Finals - Fall 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

Primer does what?

A

Increases surface tension of dentin to allow for bonding agent to reach collapsed collagen.

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2
Q

Vitrebond is a

A

RMGI

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3
Q

No need to use GLUMA if you are using —- or if you are using ——

A

VitreBond liner

ScotchBond Universal adhesive

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4
Q
  • Typically refers to Commercial plans
  • Estimate - No guarantee of payment
  • Allows verification of benefits letting the patient know how much they need to pay, and the College know how much to collect.
A

Pre-Determination: (Could take 4-6 weeks)

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5
Q
  • For ALL Medicaid/Agency related plans. (Month to month eligibility)
  • Payer requires approval in advance of starting a procedure to ensure they will pay for the procedure.
  • College receives a preauthorization approval number for the specific CDT Code and we have to include that on the bill for payer.
A

Preauthorization: (Could take 4-6 weeks)

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6
Q

Dx occlusal adjustment of the mounted casts to:
Provide —– at the recorded —- (grinding list to record the reductions in order)
Determine the correct and desirable —-.

A

maximum intercuspation

CR

OVD

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7
Q

mounted in CR:

A
  1. restoring all posterior teeth in one or both arches
  2. restoring all teeth in one arch
  3. complete dentures
  4. occlusal equilibration
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8
Q

Post height = crown length

A

Guarded

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9
Q

3/4 of root length > crown length

A

Good prognosis

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10
Q

May be best for extremely tapered, funnel

shaped canals.

A

Cast post

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11
Q

For post, endo will tell you

A

….
1. The color which will indicate the size
(red, blue, black or red)
2. The length to which they removed gutta
percha. (Should be a reference-i.e.
buccal cusp, remaining lingual portion of
tooth etc.

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12
Q

Paracore etch:

A

No need for this.

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13
Q

Five-minute exposure to 21.3% AlCl3 - hemodent

A

. Complete smear layer removal and noticeable dentin etching, some tubules remain partly occluded

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14
Q

Gluma is made of —- in water and helps to reduce hypersensitivity of dentin and reduce the incidence of post-operative sensitivity in restorative dentistry procedures.

A

5% glutaraldehyde and 35% HEMA (hydroxyethyl methacrylate)

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15
Q

The —– in Gluma works by blocking the dentinal tubules, thereby preventing the flow of fluid and decreasing sensitivity. —– forms deep resin tags and then occludes the dentinal tubules.

A

glutaraldehyde

HEMA

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16
Q

If the tooth is vital and asymptomatic, stop excavating after you are —% through dentin to avoid pulp exposure.

A

75

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17
Q

SDF: • Diamine ~

A

Ammonia (8%) o Stabilizer

o Vaporizes at body temperature

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18
Q

SDF: • Silver (25%)

A

o Antimicrobial: denatures proteins, breaks cell walls and membranes, inhibits DNA replication

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19
Q

curing light inhibitis

A

deep penetration of SDF into dentin

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20
Q

Gingiva effects to SDF

A

o Short-term: transient inflammation (24 h)

o Long-term: reduces plaque and gingival inflammation where it is applied (antimicrobial)

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21
Q

• Composite and Glass Ionomer bond strength —- by SDF

A

unaffected

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22
Q

SMART –

A

silver modified atraumatic restorative technique

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23
Q

Fluoride toxicity

A

5mg/kg is PTD

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24
Q

Colophony aka

A

rosin is a resin obtained from pine trees and other coniferous plants

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25
Q

dental materials contain colophony

A

Root canal sealers, cements

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26
Q

— Colophony has been known to cause —– in affected individuals
— —–

A

ALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS

Type IV Hypersensitivity

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27
Q

Colophony tx

A

Oral antihistamine
Diphenhydramine
5mg/kg/day, four divided doses
— Max dose 300mg/day

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28
Q

— Type I:

A

Anaphylactic/Atopy Ex: Food allergies, eczema

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29
Q

Type II:

A

Cytotoxic/Antibody dependent

Ex: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, myasthenia gravis

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30
Q

Type III:

