until the next level of care

A

Should

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29
Q

While handcuffed a suspect (Will not/will) be forcefully bent forward at the waist, and pressure will not be applied to their back, neck, or head.

A

Will not

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30
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for baton/impact weapon strikes to the

A

head, neck, groin, chest, kidneys or back.

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31
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for Canine

A

All bites!

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32
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for ECD probe strikes to:

A

the head, neck, chest, or groin area

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33
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for direct OC Spray exposure to:

A

The facial area

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34
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for use of force by a projectile weapon such as

A

40mm, LL shotgun

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35
Q

T/F Medical attention WILL be summoned for all handgun/shotgun/rifle strikes

A

T

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36
Q

Medical attention WILL be summoned for what uses of force with a vehicle?

A
  1. Precision Intervention Technique (PIT)

2. Ramming - all

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37
Q

Do officers need to inform detention center personnel and facility medical personnel if reportable force was used

A

Yes

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38
Q

(Will/should) officers modify their level of control in relationship to the amount of resistance offered by a subject.

A

Will

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39
Q

Does a subject’s mental capacity, medical conditions have a bearing on how force is used? Explain

A

Yes, they may not fully understand the scope

Of what is happening but that does not make them any less dangerous.

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40
Q

(Assaultive/obstructive) a subject fleeing officers while on control of a weapon.

A

Assaultive

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41
Q

What characterizes low level force?

A

Force that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury.

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42
Q

What level of force is the force control level of a baton being used as an escort tool?

A

Low level

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43
Q

Intermediate Force is characterized by…

A

the potential to cause injury or substantial pain.

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44
Q

Is the DSD restraint chair an intermediate force option?

A

Yes

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45
Q

Deadly Force is likely to result in…

A

likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury.

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46
Q

At what range is a LL shot gun use considered deadly force

A

7 yards or less

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47
Q

At what range is the 40mm impact round considered deadly force?

A

5 yards or less

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48
Q

At what speeds is a PIT considered deadly force?

A

Speeds of 40mph or greater

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49
Q

What are the elements of deadly force and explain these elements?

A
  1. Ability - means or capability to cause deadly force/substantial bodily harm
  2. Opportunity- exists if a person is in an effective position.to use force or violence on an officer.
  3. Imminent Jeopardy- imminent threat to the life of an officer or others, and the officer must act immediately to prevent death or substantial bodily harm.
  4. Preclusion - Lesser alternatives to deadly force have been reasonably exhausted or considered.
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50
Q

Department -approved weapons and trained techniques will be used with (minimal exception/always)

A

Minimal exception

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51
Q

T/F Non-uniformed commissioned personnel the rank of captain and below are required to carry at least one intermediate force option (baton, oleoresin capsicum [OC] spray, or electronic control device [ECD]) on their person when on-duty.

A

F - Lieutenant and below

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52
Q

Supervisors are (obligated/required) to inspect officer equipment

A

obligated

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53
Q

(If feasible/at all times) officers will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the suspect prior to the use of force.

A

(If feasible)

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54
Q

Why are warnings important prior to discharging a firearm

A

To prevent sympathetic firing when deploying an ECD, LL Shotgun or 40mm

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55
Q

T/F. Officers will not use a baton, ECD, or projectile weapon on a woman who is believed to be pregnant unless the subject displays life-threatening resistance.

A

T

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56
Q

regarding choke holds

What does NRS 289.810 and 193 Sections 4 and 5 prevent an officer from doing?

A

Utilizing a choke hold or LVNR

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57
Q

T/F. Officers will not use an arm bar across the throat or any technique that encircles the neck,

A

T

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58
Q

Blood flow being restricted to the brain or the flow of air into the lungs is (blank)

A

Prohibited.

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59
Q

Can officers deploy an ECD or OC spray on a subject in an elevated position? If there is an exception, please explain?

A

Yes, but only if the fall would not be likely to cause death or serious bodily harm.

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60
Q

T/F. Officers will use physical force solely to stop a person from swallowing a substance that is in their mouth or to retrieve evidence from a person’s mouth.

A

F - will not!

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61
Q

What is the preferred tool that officers should use against an aggressive dog?

