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2SCPHLec > Unit 3 - Communicable Diseases Part 4 > Flashcards

Unit 3 - Communicable Diseases Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

spread from one person to another through a variety of ways

A

Communicable diseases

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2
Q

are defined as disorders caused by pathogenic microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, parasites or fungi that can be spread directly or indirectly (vector-borne) from one individual to another.

A

infectious diseases

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3
Q

medical specialty dealing with the diagnosis and treatment of complex infections.

A

infectiology

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4
Q

healthcare acquired infections

A

nosocomial

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5
Q

t/f: an infectious disease specialist’s practice consists of managing nosocomial and community-acquired infections

A

TRUE

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6
Q

t/f: an infectious disease specialist is historically associated with travel medicine and tropical medicine

A

TRUE

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7
Q

is an interdisciplinary branch of medicine that deals with health issues that occur uniquely, are more widespread, or are more difficult to control in tropical and subtropical regions.

A

tropical medicine

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8
Q

t/f: a physician in the field of tropical medicine must be knowledgeable in the 3 lesser known neglected tropical diseases

A

false, 18

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9
Q

He was concered on the maternal mortality due to childbed fever in first and second clinics

A

Ignas Philipp Semmelweis

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10
Q

his work represented the first scientific attempt to control an infectious disease by the deliberate use of vaccination.

A

Edward Jenner

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11
Q

introduced the small pox vaccine

A

edward jenner

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12
Q

Directed the World Health Organization Smallpox Eradication Program

A

Dr. D.A. Henderson

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13
Q

A British physician who is considered one of the founders of epidemiology for his work identifying the source of a cholera outbreak in 1854.

A

John Snow

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14
Q

Explores the relationship of agent, host, and environment, as well as their importance

A

epidemiologic triad

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15
Q

infectious microorganism or pathogen: a virus, bacterium, parasite, or other microbe

A

agent

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16
Q

t/f: presence of that agent alone is not always sufficient to cause disease

A

TRUE

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17
Q

Refers to the human who can get the disease

A

host

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18
Q

t/f: animals may also be hosts of certain diseases

A

TRUE

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19
Q

A variety of factors intrinsic to the host can influence an individual’s exposure, susceptibility

A

risk factors

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20
Q

Refers to extrinsic factors that affect the agent and the opportunity for exposure

A

environment

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21
Q

Opportunities for exposure are often influenced by ___ and ___ susceptibility

A

behaviors and physiologic

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22
Q

Environmental factors include (3)

A

physical, biologic, socioeconomic

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23
Q

refers to the spread of infection (or agent) from a source to a susceptible host

A

chain of infection

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24
Q

useful framework in the design of prevention and control measures as specific strategies can be aimed at various points along it

A

chain of infection

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25
Q

Strategies or actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the impact of disease and disability, or if none of these are feasible , retarding the progress of disease and disability.

A

prevention

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26
Q

Ongoing operations at reducing the:
- Incidence of Disease
- Duration of disease
- Effects of the disease - Burden to community

A

control

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27
Q

Reduction in the risk and severity of a disease at the individual level

A

prevention

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28
Q

Reduction in the frequency and severity of a disease at the community level

A

control

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29
Q

viral infection that
causes inflammation of both the brain and the spinal cord (Siebert).

A

rabies

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30
Q

Rabies is a zoonotic disease, meaning that it is a disease that is transmitted to humans via ____ reservoirs

A

domestic and animal

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31
Q

t/f: the most common way Rabies is spread is through saliva

A

TRUE

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32
Q

t/f: Not only can rabies be transmitted through bites, but also through licking

A

TRUE

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33
Q

t/f: The rabies virus can pass through intact skin, and enter skin that is punctured or open

A

false, cannot pass through intact skin

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34
Q

any person/animal around an infected animal is a ____ Rabies.

A

susceptible host

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35
Q

A tool designed to facilitate consistency in the
implementation of the National Rabies Prevention and Control Program among clinicians, health service providers, program managers and coordinators and other stakeholders nationwide.

