Unit 6 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

Cell stores what?

A

ATP

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2
Q

How do cells break down ATP to release energy?

A

Hydrolyze aka H2O.

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3
Q

ADP is a what type of molecule?

A

Low energy molecule.

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4
Q

What can you use to turn ADP into ATP+H20?

A

ADP+P(phosphate group)+energy.

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5
Q

What are the three reaction groups of cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis, Citrine Acid Cycle(Krebs Cycle) and Oxidative phosphorylation.

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6
Q

In between Glycolysis and Krebs cycle what occurs(intermediate step)?

A

Conversion of pyruvate into Acetyl CoAs.

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7
Q

Blood sugar into ATP.

A
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8
Q

What is the quickest reaction to get ATP?

A

Glycolysis.

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9
Q

What reactions are involved in creating 95% of ATP and is the slowest?

A

Krebs Cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation.

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10
Q

Where are the reactions occurring in the cell?

A

Glycolysis-cytostome, both of krebs and oxidative phosphorylation is found in mitochondria.

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11
Q

What is the definition of cellular respiration?

A

Series of reactions in which glucose and other nutrients are broken down and the energy released is used to make ATP.

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12
Q

The energy in food is transferred by a flow of __ and __?

A

Electrons(e-) and protons(H+).

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13
Q

What is the other name for e- and H+?

A

NADH(NAD+) and FADH2

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14
Q

What do you expel after ATP is broken down?

A

Carbon dioxide, water and energy.

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15
Q

What is inhaled/used to create energy?

A

Glucose and oxygen.

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16
Q

Hydrogen Atoms in glucose are taken off one by one.

A
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17
Q

NADH carries 2 electrons.

A
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18
Q

What does NAD+ and FADH2 do?

A

Temporarily carry electrons then release them to the electron transport chain.

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19
Q

ATP is made in 2 ways, ___ and ___.

A

Directly and Oxidative phosphorylation.

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20
Q

Directly is the process of

A

ADP+P+energy -> ATP+H2O. Requires Enzymes.

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21
Q

Oxidative uses glucose from food.

A
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22
Q

What is created and characteristics of glycolysis?

A

Breaks down 1 glucose → turns to 2 pyruvate molecules(cytostome). It uses 2 ATP(becomes 2 ADP) and produces 2 NADH and 2 H^+ and 4 ATP but only 2 since it uses 2 for this process(4-2=2). It is anaerobic(no oxygen needed).

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23
Q

Glucose has how many carbons and pyruvate has how many carbons?

A

6 and 3.

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24
Q

Pyruvate is converted to(intermediate step)?

A

Acetyl CoA.

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25
Q

Intermediate step produces what for 2 pyruvate?

A

2 NADH + H^+, 2 Acetyl CoA and 2 CO2.

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26
Q

What are the characteristics of an intermediate step?

A

Requires O2 to occur, and found in the matrix of the mitochondria.

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27
Q

What does the citric acid cycle start with and end with?

A

Acetyl CoA(2) and ends with Acetyl CoA(2)

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28
Q

What does the citric acid cycle produce?

A

NADH + H^+(6), Co2(4), ATP(2), FADH(2)

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29
Q

What are the characteristics and where is the citric acid cycle found?

A

Needs O2, occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Occurs in a mitochondrial matrix on a chain of proteins called electron transport chain. Requires O2 and begins with NADH, FADH2 and H+ from glycolysis. Produces 38 ATP.

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31
Q

What enzyme produces most of ATP?

A

ATP synthase. It is embedded in the membrane of mitochondria, providing a channel for protons to cross.

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32
Q

How does the electron chain work for oxidative phosphorylation?

A

NADH and FADH bring electrons and protons to the electron transport train(matrix), where then the electrons power a natural electric pump through the intermembrane of the mitochondria. A special molecule will direct the e- to the next pump and will power a new electric pump(h+) and a high concentration of H+ will be generated in the intermembrane of the mitochondria from NADH and FADH bringing 2 e- and 2 H+. Once the flow of electrons reaches the last pump, it will be made into H2O from O2 and the protons will be transferred to the ATP synthase where the concentration gradient of H+ will cause it to move through the synthase and will create power to make the ATP synthase make ATP.

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33
Q

The H+ ion then flows across ATP synthase and energy released is used to make ATP.

A
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34
Q

Metabolism without oxygen(anaerobic respiration) has two reactions called?

A

Lactic Acid and Alcoholic Fermentation.