A. Catch-pole
B. ECD
C. OC Spray as that was the developers original intended use
D. 40mm

A

A. Catch-pole

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62
Q

If a catch pole is not effective against an aggressive dog what other low lethal options are preferred?

A. ECD or OC Spray
B. Baton
C. 40mm or LL Shotgun
D. None, firearms should be employed if catch poles are ineffective

A

A

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63
Q

T/F the purpose of drawing and manipulating a department-approved tool is to address a potential conflict or tactical situation at hand.

A

T

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64
Q

What communication skills will officers use to effectively de-escalate situations?

A
  1. Warnings
  2. Advisements
  3. Verbal Persuasions
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65
Q

Approved use for handcuffs

In order to minimize risk of injury to officers and others (fill in the rest)

A. an officer shall handcuff all persons arrested as soon as possible.
B. an officer will handcuff all persons arrested as soon as feasible.
C. an officer will handcuff all persons arrested as soon as possible.
D. an supervisor will handcuff all persons arrested as soon as possible.

A

C

66
Q

Approved use for handcuffs During Investigative detentions:

How long can someone be detained:

A

60 minutes

67
Q

Approved use for handcuffs During Investigative detentions:

What are the circumstances that a person can be detained (articulable facts) (hint: 6)

A
  1. The subject is physically uncooperative
  2. Subject poses a danger to themselves or others
  3. Reasonable possibility of flight.
  4. Info that the subject is currently armed.
  5. A stop following a violent crime and the person matches suspect description.
  6. A violent crime is about to occur.
68
Q

Can suicidal people be handcuffed

A

Yes

69
Q

Is it the policy of the department to handcuff persons being transported to detoxification facilities?

A. Yes
B. No, this is a purely medical crisis and handcuffs WILL not be utilized.

A

A

70
Q

T/F persons WILL be handcuffed if transported while In custody

A

T

71
Q

Approved use for DSD restraint chair:
A. Verbally aggressive subjects
B. Inmates who display who display behaviors that may result in the destruction of property or who are in danger of causing harm to themselves or others.
C. who display behaviors that may result in the destruction of property or who are in danger of causing harm to themselves or others and is displaying Assaultive resistance.

A

C

72
Q

Approved use for handcuffs:

When can a subject be handcuffed during a search warrant service?

A. If the person is extremely violent
B. When the mental capacity of the subject creates an immediate threat to the safety of officers
C. When reasonably necessary, to safely execute the warrant.
D. At all times regardless of the status of the individual to be handcuffed.

A

C.

73
Q

Disapproved Uses/Additional considerations for handcuffs:

Who approves the use of special restraints?

A. The officer does not need special approval if situations dictate.
B. The immediate supervisor
C. The watch commander only.
D. The supervisor.

A

A

74
Q

Disapproved Uses/Additional considerations for handcuffs:

Arrestees will be handcuffed behind the back, unless…

A

impractical or impossible due to prisoner obesity, handicap, or other reason.

75
Q

Disapproved Uses/Additional considerations for handcuffs:

Proned handcuffed subjects will be immediately placed in a recovery or seated position once (fill in rest)

A

Safe to do so

76
Q

T/F. If circumstances dictate, an officer can put bodily pressure on a proned handcuffed subjects back, head or neck

A

F

77
Q

Disapproved Uses/Additional considerations for handcuffs:

When responding to a security office where a subject is detained in handcuffs. What will an officer do?

A

Complete their own investigation to establish RS or PC before putting LVMPD handcuffs on the individual.

78
Q

Disapproved Uses/Additional considerations for handcuffs:

When a handcuffed subject first complains about handcuff tightness, an officer will check for tightness, adjust and double lock the handcuffs when…

A. Immediately upon being told of the complaint
B. Upon a supervisor’s approval.
C. After arriving at a detention facility.
D. As soon as reasonably possible.

