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Anatomy 2 > Unit 1 final rev > Flashcards

Unit 1 final rev Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What are axons called in the PNS
A

nerves

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2
Q
  1. What are axons called in the CNS
A

tracts

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3
Q
  1. What are the 3 main types of neurotransmitters
A

a. Monoamines (RF), neuropeptides (modulatory), acetylcholines (either)

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4
Q
  1. Functions of Frontal lobe
A

motor function, problem solving, spontaneity, memory, language, initiation, judgement, impulse control, and social and sexual behavior. Broca’s area, personality, foresight, insight.

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5
Q
  1. Functions of Temporal lobe
A

The temporal lobe is involved in primary auditory perception, such as hearing, and holds the primary auditory cortex

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6
Q
  1. Functions of Parietal lobe
A

primary somatosensory cortex, concerned with initial processing of tactile and proprioceptive information. Inferior parietal lobule of one hemisphere (typically left) involved with language comprehension, part of Wernike’s area. Spatial – finding car in lot.

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7
Q

Septum pelucidum

A

separates lateral ventricles

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8
Q
  1. What are the key cells involved in the blood brain barrier?
A

tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells,

  • capillary basal lamina,
  • Neuroglia - astrocyte foot processes
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9
Q

Damage to the olfactory nerve (I) can cause

A

an inability to smell (anosmia), a distortion in the sense of smell (parosmia), or a distortion or lack of taste.

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10
Q

Damage to the optic nerve (II) affects

A

specific aspects of vision that depend on the location of the lesion. A person may not be able to see objects on their left or right sides (homonymous hemianopsia), or may have difficulty seeing objects on their outer visual fields (bitemporal hemianopsia) if the optic chiasm is involved

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11
Q

Damage to nerves III, IV, or VI may affect the

A

movement of the eyeball (globe). Both or one eye may be affected; in either case double vision (diplopia) will likely occur because the movements of the eyes are no longer synchronized

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12
Q

Lesions of the facial nerve (VII) may manifest as

A

facial palsy. This is where a person is unable to move the muscles on one or both sides of their face. A very common and generally temporarly facial palsy is known as Bell’s palsy.

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13
Q

When damaged, the vestibular nerve may give rise to the sensation of

A

spinning and dizziness

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14
Q

Loss of function of the vagus nerve (X) will lead to a loss

A

of parasympathetic innervation to a very large number of structures.

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15
Q

hypoglossal nerve- Damage to the nerve at lower motor neuron level may lead to

A

fasciculations or atrophy of the muscles of the tongue

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16
Q

XII - Upper motor neuron damage will not lead to atrophy or fasciculations, but only weakness of the

A

innervated muscles

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17
Q

Denticulate lig function

A

provide stability for the spinal cord against motion within the vertebral column

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18
Q

All reflexes involve a _______, associated afferent neuron and an efferent neuron. All reflexes also involve _______ as well except the stretch reflex.

A

a) Receptor; interneurons

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19
Q
  1. The stretch reflex is the simplest reflex, it is monosynaptic so there are only 2 neurons and (1/2) synapse(s) between them.
A

ONE*

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20
Q
  1. What role does the artery of Adamkiewicz play in spinal cord vasculature?
A

Anterior

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21
Q

What is the main difference between autonomic and somatic systems?

A

c. Sympathetic and parasympathetic efferents do not reach their targets directly (2 neuron chain is involved)

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22
Q
  1. Acetylcholine is used in most neurosynaptic clefts except for the (sympathetic/parasympathetic) 2nd synapse.
A

Sympathetic (postganglionic)

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23
Q

Which CNs have parasympathetic output

A

a. III, VII, IX, X

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24
Q
  1. The pelvic splanchnics are (sympathetic/parasympathetic) and have cell bodies in the walls of the organs they innervate.
A

parasympathetic

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25
Q
  1. What structures do sympathetic fibers reach the head through?
A

b. Cervical ganglia

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26
Q

X function

A

Pharynx/ larynx muscles, pharynx/larynx glands, stretch & chemoreceptors in aorta,
skin back of ear

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27
Q

VII function

A

Sense around ear, Taste, Facial expression, Secretomotor

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28
Q

V function

A

H&N sensation, motor MOM

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29
Q

IX function

A

Stylopharyngeus, secretomotor, carotid body & sinus, part of tongue, taste

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30
Q

XI

A

Sternomastoid & trapezius

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31
Q
  1. What part of the RF is key in pain modulation?
A

raphe

32
Q
  1. Which area has been implicated in having a role in schizophrenia?
A

limbic lobe (?)

33
Q
  1. Serotonergic neurons are usually found in which zone of the RF?
A

raphe

34
Q

GSA V

A

Spinal & main sensory nuclei
Mesencephalic nucleus

Skin & deep tissues of head, dura
Muscle spindles and other mechanoreceptors

35
Q

SVE V

A

Trigeminal motor nucleus

“MOM and the tensor twins”, etc

36
Q
  1. What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal?
A

Opthalmic

Maxillary

Mandibular

37
Q

Opthalmic

A

Sensory, Upper face

38
Q

Maxillary

A

Sensory, middle face

39
Q

Mandibular

A

sensory and motor, lower face

40
Q
  1. Where do most of the nerves CN V terminate in the thalamus?
A

a. VPM (face) - vpl is body.

