Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the

A

lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

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2
Q

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.

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3
Q

A positive indication on an ammeter

A

shows the rate of charge on the battery.

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4
Q

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

A

Flight over a densely populated area.

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5
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A

remain the same regardless of gross weight.

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6
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

A

magnetic course of 0° through 179°.

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7
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

A

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

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8
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A

Dissipating

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9
Q

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

A

friction between the wind and the surface.

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10
Q

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

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11
Q

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

A

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

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12
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?

A

1200

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13
Q

You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell; however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?

A

Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.

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14
Q

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A

terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

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15
Q

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

A

primary airport’s control tower.

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16
Q

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

A

True direction and knots.

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17
Q

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

An in-flight fire.

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18
Q

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

A

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

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19
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

A

Level flight attitude.

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20
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

A

Advection fog and upslope fog.

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21
Q

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

A

steady red.

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22
Q

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

A

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

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23
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

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24
Q

The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking indicates

A

A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

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25
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A

1 mile flight visibility

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26
Q

When is Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment required?

A

Class E airspace above 10,000 ft. MSL, except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL.

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27
Q

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

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28
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

A

500 ft

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29
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

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30
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunset to sunrise

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31
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

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32
Q

As air temperature increases, density altitude will

A

increase

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33
Q

Which items are included in the standard empty weight of an aircraft?

A

Unusable fuel and full engine oil.

34
Q

Winds aloft forecast notation: true or magnetic?

A

Xº true

35
Q

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

A

An abbreviated briefing.

36
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A

Chart Supplement

37
Q

What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?

A

Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.

38
Q

In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

A

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

39
Q

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the

A

inflight aviation weather advisories.

40
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

A

magnetic course of 0° through 179°.

41
Q

What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications?

A

7600

42
Q

Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?

A

Chart Supplement.

43
Q

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

A

4,000 feet AGL.

44
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to?

A

Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office.

45
Q

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?

A

Evaporation and sublimation.

46
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right.

47
Q

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

A

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

48
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

49
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A

25 knots

50
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

The airship

51
Q

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

A

Lower limit of the green arc.

52
Q

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

A

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

53
Q

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A

blue omnidirectional lights.

54
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

55
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

56
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.

57
Q

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

A

Freezing rain

58
Q

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

A

To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

59
Q

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A

return to the starting point on the airport.

60
Q

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

A

sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.

61
Q

An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

A

experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance

62
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A

1 mile (class G)

63
Q

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you

A

must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office

64
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 kt

65
Q

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

A

visible moisture

66
Q

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

A

SIGMET

67
Q

(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

A

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

68
Q

While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed crossing the road reference line. This would most likely occur in…

A

4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn

69
Q

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing adresses and fails to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of the new adress, the pilot is entitlted to exersice the privelages of a pilot certificate for a period of only…

A

30 days after the date of move.

70
Q

When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope it…

A

Produces stratus type clouds

71
Q

How does frost effect the lifting surfaces of an airplane during takeoff?

A

Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborn at normal takeoff speed

72
Q

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the…

A

lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visbility into an obscuration

73
Q

(Refer to Area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk international?

A

Mode C transponder and two-way radio

74
Q

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breazes are caused by

A

cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

75
Q

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

A

In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

76
Q

How could you receive in flight weather information about your destination if you are still 150 NM away?

A

Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B

77
Q

How could you receive in flight weather information about your destination if you are still 150 NM away?

A

Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B

77
Q

How could you receive in flight weather information about your destination if you are still 150 NM away?

A

Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B

78
Q

Elevation contours on sectional charts vary by what increments?

A

500 ft

79
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, which airspace require the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillence-broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed?

A

Within class G airspace, 25 NM from a Class B airport

80
Q

Expect necessary for takeoff and landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance away from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?

A

500 ft