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35
Q

Lactic Acid(too much pyruvate) characteristics?

A

Used by most animal cells when O2 is not available. NADH donates 2 e- and a H+ directly to the pyruvate produced during glycolysis, producing lactate(3C) and NAD+. Makes muscles sore.

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36
Q

What are the muscles that produce facial expressions?

A

Epicranius, orbicularis oris and orbicularis oculi.

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37
Q

What are the muscles that move the lower jaw?

A

Masseter and Temporalis.

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38
Q

What are the muscles that move the head?

A

Sternocleidoimastoid.

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39
Q

What are the muscles used in breathing?

A

Diaphragm, external intercostal and internal intercostals.

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40
Q

What are the muscles that move the abdominal wall?

A

Rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique and transversus abdominis.

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41
Q

What are the muscles that move the scapula?

A

Pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, trapezius and rhomboids.

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42
Q

What are the muscles that move the arm?

A

Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi and deltoid.

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43
Q

Muscles that move the forearm?

A

Biceps brachii, brachialis, triceps brachii.

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44
Q

What are the tendon and aponeurosis

A

Epicranial aponeurotica and linea alba.

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45
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A

Cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscles.

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46
Q

Where is skeletal muscle tissue and characteristics?

A

Skeletal muscles and body movements.

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47
Q

Where is cardiac muscle located?

A

Heart.

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48
Q

Where is smooth muscle located?

A

Walls of hollow organs

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49
Q

Muscles connect to bone through tendons.

A
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50
Q

Muscle has contractile proteins.

A
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51
Q

Characteristics of skeletal muscles?

A

Skeletal muscles are long cylinder fibers(striated pattern), parallel and unbranched(nuclei are found in the wedges between each muscle fiber. (microfibers and strong power).

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52
Q

Characteristics of cardiac muscles?

A

Similar to skeletal muscle(striated pattern), but branches out and nuclei are found in the center of fiber.

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53
Q

Characteristics of smooth muscle?

A

Short and well defined muscle cells.

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54
Q

What are the 6 functions of the skeletal muscle?

A

Protects and supports(abdominal wall layers, floor of pelvic cavity). Regulates passage of materials(sphincters). Generating heat. Movement. Maintain posture.

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55
Q

What are the four characteristics of Muscle Tissue?

A

Extensibility, elasticity, excitability and contractility.

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56
Q

What is the name of the muscle cell?

A

Muscle fiber.

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57
Q

What is the name of the cell membrane of muscle fiber?

A

Sarcolemma.

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58
Q

What is the name of the cytoplasm of the muscle?

A

Sarcoplasm

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59
Q

What is the name of the modified endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum(SR).

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60
Q

What is the name of the most outer layer of the muscle tissue?

A

Epimysium(dense irregular).

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61
Q

What is the name of the connective tissue of the fascicle?

A

Perimysium(dense irregular).

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62
Q

What is the name of the connective tissue that surrounds the inner muscle fiber of the fascicle?

A

Endomysium(areolar)

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63
Q

What are the two names of the connective tissue attachments?

A

Tendon and aponeurosis.

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64
Q

In the inner muscle what surrounds an individual muscle fiber?

A

Sarcolemma.

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65
Q

Where is the sarcoplasmic reticulum found?

A

In the inner muscle fiber surrounding each myofibrils.

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66
Q

What is the matrix surrounding each myofibril in the muscle fiber?

A

Sarcoplasm.

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67
Q

What are the two parts of the triad?

A

T(transverse)-tubule and terminal cisternae.

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68
Q

Nucleus and mitochondria are found surrounding and inside the muscle fibers.

A
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69
Q

What are t(transverse)-tubes?

A

Extensions of the cell membrane(sarcolemma) that associate with the ends(terminal cisternae) of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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70
Q

What is the middle line of the sarcomere?

A

M line.

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71
Q

What is the zone between the two thin filaments?

A

H zone.

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72
Q

What is the band between the ends of the thick filaments of one sarcomere and another sarcomere thick filaments?

A

I band.

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73
Q

Between each I band what is the middle area?

A

A band(length of the thick filaments).

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74
Q

Where is the Z disc?

A

From the end of one sarcomere to the opposite end.

75
Q

What membrane surrounds the fascicles?

A

Perimysium.

76
Q

What membrane surrounds the muscle fiber?

A

Endomysium.

77
Q

Endomysium is the outer layer and ____ is the inner membrane layer.

