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Flying – Knowledge Test > Unit 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft

A

device that is used for flight in the air

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2
Q

Airplane

A

engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft that is supported by wings

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3
Q

Air traffic control (ATC)

A

service to promote safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic

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4
Q

Category

A

broad classification of aircrafts (transport, utility, acrobatic…)

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5
Q

Class

A

classification of aircraft within a category (single-engine, multi-engine, helicopter…)

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6
Q

Ceiling

A

height of lowest layer of clouds above Earth’s surface

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7
Q

Controlled airspace

A

airspace of defined dimension which ATC service is provided

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8
Q

Decision height (DH)

A

height above ground level (AGL) where the decision to continue or abandon approach must be made (instrument)

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9
Q

Flight plan

A

specified info relating to intended flight that is filed orally or in writing with ATC

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10
Q

Flight time

A

time between aircraft moves under its own power → comes to rest after landing

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11
Q

Large aircraft

A

max takeoff weight of +12,500 lb

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12
Q

Maintenance

A

inspection, overhaul, repair, and preservation of the aircraft & replacement of parts

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13
Q

Major alteration

A

alteration that might affect weight, balance, strength, performance, flight… of an aircraft

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14
Q

Manifold pressure

A

absolute pressure as measured in the induction system (expressed inches of mercury)

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15
Q

Minimum descent altitude (MDA)

A

lowest altitude where a descent is authorized on final approach (expressed in ft above mean sea level)

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16
Q

Night

A

time between end of evening civil twilight → beginning of morning civil twilight

(1h after sunset to 1h before sunrise)

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17
Q

Non Precision approach procedure

A

standard instrument approach with no electronic glide slope

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18
Q

Pilotage

A

navigation by visual reference to landmarks

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19
Q

Pilot in command (PIC)

A

person who has final authority, hold appropriate category/class/type rating, was designated PIC before flight

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20
Q

Positive control

A

control of all air traffic, within designated airspace by ATC

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21
Q

Precision approach procedure

A

standard instrument approach with an electronic glide slope

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22
Q

Small aircraft

A

max takeoff weight less than 12,500 lb

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23
Q

AFM

A

airplane flight manual

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24
Q

AGL

A

above ground level

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25
Q

ATC

A

air traffic control

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26
Q

CAS

A

calibrated air speed

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27
Q

DME

A

distance-measuring equipment

(compatible with TACAN)

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28
Q

FAA

A

federal aviation administration

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29
Q

FSTD

A

flight simulation training devic

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30
Q

FTD

A

flight training device

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31
Q

HIRL

A

high-intensity runway light system

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32
Q

IAS

A

indicated airspeed

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33
Q

ICAO

A

international civil aviation organization

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34
Q

LSA

A

light sport aircraft

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35
Q

MEL

A

minimum equipment list

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36
Q

MSL

A

mean sea level

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37
Q

NM

A

nautical mile

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38
Q

RBN

A

radio beacon

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39
Q

REIL

A

runway end identification lights

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40
Q

RNAV

A

area navigation

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41
Q

TACAN

A

ultra-high-frequency tactical air navigational aid

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42
Q

TAS

A

true airspeed

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43
Q

TCAS

A

traffic alert and collision avoidance system

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44
Q

TDZL

A

touchdown zone

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45
Q

TSO

A

technical standard order

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46
Q

VA

A

design maneuvering speed

(max speed limit load imposed)

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47
Q

VX

A

best angle of climb speed

(clear obstacles)

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48
Q

VY

A

best rate of climb speed

(reach altitude quickly)

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49
Q

VNE

A

never-exceed speed

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50
Q

VS

A

stalling speed

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51
Q

VS0

A

stalling speed in landing configuration

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52
Q

VS1

A

stalling speed in specific configuration

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53
Q

VR

A

rotation speed

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54
Q

VC

A

design cruising speed

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55
Q

VFE

A

flap extended speed

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56
Q

VLE

A

max landing gear extended speed

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57
Q

VLO

A

max landing gear operating speed

58
Q

VLOF

A

lift-off speed

59
Q

VMO

A

max operating limit speed

60
Q

VNO

A

max structural cruising speed

61
Q

VFR

A

visual flight rules

62
Q

VHF

A

very high frequency

63
Q

VOR

A

very-high-frequency omnirange station

64
Q

VORTAC

A

collated VOR and TACAN

65
Q

Standard airworthiness certificates

A

issued for aircraft type certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category

66
Q

How long do airworthiness certificates last?

A

as long as maintenance & alterations are performed in accordance with FAA

67
Q

Special flight permits

A

aircraft not currently able to meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is cable of safe flight for other purposes

68
Q

Airworthiness directives (ADS)

A

legally enforceable rules that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances

69
Q

Who is authorised to perform maintenance?

A

Someone that holds a pilot certificate is authorized to perform maintenance on their own aircraft

(14 CFR Part 43.3)

70
Q

Preventative maintenance:

A

simple preservation operations & replacement of small standard parts

(ie. replenishing hydraulic fluid & servicing landing gear wheel bearings)

71
Q

What kind of paperwork is required to be filled after preventative maintenance?

A

signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

72
Q

When is aircraft registration no longer valid?

A
  • 30 days after death of certificate holder
  • F foreign registration
  • T transfer of ownership
  • D destruction of aircraft
  • U United States citizenship revoked
  • C cancellation of registration
73
Q

Aeronautical experience

A

pilot time obtained in an aircraft, flight simulator, flight training device

74
Q

Cross country time

A

includes point of landing that is at least a straight-line distance of +50 NM from original point of departure

75
Q

Ground training

A

training, other than flight, received from an authorized instructor

76
Q

When must you report to FAA if you drove while intoxicated?