A

Immune Complex

Ex: Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis

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31
Q

Type IV:

A

Delayed type/Cell-Mediated Ex: TB Mantoux test, contact dermatitis

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32
Q

Make sure that balls given to children younger than three are at least —” in diameter

A

1.75

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33
Q
• differs from chronic inflammatory enlargement
• fibrous, firm and pale pink, w/ little tendency to bleed
• occurs slowly
• occurs 1st in papilla
• spreads to gingival margin
• may cover & interfere w/ eruption or
occlusion
• may improve or resolve when medication
discontinued
• genetic component to susceptibility
• severity affected by adequacy of oral
hygiene
• severity affected by gingival
concentration of the medication
A

Drug-induced gingival overgrowth

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34
Q

Prominent max frenum - tx

A

Treatment usually delayed until permanent incisors & cuspids erupted to allow natural closure of diastema
• If orthodontic treatment planned, postpone surgical treatment until diastema has been closed

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35
Q

Aggressive perio - localized affects ——, gernalized affects —-

A

young pts, young adults

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36
Q

Localized aggressive (formerly “juvenile”) periodontitis (LAP / LJP)

A
  • characterized by loss of attachment & bone around permanent incisors & 1st permanent molars
  • attachment loss is rapid, occurring at 3X rate of adult onset disease
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37
Q

LAP

A

• At least some cases appear to be inherited as an autosomal dominant trait

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38
Q

Treatment of LPP

A

• Antibiotic therapy combined with debridement
• Tetracyclines, commonly used to treat LJP,
contraindicated for LPP because of potential
for staining of developing permanent teeth
• Metronidazole&amoxicillinor
• Azithromycin

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39
Q

Hypophosphatasia

• geneticdisorderin which the enzyme, —— is deficient or defective

A

bone alkaline phosphatase

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40
Q
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
(LAD)
• group of rare, recessive genetic syndromes
• severity variable
• affects how ---------
• susceptibility to -------`
  • absence of pus at infection sites
  • recurrent ———–
  • periodontal disease symptoms manifested in —— dentition
  • inflammation & bone loss
  • scrupulous oral hygiene measures needed
  • adequate compliance may be difficult to achieve
  • —— can be curative
A

white blood cells (leukocytes) respond & travel to site of
wound or infection

bacterial infections

otitis media, & other bacterial infections of soft tissues

primary

bone marrow transplant

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41
Q

Papillon-LeFèvre syndrome
• rare genetic disorder
• onset of —— in primary or transitional dentition
• severe inflammation & rapid bone loss characteristic
• easily identified ——- of the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

A

severe
periodontitis

hyperkeratosis

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42
Q

Langerhans Cell histiocytosis

• Diagnosed by —–

A

biopsy

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43
Q

—-, but not usually —-, may present w/ gingival enlargement caused by infiltrates of leukemic cells

A

AML

ALL

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44
Q

Max Dose Lidocaine =

A

4.4mg/kg

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45
Q

• Max Dose Articaine =

A

7mg/kg

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46
Q

Odontogenic facial cellulitis

A
  • bacteria from tooth

* alpha-streptococci

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47
Q
  • skin or mucous membrane trauma
  • sinus bacteria
  • Hemophilis influenzae
  • Hib vaccine lowered incidence
A

Nonodontogenic facial cellulitis

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48
Q
  • bactericidal
  • narrow but appropriate spectrum for milder infections
  • resistance possible
  • amoxicillin has less frequent dosage schedule and better taste
A

• Penicillin or amoxicillin

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49
Q
  • oral Augmentin (amoxicillin and clavulanate) • IV Unasyn (Ampicillin and Sulbactam)
  • resistance unlikely
  • bactericidal
A

penicillins w/ b-lactamase inhibitor

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50
Q

Addition of —— to penicillin or amoxicillin • covers anaerobes, so broader spectrum

A

metronidazole

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51
Q

less resistance
• bacteriostatic

A

clindamycin oral or IV •

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52
Q
  • erythema
  • induration
  • tenderness of periorbital tissues
  • rarely progresses to orbital cellulitis
A