A

Sarcolemma.

78
Q

What is the name of the head on the thick filaments in the myofilaments?

A

Myosin heads.

79
Q

What is the function of the myosin heads of the thick filaments?

A

Binds with the myosin binding site on the actin of the thin filament.

80
Q

What is the long string that spirals around the myosin binding site?

A

Tropomyosin.

81
Q

What protein is connected to the tropomyosin?

A

Troponin.

82
Q

What is the function of the t-tubes?

A

To transduct electrical signals to all internal muscle fiber.

83
Q

What is the function of troponin?

A

Calcium sensor and binding site.

84
Q

Actin and ___ are like two strong magnets that will connect when tropomyosin shys away.

A

Myosin head.

85
Q

A band will never change in size, but __ and __ in contraction will shorten.

A

H zone and I band.

86
Q

What is titin and the function?

A

Anchoring protein, provides elasticity and stabilizes myosin(thick filament).

87
Q

What is nebulin and the function?

A

Nebulin are anchoring proteins for thin filaments to hold the actin proteins in place.

88
Q

What makes up a motor unit?

A

1 motor neuron and all muscle fibers innervated(attachments to the individual fibers).

89
Q

What are the arms that connect to the motor neuron and the axon terminals(fingers)?

A

Motor neuron axon(1 arm).

90
Q

More axon terminals mean more power and less means more fine movements.

A
91
Q

Axons of motor neurons extend from the spinal cord of the muscle.

A
92
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

The connection between fiber and axon of motor neurons.

93
Q

How does the vesicle with ACh get released?

A

Ca2+ will cause the vesicle to be expelled and released(exocytosis).

94
Q

What is the messenger to trigger a neuromuscular junction to release the vesicle?

A

Ca2+.

95
Q

What is the name of the sarcolemma where the neuromuscular junction is connected to?

A

Motor end plate, it has many wrinkles to increase surface area.

96
Q

When a neurotransmitter(ACh) is released, where does it bind to?

A

ACh receptors.

97
Q

What is caused when ACh receptors are binded with ACh?

A

The ACh receptors will open and will trigger its own voltage change(gradient potential). This will generate action potential.

98
Q

What is the spacing between the synaptic knob and the sarcolemma?

A

Synaptic cleft.

99
Q

What are the non specific cation channels that are in the sarcolemma?

A

Nicotinic receptors aka ACh receptors.

100
Q

What is the function of the nicotinic receptors?

A

Used for K+(out) and Na+(in), but Na+ comes in quicker than K+ causing a positive charge(voltage).

101
Q

What is caused by the positive charge of the nicotinic receptors?

A

End Plate Potential.

102
Q

When does End Plate Potential(graded potential) do?

A

Causes a chain reaction of voltage gated Na+ and K+ channels to open and continuously allow the ions to be let in.

103
Q

The continuous flow of K+ and Na+ voltage gated channels creates more voltage potential, what is this called?

A

Action Potential. From the depolarization and repolarization.

104
Q

When the action potential goes from sarcolemma to the t-tubules what is caused?

A

The opening of the Ca+ channels in the terminal cisterna.

105
Q

What is the unstimulated skeletal muscle fiber resting membrane potential?

A

-90mV.

106
Q

What occurs to the unstimulated skeletal muscle when Na+ voltage gated channels open in the sarcolemma?

A

Depolarization, causing the polarity to reverse from -90 to +30 mV.

107
Q

What occurs to the stimulated skeletal muscle when the closing of Na+ channels and the opening of K+ channels?

A

Repolarization, polarity is reversed from positive to negative. +30 mV to -90mV.

108
Q

What is the enzyme that integrates the ACh?

A

Acetylcholinesterase.

109
Q

When myosin heads bind to the exposed myosin binding sites on the actin forming a ____ between actin and myosin. Is this high or low energy myosin?

A

Crossbridge formation. It causes high energy myosin.

110
Q

The myosin head swivels toward the center of the sarcomere, pulling along the attached thin filament. This is called ____.

A

Power stroke(pull). This causes contraction of the muscle.

111
Q

What causes the power stroke?

A

When the ADP and phosphate group combined on the head of the myosin creating ATP. When ATP turns into ADP and phosphate group again and is detached, causing the power stroke.

112
Q

What causes relaxation(needs ATP)?

A

AChE breaks down the ACh, calcium pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum and limits duration of contraction.

113
Q

Characteristics of calcium pumps on SR?