A

National Rabies Prevention and Control Program Manual of Procedures (MOP)

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36
Q

The manual presents step by step reference guides for all health professionals to aid in the proper diagnosis of cases of animal bites and human rabies; as well as to deliver evidence-based management for patients and special group of people.

A

National Rabies Prevention and Control Program Manual of Procedures (MOP)

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37
Q

__ % positive cases are from canine samples

A

96%

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38
Q

__ % rabies cases are owned

A

72%

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39
Q

__% of rabies cases were either free-roaming or
occasionally roaming

A

88%

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40
Q

who said “Let’s destroy the virus and be done with it… We would be better off spending our money in better ways.” on WHO’s eradixation effort

A

D. A. Henderson

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41
Q

t/f: as of 2014, debate over small pox virus destruction was still ongoing

A

TRUE

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42
Q

One concern is that the molecular sequence of the virus is publicly known, meaning that, even if all smallpox viruses are eliminated, someone could ____ it in a laboratory and loose it on the world

A

synthesize

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43
Q

Resides only in humans and enters the environment in the feces of someone who’s infected

A

Polio

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44
Q

mode of transmission of polio

A

fecal-oral route

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45
Q

In the U.S., the polio vaccine is
recommended to be given at the following ages (4)

A

• 2 months
• 4 months
• Between 6 and 18 months
• Between 4 and 6 years

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46
Q

portal of exit of polio (4)

A
  1. Respiratory secretions
  2. Ingestion of contaminated food or water
  3. Going to the bathroom
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47
Q

portal of entry of polio (3)

A

Eyes • Nose • Mouth

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48
Q

Susceptible host of polio (3)

A

Pregnant Women
• Infants and young
children
• Those with weak
immune system

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49
Q

t/f: poliovirus, like smallpox virus, infects human beings only

A

TRUE

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50
Q

three countries with endemic polio (3)

A

Nigeria, Pakistan, Afghanistan

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51
Q

On ____ date, an outbreak of polio was
declared in the Philippines.

A

September 19, 2019

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52
Q

public-private partnership led by
national governments with five partners – the World Health Organization (WHO), Rotary International, the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation. Its goal is to eradicate polio worldwide.

A

global polio eradication initiative

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53
Q

DOH extended its _____ campaign to ensure that no child is left unvaccinated and to boost protection for those already vaccinated.

A

Sabayang Patak Kontra Polio (SPKP)

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54
Q

Before a vaccine was available, almost all children contracted measles, causing ___ to ___ deaths a year in the United States

A

400 - 500

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55
Q

____ cases of chronic disability from measles encephalitis.

A

4000

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56
Q

measle vaccine became available in ___ year

A

1963

57
Q

n 1978, the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services set a goal to eradicate measles from this country by ___

A

1982

58
Q

t/f: in eradication of measles, One problem was that outbreaks of measles began to occur among high school and college students who had been vaccinated as babies.

A

TRUE

59
Q

aslo known as Rubeola virus

A

Measles

60
Q

Reservoir of Measles (3)

A

respiratory tracts, nasal passages, throats

61
Q

portal of exit of measles

A

droplets/secretions leaving mouth or nose generated in respiratory system

62
Q

means of transmission of measles (2)

A

Airborne, Droplets

63
Q

Portal of entry of measles (2)

A

mouth and nose

64
Q

susceptible hosts of measles (2)

A

• People that have not been vaccinated
• Someone who was in the same area, at the same time, or within 2 hours after of an infected person

65
Q

symptoms of true measles a baby could develop are (2)

A

rashes and blindness or photophobia

66
Q

tigdas is also called

A

three day measles or german measles

67
Q

year: First mention of preventative inoculations in writing in China (smallpox)

A

16th century

68
Q

year: Englishman Edward Jenner introduces the first scientific method of vaccination

A

1796

69
Q

year: Smallpox vaccinations become mandatory in the UK

A

1853

70
Q

year: Frenchman Louis Pasteur develops the first live virus vaccine (rabies)