A

D

79
Q

What force control technique(s) with the expandable baton are considered low level:

A
  1. As an Escort tool
  2. Stirring the pot
  3. Control holds
80
Q

What force control technique(s) with the expandable baton are considered Intermediate:

A
  1. Strikes/jabs to approved areas
81
Q

What force control technique(s) with the expandable baton are considered Deadly Force:

A
  1. Striking on the head, neck, groin, chest spine and kidneys.
82
Q

Disapproved Use and Additional considerations for the baton:

During non-deadly force incidents, officers will use reasonable care to avoid striking subjects on the:

A

Head, neck, chest, groin, spine and kidneys

83
Q

Disapproved Use and Additional considerations for the baton:

The use of instruments other than the baton as an impact tool is strongly (blank)

A. Discouraged
B. Encouraged
C. Forbidden
D. Seen as a gross misuse of force.

A

A

84
Q

Disapproved Use and Additional considerations for the baton:

Officers are (blank) from using their firearm as an impact too due to the possibility of a negligent discharge.

A. Strongly discouraged
B. Will not
C. Should not
D. Discouraged.

A

D

85
Q

Disapproved use and Additional considerations for OC Spray:

OC spray will not be used on a handcuffed subject unless…

A

the subject is displaying assaultive resistance.

86
Q

Disapproved use and Additional considerations for OC Spray:

OC spray (should/will) not be used on a driver of a vehicle or inside a patrol vehicle.

A

Should

87
Q

OC spray (blank) intended to force extraction from an enclosed area unless utilized in a detention facility

A

Is not

88
Q

In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by an (blank) in response to imminent threat of harm

A. Watch Commander
B. Incident Commander
C. Sergeant
D. Officer in Charge

A

B

89
Q

What level of control is an ECD?

A

Intermediate

90
Q

List the ECD applications:

A
  1. Spark display
  2. Touch Stun - pain compliance technique
  3. probe mode
91
Q

ECD:

Touch stuns are discouraged, unless it is used to…

A

Complete neuromuscular incapacitation by closing a circuit after the probes have been deployed.

92
Q

ECD provide a “blank” in which to take the subject safely into custody.

A

Window of opportunity

93
Q

ECD maintenance requirements:

Officers (will/should) recharge batteries and replace cartridges as required

A

Will

94
Q

Can an ECD be stored in a locker? Explain

A

Yes, they must be stored in a climate controlled area.

95
Q

Spark checks must be done at the beginning of each shift and must be conducted (outside of public view/wherever possible)

A

Outside of the public view.

96
Q

ECD disapproved use:

The ECD should be treated as a firearm at detention facilities and therefore should be secured prior to entering any of these facilities except for:

A. CCDC
B. LV City Jail
C. Nevada State Prisons
D. Raiders stadium.

A

A

97
Q

T/F. The intentional use of multiple ECD’s on the same subject simultaneously is prohibited

A

T

98
Q

ECD WILL not be used on:

A
  1. Handcuffed subjects
  2. On subjects who are fleeing where that is the only justification.
  3. When a subject has come into contact with flammable liquids
  4. Persons with known heart conditions.
99
Q

ECD Considerations:

A firearm and an (Blank) (should not/will not) be drawn at the same time.

A

ECD; WILL NOT

100
Q

ECD Considerations:

What target areas should be reasonably be avoided:

A

Head, neck, groin, and chest.

101
Q

ECD Considerations:

What area of the body is the preferred target area?

A

The back

102
Q

ECD Considerations:

After (blank) cycles the ECD WILL be determined ineffective and other force options will be considered unless (blank)

A. 3; Reasonable Suspicion
B. 3; Exigent Foundations
C. 5; Reasonable Circumstances
D. 3; Exigent Circumstances

A

D

103
Q

ECD Considerations:

After a 5 second cycle, what needs to be given to the suspect before another 5 second cycle?

A

The opportunity to comply

104
Q

ECD Considerations:

When should restraint procedures begin? Why?

A

Cuffing under power should be done when reasonably safe to do so; to minimize ECD exposures.

105
Q

What level of force is a K9 on a leash?

A

Low level

106
Q

What level of force is a k9 bite?

A

Intermediate

107
Q

What 3 factors are needed for a k9 to bite a subject

  1. PC that subject has committed a violent or felony crime; (OR/AND)
  2. A threat to themselves or others
  3. (OR/AND) attempting to evade being taken into custody.
A

OR; AND

108
Q

K9 handlers (should/will) make contact with supervisor or incident commander to discuss tactical deployment options.

A

Should

109
Q

Can the handler use discretion in deploying their k9 of the subject is armed in a manner that can harm the dog?