A

Calcium pumps of SR membrane transport 2 Ca2+ into SR and 2-3 H+ out.

114
Q

What are the 10 steps of muscle contraction and relaxation?

A

(contraction)ACh releases binding to receptors, action potential reaches T-tubes, sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+, active-site exposure and crossbridge binding, contraction begins. (relaxation)ACh removed by AChE, SR recaptures Ca2+, active sites covered and no crossbridge interaction, contraction ends, relaxation returns to resting length.

115
Q

What is the secondary messenger to successfully start contraction?

A

Calcium ion.

116
Q

What is one cause of muscle fatigue?

A

Runs of glycogen(ATP).

117
Q

Supplying energy needs by ____

A

Immediate supply of ATP(5-6 seconds)

118
Q

What are the two enzymes that turn ADP into ATP during immediate supply of ATP?

A

Myokinase and Creatine Kinase.

119
Q

What is the short term supply of energy?

A

Glycolysis(2 quick ATP).

120
Q

What is the long term supply of energy?

A

Aerobic respiration(oxygen required).

121
Q

What is oxygen debt?

A

When oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply. So you borrow O2 from somewhere else.

122
Q

During oxygen debt where is O2 taken from?

A

Hemoglobin(pigments in red blood cells), myoglobin(pigments in muscle cells).

123
Q

What causes one muscle twitch?

A

One single muscle contraction in response to AP.

124
Q

What are the four parts to one single muscle twitch?

A

Stimulus, Latent period, Contraction period and relaxation period. This takes place during a 40 ms period.

125
Q

What influences the amount of tension in the myofilaments in the muscle?

A

Amount of overlapping between thin and thick filaments.

126
Q

What is recruitment?

A

Increased number of motor units stimulated.

127
Q

Why can you lift heavy and light objects?

A

The amount of motor units used during the lifting.

128
Q

When muscle stimulations occur in the span of 10-20 stimuli/sec without being able to reach full relaxation this is called ____.

A

Treppe.

129
Q

Why does treppe occur?

A

Each twitch develops more tension, calcium is not returned, heat of tissue increases myosin ATPase efficiency(ADP→ATP).

130
Q

What is wave summation?

A

Increased number of stimuli. Twitch summation = Wave summation which increases stimulus frequency.

131
Q

What is incomplete tetanus?

A

Sustained contractions with partial relaxation.

132
Q

What is complete tetanus(20-50 stimuli per sec)?

A

Sustained contractions without relaxation(causes fatigue).

133
Q

What are origin(more proximal) and insertion(more distal)?

A

Where the muscle attaches to bone.

134
Q

Where is the sartorius(longest muscle?

A

Attaches to anterior superior iliac bone and tibia, inner thigh.

135
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

Bundle of skeletal muscle fibers arranged in different patterns.

136
Q

Where is Trapezius?

A

Superior posterior of the back, shaped like a triangle.

137
Q

Where are the latissimus dorsi?

A

Inferior posterior of the back, like a blanket for your back. Underneath the trapezius.

138
Q

What are the fascicles arranged in concentric rings? Example(2) and where are they found?

A

Circular, surrounding body openings or recesses. Examples of orbicularis oris, oculi and sphincter

139
Q

What are the fascicles arranged in parallel with the long axis of muscles? Characteristics and examples(2)?

A

Parallel, high endurance but less strength. Example of rectus abdominis, rectus femoris.

140
Q

What are the fascicles that converge on a common attachment with a broad origin? Characteristic and example?

A

Convergent, muscle fibers run the length of muscle and are versatile. Example of pectoralis major and pectoralis minor(ribs 3-5).

141
Q

What are the short fascicles attached to the tendon that runs the length of muscle(multi)? Characteristics and examples?

A

multipennate, all fascicles insert into one central tendon. Example of deltoid, usually a big muscle.

142
Q

What are the short fascicles attached to the tendon that runs the length of muscle(uni)? Characteristics and examples?

A

Usually small muscle fascicles insert into the tendon from one side. Example of extensor digitorum(extend finger)

143
Q

All extensors are in the ___ part and all the flexors are in the ___.

A

Posterior and interior.

144
Q

What is the most common pennate with short fascicles attached to the tendon that runs the length of muscle? Example?

A

Bipennate, fascicles insert into tendon from both sides. Example of rectus femoris.

145
Q

What are the defining functions of the fascicle arrangement and muscle characteristics?