A

1885

71
Q

year: First virus discovered

A

1892 - 1898

72
Q

year: Development of tuberculosis, diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough vaccines

A

1920 - 1926

73
Q

year: First vaccine against the flu

A

1944

74
Q

year: First combination vaccines (DTP – diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough)

A

1950 - 1960

75
Q

year: First genetically engineered vaccine (hepatitis B)

A

1986

76
Q

New type of vaccine that uses fragments of mRNA or DNA to produce an adaptive immune response through the host cells, producing copies of that target antigen

A

nucleic acid vaccine

77
Q

vaccine that Elicits both antibody and cytotoxic T-lymphocyte responses

A

nucleic acid vaccine

78
Q

t/f: booster is required for nucleic acid vaccine

A

TRUE

79
Q

vaccine Uses a killed version of the virus to generate immunity

A

inactivated vaccine

80
Q

vaccine that Elicits neutralizing antibodies without a cell-mediated
response

A

inactivated vaccine

81
Q

vaccine that Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients

A

inactivated vaccine

82
Q

proven vaccine technology already in use for several
diseases (hepatitis A, influenza, polio, rabies)

A

inactivated vaccine

83
Q

t/f: booster dose is need for inactivated vaccine

A

TRUE

84
Q

Uses modified non-coronaviruses (adenoviruses, vesicular stomatitis virus) expressing SARS-CoV-2 spike protein

A

Viral vector

85
Q

this vaccine has Potential safety concerns in immunocompromised patients

A

iviral vector

86
Q

t/f: in viral vector vaccines, Host immunity to the viral vector ma reduce vaccine efficacy

A

TRUE

87
Q

t/f: viral vector vaccines need booster dose

A

FALSE

88
Q

Uses recombinant viral proteins to induce immune response

A

protein vaccine

89
Q

Proven vaccine technology already in use for many diseases
(e.g., hepatitis B, HPV, pertussis, herpes zoster)

A

protein vaccine

90
Q

t/f: protein vaccine can be safe for immunocompromised

A

TRUE

91
Q

t/f: booster dose is not needed for protein vaccine

A

FALSE

92
Q

believed to be related to both vaccine hesitancy and vaccine acceptance

A

vaccine confidence

93
Q

Refers to delay or refusal of
vaccines despite availability of vaccine services, and is complex and context specific, varying across time, place and vaccine

A

vaccine hesitancy

94
Q

Characterized in terms of vaccine uptake/coverage or adherence to recommended schedule and measured by past behavior and/or intentions or willingness to comply in the future

A

vaccine acceptance

95
Q

Taxonomy for vaccine uptake (5)

A

access, affordability, awareness, acceptance, activation

96
Q

The ability of individuals to be reached by, or to reach, recommended vaccines

A

acess

97
Q

The ability of individuals to afford vaccination, both in terms of financial and non-financial costs (e.g., time)

A

affordability

98
Q

The degree to which individuals have knowledge of the need for, and availability of, recommended vaccines and their objective benefits and risks

A

awareness

99
Q

The degree to which individuals accept, question or refuse vaccination

A

acceptance

100
Q

The degree to which individuals are nudged towards vaccination uptake (sometimes done through the school)

A

activation

101
Q

opposed compulsory smallpox vaccination from the final decades of the 19th century through the 1910s

A

Anti-Vaccination Society of America

102
Q

anti-vaccination society of america was founded by ____

A

William Tebb

103
Q

tuberculosis Resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin

A

Multidrug Resistant TB (MDR-TB)

104
Q

months of treatment of MDR TB

A

Intensive (6-9 months), continuation phase (18 months)

105
Q

months of treatment for XDR TB

A

intense phase (6-12 months), continuation phase (18 months)

106
Q

tuberculosis Resistant to best 2nd line drugs

A

extremely drug resistant TB

107
Q

Strains of bacteria, viruses, parasites and fungi that are resistant to most of the antibiotics and other medications commonly used to treat the infections they cause.