• “Pre-septal cellulitis”

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53
Q
  • more common in children • bulging eye (proptosis)
  • loss of vision
  • pain in eye
  • brain abscess
A

• Orbital cellulitis

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54
Q

• blood pressure maintained by increased cardiac work
• rapid pulse
• not indefinitely
sustainable

A

compensated shock

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55
Q
  • blood pressure can no longer be maintained

* emergency

A

uncompensated shock

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56
Q

Veau lip Class I :

A

Unilateral notching of the vermillion

border, not extending into lip (microform)

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57
Q

Veau lip Class II:

A

– Class II : UL cleft extending into the lip (incomplete)

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58
Q

Veau lip Class III:

A

– Class III : UL cleft involving the floor of the nose (complete)

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59
Q

Veau lip Class IV:

A

– Class IV: Any bilateral cleft of the lip

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60
Q

Veau Cleft PALATE

– Class I :

A

Isolated soft palate cleft only

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61
Q

Veau Cleft PALATE

– Class II :

A

UL soft and hard palate cleft

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62
Q

Veau Cleft PALATE

– Class III :

A

UL cleft involving soft/hard palate through the alveolus (usually involves lip too)

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63
Q

Veau Cleft PALATE

– Class IV:

A

Same as class II but BILATERAL

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64
Q

CleftLip:

A

Causedbypartialorcompletelackof fusion of the maxillary prominence with the medial nasal prominence

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65
Q
Etiology of CLP
• Environmental
--------
exposure to ionizing radiation (suspected) • Genetic
---------
A

– Maternal smoking
– Teratogens (e.g. alcohol, anticonvulsants)
– Maternal obesity, nutrition, infection, hyperthermia,

– IRF6, 8q24 locus, VAX1 (confirmed)

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66
Q
Etiology of CLP
• Environmental
--------
exposure to ionizing radiation (suspected) • Genetic
---------
A

– Maternal smoking
– Teratogens (e.g. alcohol, anticonvulsants)
– Maternal obesity, nutrition, infection, hyperthermia,
– IRF6, 8q24 locus, VAX1 (confirmed)

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67
Q

The ones that really, really, really need tx NOW are:

A

Permanent tooth avulsions (!!!)
– All permanent tooth luxations
– Permanent tooth Class II and Class III fractures

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68
Q

Class II Fractures
Emergency Treatment
Permanent teeth

A
  • Do nothing?
  • Bond fragment if available
  • Composite/GI “Band-Aid” – then monitor for symptoms
  • Restore with composite/GI
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69
Q
Class II Fractures
Follow-Up Care
Permanent teeth
• 6-8 weeks: 
• 1 year:
A

clinical and radiographic exam – If emergency tx was provisional restoration,
consider definitive restoration

clinical and radiographic exam
• No matter how minor the injury, we’re always concerned about loss of vitality
• Continue to monitor for signs and symptoms

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70
Q

Class III Fractures
Emergency Treatment
Permanent teeth
• Young tooth with open apex or closed apex

A

– Direct pulp cap

– Partial pulpotomy (Cvek technique)

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71
Q

Class III Fractures
Emergency Treatment
Permanent teeth

Mature tooth with closed apex

A

– Pulpectomy

– (Direct pulp cap and partial pulpotomy are also options)

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72
Q

Cvek Partial Pulpotomy Technique

A

Using a diamond or 330 bur, access the pulp chamber to a depth of 1- 2mm
• Extend the preparation to allow for sufficient access, but keep it in dentin

Obtain hemostasis
• Use a moist cotton pellet to apply firm pressure to the pulp
– Moisten with chlorhexidine or sterile water
– Apply pressure for 5 minutes

After 5 minutes, reassess the tooth
– There should be no more oozing of blood from the pulp chamber
• If bleeding continues:
– Apply further pressure
– Reassess and consider deeper preparation to amputate pulp further