A

Range of motion, amount of movement produced when a muscle shortens. Power, force generated.

146
Q

Skeletal muscles can shorten up to __ their length.

A

⅓.

147
Q

Bipennate and multipennate have ___ fibers, meaning more force generated.

A

Bigger.

148
Q

What is an Agonist and Antagonists?

A

Prime mover and opposite function of agonists.

149
Q

What is an example of agonists and antagonists?

A

Biceps brachii and triceps brachii when moving the elbow.

150
Q

What is a synergist?

A

Assist prime mover and stabilizes joint(supporting actor).

151
Q

What is the origin and insertion of biceps brachii?

A

Scapula to radius.

152
Q

What is the origin and insertion of triceps brachii?

A

Scapula to ulna.

153
Q

What is an example of a synergist?

A

Brachialis and brachioradialis to biceps brachii. Pectoralis minor or pectoralis major.

154
Q

What are the two costal muscles(named by location)?

A

External intercostal and internal intercostals(pull lungs down).

155
Q

What is an example of a skeletal muscle named by the shape?

A

Deltoid.

156
Q

What is the muscle example from naming of relative size?

A

Gluteus maximus(big exterior muscle of the posterior side of body), gluteus medius(superior ot gluteus maximus), gluteus minimus(deep to the gluteus medius), and pinfornia(deep to gluteus maximus).

157
Q

What are the names under relative size of skeletal muscle?

A

Maximus, minimus, longus, and brevis.

158
Q

What is an example of longus and brevis?

A

Adductor magnus, adductor longus and adductor brevis(all synergist muscle).

159
Q

What are the names under fascicle orientation for skeletal muscle?

A

Rectus, transverse and oblique.

160
Q

Example of rectus, transverse and oblique muscles?

A

Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis and oblique internal and external muscles.

161
Q

What is the line of the abdominus(aponeurosis)?

A

Linea alba.

162
Q

What is the muscle attached from the scapula to the mid of the humerus?

A

Coracobrachialis.

163
Q

What is the muscle with the origin of the clavicle of an insertion mastoid process of temporal bone?

A

Sternocleidomastoid, moves your neck.

164
Q

Biceps brachii have ___ origins and triceps have ___ origins.

A

Two and three.

165
Q

Where is the brachioradialis located?

A

Over the radius(upper) in anatomical position.

166
Q

What is the frontal muscle?

A

Frontalis.

167
Q

What is the occipital muscle?

A

Occipitalis.

168
Q

What is the aponeurosis sheet of frontalis and occipitalis?

A

Epicranial aponeurosis.

169
Q

What is the temporal muscle?

A

Temporalis.

170
Q

What does the temporalis connect/help?

A

Masseter.

171
Q

What does the masseter do?

A

Connect the mandible to the zygomatic process.

172
Q

What are the two neck muscles?

A

Sternocleidomastoid(frontal part of your neck) and trapezius(posterior of back to neck).

173
Q

What are the muscles over the ribs and connected to the external oblique muscles?

A

Serratus anterior(helps you breath along with internal intercostal).

174
Q

What is the sits muscles?

A

Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis.

175
Q

What is the origin and insertion of infraspinatus?

A

Scapula and humerus.

176
Q

What is the origin and insertion of of supraspinatus?

A

Scapula and humerus.

177
Q

What is the origin and insertion of subscapularis?

A

Scapula and humerus.

178
Q

What is the origin and insertion of teres minor?

A

scapula and humerus.

179
Q

What is the origin and insertion of rectus femoris?

A

Iliac and tibial.

180
Q

What are the three vastus muscles?

A

Vastus femoris, lateralis and meadialis.

181
Q

What are the tendons and aponeuroses of the lower limbs?

A

Iliotibial tract and calcaneal tendon.

182
Q

What are the muscles that move the foot?

A

Tibialis anterior gastrocnemius and soleus.

183
Q

What are the origins, insertions and actions of the following
deltoid
biceps brachii
triceps brachii
sternocleidomastoid
rectus femoris
biceps femoris
gastrocnemius

A
  • scapula and radius. flexion and supination of the forearm.
  • humerus/scapula and ulna. extension of the forearm.
  • sternum/clavicle and temporal bone. flexes/rotates neck.
  • iliac spine and patella. extends the knee and flexes hip.
  • ischial and fibula. thigh extension, knee flection and external rotation.
  • femur and calcaneus. pulls up the heel and extends foot downward.