A

superbugs

108
Q

s an infection that can be passed through vaginal, oral or anal sex.

A

Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI)

109
Q

new name of STDs

A

STBBIs (Sexually transmitted and blood borne infections)

110
Q

t/f: the word infection is more accurate because some conditions may or may not have visible symptoms

A

TRUE

111
Q

STBBIs: n infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

A

chlamydia

112
Q

t/f: People with
chlamydia most often do not show symptoms.

A

TRUE

113
Q

STBBIs: an infection caused by the Herpes simplex

A

genital herpes

114
Q

t/f: people with genital herpes remain infected for the rest of their lives

A

TRUE

115
Q

STBBIs: infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

gonorrhea

116
Q

t/f: you can only have gonorrhea once in your life

A

false, more than once

117
Q

STBBIs: inflammations of the liver caused by different viruses.

A

Hep A, B, C

118
Q

t/f: some of HPVs can be transmitted sexually

A

TRUE

119
Q

STBBIs: n infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

A

lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

120
Q

t/f: LGV is symptomatic

A

FALSE, does not always show symptoms

121
Q

STBBIs: infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.

A

Syphilis

122
Q

t/f: syphilis may be asymptomatic

A

TRUE

123
Q

refers to the process of providing an individual with information on the biomedical aspects of HIV AIDS, and emotional support to any psychological implications of under going HIV testing and the test result itself before the individual is subjected to the test;

A

pretest counseling

124
Q

refers to a preventive medical treatment started immediately after exposure to pathogen(HIV) in order to prevent infection by the pathogen and the development of the disease;

A

post exposure prophylaxis

125
Q

refers to the process of providing risk- reduction information and emotional support to a person who submitted to HIV testing at the time the result is released;

A

post-test counseling

126
Q

efers to the process by which the “index client”, “source”, or “patient” who has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) including HIV, is given support in order to notify and advise the partners that have been exposed to infection. Support includes giving the index client a mechanism to encourage the client’s partner to attend counseling, testing and other prevention and treatment services. Confidentiality shall be observed in the entire process;

A

partner notification

127
Q

NRL for AIDS/HIV

A

SACCL (STD AIDS Cooperative Center Laboratory)

128
Q

a non-stock, non-profit foundation registered under the Securities and Exchange Commission of the Philippines, is an HIV and AIDS advocacy foundation composed of advocates, supporters and persons living with HIV (PLHIV)

A

project red ribbon

129
Q

central advisory, planning and policy-making body for the comprehensive and integrated HIV/AIDS prevention and control program in the Philippines.”

A

PNAC (philippine national aids council)

130
Q

leading association of individuals from the government, non-government agencies, and the private sector, with a common unifying interest in preventing the spread of HIV and AIDS.

A

ASP

131
Q

ASP was established in 1996 by its Founding President, Dr. ____

A

Ofelia Monzon

132
Q

Roughly ___ in ____ people living with HIV is b e i n gdenied health services because of stigma and discrimination.

A

one in 8 people

133
Q

refers to the voluntary agreement of a person to undergo or be subjected to a procedure based on full information, whether such permission is written or conveyed verbally;

A

informed consent

134
Q

refers to those groups or persons at higher risk of HIV exposure, or affected populations whose behavior make them likely to be exposed to HIV or to transmit the virus

A

key affected populations

135
Q

refers to the legal principle that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures, if they have been assessed by qualified health professionals to understand the nature of procedures and their consequences to make a decision on their own;

A

mature minor doctrine

136
Q

refers to the core duty of medical practice where the information provided by the patient to health practitioner and his/her health status is kept private and is not divulged to third parties.

A

medical confidentiality

137
Q

an infectious disease of the liver caused by the Hepatitis B Virus.

A

Hepatitis B

138
Q

t/f: hepatitis can be spread unknowingly

A

TRUE

139
Q

treatment for antibiotic resistant Neisseria Gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

2SCPHLec (13 decks)

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