Placemedicament
• Condenseasufficient thickness of dry calcium hydroxide powder or Biodentine to densely fill the preparation
– At least 1mm in depth, avoiding cavosurface margin
– Biodentine preferred over MTA for faster setting time and lack of staining

• Apply vitrebond directly over the medicament
– Apply up to the cavosurface margin
– Avoid placing vitrebond over enamel

• Compositeband-aid placed over fractured tooth
– Etch, Bond, Flowable
• Buildupcompletedat later date after healing confirmed
– Prefer to keep tooth out of occlusion to prevent further trauma

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73
Q

Cvek Partial Pulpotomy Technique - barium

A

Barium added for radiopacity; Do not add any liquid

1:3 Ratio of Barium:Calcium Hydroxide

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74
Q

Cvek partial pulpotomy criteria for success:

A

– No clinical signs or symptoms—no pain, no
mobility, no fistula
– No radiographic pathology
– Continued development of immature roots
– Formation of calcific barriers
– Sensitivity to electrical stimulation
– The tooth is vital!

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75
Q

Restoration can occur after success of Cvek has been ascertained
– Typically after — weeks
– Strip crown or composite buildup

A

6-8

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76
Q

Mostcriticalfactor for permanent tooth avulsion

A

– Maintaining an intact and viable PDL on the root surface

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77
Q

Avulsion
Emergency Treatment
Permanent Teeth

A

• Reimplantassoonaspossible.Everyminute counts! The person who is holding the tooth is the person to put it back in.
• Flexiblesplintfor2weeks
• Medications
– Systemic antibiotics-–best choice depends on age
– Chlorhexidine mouth rinse
– Ibuprofen: pain + inhibits bone resorption

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78
Q

Avulsion
Follow-Up
Permanent Teeth
• Closed apex:

A

remove pulp and fill with CaOH within 7-10 days
• Splint removal after 2 weeks (4 weeks if dry time >60 minutes)
• Complete gutta percha fill in 2-12 months
– No need to complete endo if it becomes ankylosed

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79
Q
Avulsion
Follow-Up
Permanent Teeth
• What if the tooth is immature?
– First, ----
– Our goal is to revascularize the severed pulp
A

WAIT for signs of necrosis

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80
Q

Avulsion
Follow-Up
Immature Permanent Teeth
• Bestprognosisif replanted within — minutes

A

20

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81
Q

Avulsion
Follow-Up
Immature Permanent Teeth
Recallevery—- weeks

A

3-4

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82
Q

Avulsion
Follow-Up
Immature Permanent Teeth

• Ifsignsofnecrosis, —-

A

extirpate pulp and do revascularization procedure

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83
Q

Revascularization

these are not the specifics

A
  • Stimulate bleeding through apex
  • Place MTA on top of clot
  • Allows continued root development and root wall thickening
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84
Q

What do you do when the tooth becomes ankylosed?

A

• Maintain it as long as possible
– This will depend on the patient’s age
• When it starts to submerge and become an esthetic issue, decoronate + flipper

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85
Q
Extrusion
Emergency Treatment
Permanent teeth
• Reposition with digital pressure • Flexible splint for ---- weeks
• Rx -----
A

2

chlorhexidine mouth rinse

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86
Q

Extrusion
Follow-Up
Permanent teeth
• Closed apex:

A

likely pulp necrosis. Remove pulp and fill with CaOH when indicated.

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87
Q

Extrusion
Permanent teeth
• Complete gutta percha fill in —– if no inflammatory resorption

A

2 months

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88
Q
Intrusion
Emergency Treatment Permanent teeth
• Openapex,----- :spontaneouseruption
• Openapex,-------:orthodonticor
surgical repositioning
• Closedapex,-------:spontaneouseruption
• Closedapex,-------:orthodonticorsurgical repositioning
• Closedapex,-------:surgical repositioning
A

upto7mm

morethan7mm

upto3mm

3-7mm

morethan7mm

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89
Q

Intrusion
Follow-Up Care
Permanent teeth
• Closed apex: —–

A

remove pulp and fill with CaOH within 2-3 weeks

• Complete gutta percha fill in 2 months if no inflammatory resorption

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90
Q
Intrusion
Emergency Treatment Primary teeth
• Which way did the tooth go?
• If tooth was displaced -----, then allow spontaneous re-eruption
• If tooth displaced -----, then extract
A

labially

into developing tooth bud

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91
Q

– Developmental mucocutaneous conditions

A
Ectodermal dysplasia
• Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
• (polygenetic oligodontia)
– White sponge nevus
– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
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92
Q