41
Q
  1. The somatic afferents from IX supply the:
A

a. skin of the ear and middle ear

42
Q
  1. What will a lower motor neuron lesion of CN XII result in?
A

a. Deviation of tongue toward lesion
b. Fasciculations
c. Atrophy
d. All of the above***

43
Q
  1. What level can you find CN XII nucleus?
A

c. Caudal medulla

44
Q

MLF is injured, this results in internuclear opthalmoplegia. This results in intact

A

lateral movements of both eyes.

45
Q

intermediolateral horn

A

bigger in thoracic levels. - sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies here

46
Q

intermediolateral horn

A

bigger in thoracic levels. - sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies here

47
Q
  1. Which level of the brainstem can you find the Abducens Nucleus?
A

caudal pons

48
Q

CN III nucleus level

A

a. Rostral midbrain

49
Q
  1. Which structures receive olfactory information?
A

a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Amygdala
d. Hippocampus
e. Orbital cortex
f. Anterior insula
g. All of the above***

50
Q
  1. Where does visual processing occur in the occipital lobe?
A

primary visual cortex - in calcerine sulcus.

51
Q
  1. What is Bell’s palsy?
A

a. Mostly unilateral facial paralysis due to VII dysfunction

c. Usually improves over time, steroids help to improve outcome
‘
e. Leads to reduced lacrimation and salivation on affected side

52
Q
  1. What happens when you poke the cornea because of the blink reflex
A

V1 (trigeminal), VII

53
Q
  1. What nerves are associated with Nervus Intermedius?
A

a. 2 sets of parasympathetic and 2 sets of taste fibers

54
Q
  1. Gustatory afferents reach the CNS through the…?
A

a. Solitary tract

55
Q

Corticospinal/corticobulbar

A

Image result for corticospinal tract
The pyramidal tracts include both the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts. These are aggregations of upper motor neuron nerve fibres that travel from the cerebral cortex and terminate either in the brainstem (corticobulbar) or spinal cord (corticospinal) and are involved in control of motor functions of the body.

56
Q
  1. Which level of the brainstem can you find the Trochlear Nucleus in?
A

caudal midbrain

57
Q
  1. If CN IV is injured, the affected eye (contralateral) is (/up and in). How will the patient compensate for this deficit?
A

o compensate for this, patients learn to tilt the head forward (tuck the chin in) in order to bring the fields back together – to fuse the two images into a single visual field.

58
Q
  1. Describe the path of the sympathetic input to the eyes
A

ciliary ganglion

59
Q

upper face

A

bilateral

60
Q

lower face

A

colateral

61
Q
  1. What does unilateral damage to the CBP result in?
A

motor function of the non-oculomotor - UMN lesion

62
Q
  1. What is the structure of an olfactory receptor?
A

a. Thin, unmyelinated bipolar neuron with dendritic end in olfactory vesicle with 10-30 chemosensitive cilia

63
Q

Where does the majority of the olfactory information go?

A

thalamus

64
Q
  1. The vestibulospinal tract is important for:
A

a. Mediating postural adjustment and head movements

b. Antigravity reflexes

65
Q
  1. The rubrospinal tract originates in what structure from the midbrain?
A

red nucleus

66
Q
  1. The rubrospinal tract originates in what structure from the midbrain?
A

red nucleus

67
Q
  1. The rubrospinal tract originates in what structure from the midbrain?
A

red nucleus

68
Q

Superior colliculus

A

Gray matter mass in roof (tectum) of rostral midbrain. Has roles in directing visual attention and controlling eye movements

69
Q

Inferior colliculus

A

Gray matter mass in roof (tectum) of caudal midbrain. It is a major component of the auditory system. It receives input from the lateral lemniscus; output goes thru the inferior brachium to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

70
Q

mesencephalic nucleus function

A

proprioception of the face, that is, the feeling of position of the muscles

71
Q

a. Where are the cell bodies? mesencephalic nucleus

A

midbrain

72
Q

a. Where do the nerves terminate? - mesencephalic nucleus

A

trigeminal nucleus

73
Q

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

A

Cell bodies - medulla

receives information about deep/crude touch, pain, and temperature from the ipsilateral face.

74
Q
  1. \Which pathway is located in the posterior column.
A

MLP

75
Q
  1. If you injure the posterior column, what are the main consequences?
A

a. Impaired proprioception

b. Impaired discriminative tactile functions

76
Q
  1. In which brainstem structures are the nuclei of the posterior column fasciculi found?
A

NG, NC

77
Q
  1. A cordotomy is performed to produce a contralateral analgesia in patients with intractable pain. Where is the lateral funiculus cut?
A

a. Just rostral to highest dermatomal pain level

Anatomy 2 (15 decks)

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