A

Yes

110
Q

Should K9’s be deployed on front lines for protests? Why?

A

No, they should be held in Reserve as they can inflame a situation. Their use is approved by a lieutenant in extreme emergencies.

111
Q

Canine:

When SHOULD officers run ahead of K9 when conducting searches?

A

When directed to do so

112
Q

Handlers (will/should) let the cover officers know when it is safe to apprehend a subject.

A

WILL

113
Q

Handlers (will/should) notify a supervisor, and advise Dispatch, when a person has been injured by a patrol dog

A

WILL

114
Q

Does an accidental Dog Bite/Unintentional dog bite require a supervisor response?

A

Fuck yes it does ya dummy dumb.

115
Q

Is blocking a use of force?why?

A

No, blocking positions a patrol car into a predicted escape path of a suspect vehicle without making contact.

116
Q

Are patrol officers able to utilize pinching?

A

No, not an approved tactic

117
Q

What level of force is pinching?

A

Low level

118
Q

What level of force control is a PIT?

A

Intermediate at 40mph and below

Deadly at 40mph and above or in high center gravity vehicles.

119
Q

What level of control is ramming?

A

Deadly force

120
Q

Officers will notify dispatch of their intention to use PIT if (circumstances permit/or at anytime)

A

Circumstances Permit.

121
Q

2 Circumstances for Approved Use of Deadly Force Pit:

A
  1. Continued movement of pursued vehicle would place others in danger of substantial bodily harm or death.
  2. Other tactical options have been considered and rejected as impractical.
122
Q

Ramming is used when all other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as (blank) and an imminent threat of death or (blank) exists

A

Impractical; substantial bodily injury

123
Q

What units can PIT in unmarked vehicles or trucks?

A

MV, NARCS, and VIPER

124
Q

List environmental factors that should be considered prior to utilizing PIT?

A
  1. Areas with pedestrians
  2. Other vehicle traffic
  3. Parked vehicles
  4. Utility poles/telephone poles
  5. Bridges / Overpasses
  6. Areas adjacent to paved roads where there is an elevation change
  7. Significant curves in the roadway.
125
Q

What subject factors should be taken into account before using PIT?

A
  1. Severity of the crime
  2. Number of subjects
  3. Subjects known to have access to firearms
  4. Potential for subject to use vehicle as a weapon.
  5. Creation of a crossfire
  6. Size/weight of vehicle compared to officer vehicle.
126
Q

Supervisors Responsibility for PIT (2)

A
  1. Immediately acknowledge officer transmission over radio

2. Order discontinuation of PIT when necessity of apprehension is outweighed by danger of the PIT

127
Q

Contact or damage to a patrol vehicle that occurs as a result of the PIT is documented on what form?

A. Blue Team
B. Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42).
C. Use of Force report
D. Pursuit Report

A

B

128
Q

Ramming and Pinching require a UoF Report. What does a PIT require?

A

UoF report and a Pursuit report.

129
Q

Use of 40mm and LL Shotgun outside of deadly force ranges are what levels of force

A

Intermediate

130
Q

Two officers are required for deploying a impact projectile weapon. However, if circumstances permit can a single officer deploy these weapons?Explain.

A

Yes, as long as they have a plan that readily allows them to transition to their firearm.

131
Q

3 circumstances impact projectile tools can be utilized.

A
  1. Persons who are armed
  2. Persons that have access to weapons
  3. Pose an imminent threat to the safety of officers or others.
132
Q

Should LL shotguns and 40mm impact rounds be aimed at center mass? Explain

A

No, they should target the abdomen, large muscle groups of the buttocks or thigh, or the knees of the subject.

133
Q

What conditions must be met for a impact projectile weapon to be utilized on a subject with a firearm?

A
  1. Minimum of 2 officer one for lethal coverage

2. Officers have considered cover/concealment options.

134
Q

Disapproved uses for projectile weapons:

During a civil unrest these weapons can be utilized with (blank) approval.

A

Incident Commander or above.

135
Q

Disapproved uses for projectile weapons:

What consideration should be given prior to firing an impact projectile weapon during civil unrest?