A

report to FAA (Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office) less than 60 days after conviction

77
Q

What is the blood alcohol tolerance for a pilot?

A

0.04% blood

must wait +8h after consumption

78
Q

When does a First-class medical expire?

A

12 months after examination (less than 40 years)

6 months (+40)

79
Q

When does a Second-class medical expire?

A

12 months after examination for operations requiring commercial pilot certificate

80
Q

When does a Third-class medical expire?

A

60 months after examination (less than 40)

24 months (+40)

81
Q

How long does a flight review last for?

A

valid for 2 years

82
Q

Requirements to be a PIC

A

must have made at least 3 takeoffs & landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type in the last 90 days

83
Q

What documents must be onboard plane at all times?

A

valid Airworthiness Certificate

Operating limitations & Registration Certificate

84
Q

Aviation Safety Reporting Program (ASRP)

A

information concerning deficiencies in the aviation system

85
Q

What happens if you deviate from a regulation during an emergency?

A

must send written report to FAA upon request

86
Q

Right of Way Rules

2 aircrafts are approaching head on

A
  • both should alter course to the right
87
Q

Right of Way Rules

2 aircrafts converging

A

aircraft to the RIGHT has the right of way

88
Q

Right of Way Rules

landing

A

Aircraft on final approach has right of way (lower altitude)

89
Q

Right of Way Rules

Category of aircraft

A

Balloon, glider, airship, powered parachute, weight-shift control aircraft, airplane, helicopter

(sorter based on maneuverability)

90
Q

Does any aircraft in distress have the ultimate right of way?

A

yes

91
Q

Speed Limit

Below 10,000ft MSL

A

250 kt

92
Q

Speed Limit

Within class B airspace

A

200 kt

93
Q

Speed Limit

Below 2,500ft AGL & within 4 NM of airport

A

200 kt

94
Q

NOTAM

A

Temporary flight restrictions

(president, aerial demonstration, sporting event, abnormally high barometric pressure +31 in mercury…)

95
Q

Basic VFR fuel requirements day & night?

A

fly to 1st point landing + additional 30 min

(+45min at night)

96
Q

When must an ELT must be inspected?

A

every 12 months

97
Q

When must an ELT battery be replaced?

A

after 50% of their useful life has expired or when in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

98
Q

When must an ELT be tested?

A

during the first 5 minutes after the hour

99
Q

When should you use strobe lights (anti-collsion)?

A

at all times

100
Q

When is oxygen mandatory?

A

If cabin pressure above 15,000 ft MSL

101
Q

In what airspaces are Mode C transponders required?

A

Class A, B, C airspace

102
Q

When are ADS-B Out required?

A

Class A, B, C airspace or below 18,000ft MSL

103
Q

ADS-B Out

A

function of an aircraft’s onboard avionics that periodically broadcasts the aircraft’s state vector

(3D position & velocity)

104
Q

When is aerobatic flight prohibited?

A
  • visibility less than 3 SM
  • altitude less 1,500ft above ground
  • over congested area
105
Q

When are parachutes required?

A

intentional maneuver exceeds a bank of 60º nose-up or down

(attitude of 30º relative to horizon)

106
Q

When do annual inspections expire?

A
  • on last day of the 12 month
107
Q

How should inspections be kept track of?

A

documented in airplane’s maintenance records

108
Q

Passanger briefing

A
  • Smoking
  • Safety belts & shoulder harnesses
  • Emergency exit
  • Location of survival equipment
  • Floating equipment
  • Emergency oxygen
109
Q

VFR above 3,000ft AGL

magnetic course 0º - 179º

A

fly any odd thousand-foot MSL altitude + 500ft

110
Q

VFR above 3,000ft AGL

magnetic course 180º - 359º

A

fly any even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500ft

111
Q

Aircraft accident

A

injury/death or aircraft receives substantial damage

112
Q

Fatal injury

A

injury resulting in death within 30 days of accident

113
Q

Serious injury

A

injury that requires hospitalization

114
Q

Substantial damage

A

damage that affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics & require major repair

115
Q

Unmanned aircraft accident

A

operation of any public/civil unmanned aircraft system in which aircraft has max takeoff weight of 300 lb and sustains substantial damage, person suffers injury or death

116
Q

Who should be notified when aircraft involved in an accident?

A

Nearest NTSB office must be notified immediately

(Flight control system malfunction, fire, collision, damage, injury… )

117
Q

Who is responsible for preserving any wreckage, cargo, records until NTSB takes custody?

A

aircraft operator

118
Q

When is Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment required?

A

In Class E airspace above 10,000 ft. MSL, except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL.

119
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

120
Q

Under what condition could an aircraft’s engine logbook show no previous operating history?

A

When the aircraft’s engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.

121
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

122
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL.

123
Q

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you

A

must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

124
Q

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

A

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

125
Q

Can this be done without ADS-B out equip?

A VFR flight that departs a Class D airport, cruises in Class E airspace at 7,500 ft. MSL, and arrives at another Class D airport.

A

Yes

126
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

127
Q

If you are operating under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed at which you may fly?

A

250 kt

128
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

129
Q

If you are operating under BasicMed, you may only fly aircraft that are certificated to carry no more than ____ occupants.

A

6

130
Q

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

A

10

131
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office?

A

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

132
Q

VS0 is defined as the

A

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

133
Q

In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from:

A

A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.

134
Q

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

A

Aircraft maintenance records.

135
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

136
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way.

137
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

138
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

139
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right.

140
Q

VNO is defined as the

A

maximum structural cruising speed.

141
Q

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

A

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

142
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Flying – Knowledge Test (13 decks)

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