A

Reasonable assurance that persons in the crowd not posing a threat will be struck by the munitions

136
Q

LL Shotguns (can be/will not be) utilized as a breaching tool

A

Will not be

137
Q

Officers (should not/will not) fire the low lethality shotgun through barriers (e.g., glass or chain link fences)

A

Should not

138
Q

2 circumstances Officers are authorized to fire their weapons:

A
  1. To protect themselves or to protect others

2. To stop a fleeing felon in accordance with Tennessee v Garner.

139
Q

Whenever (feasible/arriving in a life threatening situation) officers will identify themselves and state their intention to shoot. Example: “Police! Stop, or I’ll shoot!”

A

Feasible.

140
Q

Officers (may/will) determine the appropriate department approved firearm to deploy based on the available cover, distance and the tactical situation presented

A

May

141
Q

Officers (should/will) control and assess the number of rounds they are discharging in order to cease fire when the threat is no longer present.

A

SHOULD

142
Q

Officers (will/should) use sound tactics and (will/should) not place themselves into the path of a moving vehicle or remain standing in the path of a vehicle that is under control of a driver.

A

Will; Will

143
Q

Exception to discharging a firearm at a moving vehicle:

A
  1. Person is a threat to others or the officer by other means than the vehicle.
  2. Driver using vehicle as a weapon for mass casualties.
144
Q

T/F. Officers will use sound tactics and will not place themselves into the path of a moving vehicle or remain standing in the path of a vehicle that is under control of a driver.

A

T

145
Q

Can an officer humanely put down an injured animal after requests to animal control, humane society

A

Yea

146
Q

The owner of An injured animal is present and doesn’t wish to transport their injured animal to a vet, can the officer out the animal down?

A

Yes

147
Q

When can an officer deploy a rifle?

A
  1. There is a potential for deadly force or subject is armed with a deadly weapon.
  2. Distance and the use of cover are considerations due to suspect location.
  3. Barricaded suspect
  4. Pre-approved or special event.
148
Q

Directed Rifle Patrol:

Must be authorized by the Events Planning (blank) or a (blank) assigned as the (blank).

A

lieutenant; captain; incident commander

149
Q

T/F. Only those officers specifically designated on the Incident Action Plan (IAP) or who are assigned as directed rifle patrol will be allowed to open carry/overt carry rifles during special events

A

T

150
Q

T/F. SPR officers are encouraged to be using the scope on their rifle for observation purposes

A

F- prohibited from using

151
Q

SPR officers must have a (blank) and (blank).

A

Range finder; binoculars

152
Q

Officers (will/should) announce their rifle deployment on the radio and whether they have a cover officer

A

WILL

153
Q

T/F. The rifle officer should go hands on and can manipulate objects

A

F - should not.

154
Q

Rifle Deployments

What is the cover officer’s responsibilities?

A
  1. Assist with security/safety
  2. Going hands on
  3. Radio/verbal comms
  4. All other tasks
155
Q

The rifle officer

T/F. Advise Dispatch of deployment location and update whenever location changes, thus providing situational awareness to on-scene personnel.

A

T

156
Q

What are the bureau/area command supervisor responsibilities for a rifle deployment?

A
  1. Proceed to the incident and Assume tactical command

2. ensure proper deployment of rifles and address over deployment and crossfire issues

157
Q

The below are exceptions to reporting rifle deployments. What is missing?

SWAT, Airport Bureau, or Major Violator Section officers; pre-planned events;

A. Nothing
B. VIPER
C. corrections officers conducting high-risk transports
D. Mass casualty incidents

A

C

158
Q

In the case of multiple rifle deployments the (blank) will designate one officer to report the rifle deployment.

A. Supervisor
B. Senior officer on scene
C. SWAT Commander
D. No one, the first one to deploy their rifle will complete the report.

A

A

159
Q

T/F. Rifle deployment reports

The report will detail the following: 1) Details of the incident. 2) Nature of the threat resulting in the decision to deploy a rifle. 3) Number and locations of all rifle-deployed officers in the incident.

A

T

160
Q

Who does the supervisor forward the rifle deployment report to after they have reviewed it, made appropriate comments to include any supervisory decisions modifying the original deployment?

A. Captain
B. IAB
C. Lieutenant
D. FTTU

A

C

SGT Exam (26 decks)

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