• Immune-mediated

A
– Pemphigus vulgaris
– Mucous membrane pemphigoid
– Bullous pemphigoid
– Erythema multiforme
– Erythema migrans (geographic tongue)
– Lichen planus
• Cutaneous lichen planus
• Oral lichen planus – Lichenoid mucositis – Lupus erythematosus
• Chronic cutaneous (CCLE)
• Systemic (SLE) – Systemic sclerosis – CREST syndrome
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93
Q

– Ectodermal dysplasia
• Group of inherited disorders in which — or more —— structures do not develop normally or fail to develop (hypoplasia or aplasia)

A

two

ectodermally derived

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94
Q
• Clinical features:
–Hypoplasia or aplasia of: • Skin
• Hair
• Nails
•Teeth
• Sweat glands
A

– Ectodermal dysplasia

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95
Q
– Ectodermal dysplasia
• Clinical features:
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
–One of the best known types –------ – lack of ------
–Features often more pronounced in -----

–Fine, ——–
Teeth: –——

–------- hyperpigmentation 
–Protuberant -------- 
–Prominent ------
–Varying degrees of ----- 
–Dystrophic or brittle -----
A

Heat intolerance

sweat
glands

males than females

sparse blond or light color hair, eyebrows, eyelashes

Hypodontia
–Oligodontia (lack of development of
6 or more teeth) 
–Conical roots
–Abnormally-shaped crowns (conical, tapered, pointed, smaller)

Periocular

lips (midface hypoplasia)

forehead

xerostomia

nails

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96
Q

• Polygenetic oligodontia – This is not an —-

–Dental findings can mimic ——

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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97
Q

White sponge nevus

• occurs Due to a defect in the —-

A

normal keratinization of the oral mucosa

• Genodermatosis – genetically determined skin disorder

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98
Q

White sponge nevus

• ——- – genetically determined skin disorder

A

Genodermatosis

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99
Q

– White sponge nevus
• Clinical features:
–Relatively rare
–Autosomal —- with variable expressivity
–Appears at ——, sometimes adolescence
–Asymptomatic
–Thick, —– appearance of buccal mucosa bilaterally
–Other oral sites may be affected
–——– mucosa may be involved

A

dominant

birth or early childhood

white

Nasal, esophageal, laryngeal, anogenital

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100
Q
– White sponge nevus
• Histopathologic features:
–------- sometimes more
diagnostic than scalpel biopsy
–-------- (thickening of spinous layer)
–------- of cytoplasm is pathognomonic
A

Exfoliative cytology

Parakeratosis with acanthosis

Perinuclear eosinophilic condensation

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101
Q
– White sponge nevus
• Treatment:
–------ but cosmetic concern
–------- reported to help
–Reassure the patient that this is a harmless condition
–------ prognosis
A

None necessary

Tetracycline rinses

Good

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102
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Clinical features:
–Rare, but well-recognized, usually noted
in childhood
–Usually inherited, autosomal —— (~ 35% new mutations)
–—— gene mutation allowing uncontrolled cell growth

–—— polyps of gastrointestinal tract, esp. jejunum and ileum
–Can cause ——

–Bowel problems become evident in the
—— (i.e. 20’s)
–High risk of developing cancer — times greater than control population (GI tract, pancreas, male and female genital tract, ovary, breast)

–—— of lips and oral mucosa (also can occur around eyes, nostrils, anus, hands, feet), may fade with age
–~ 1 in 100,000-200,000 births, although more frequent by some reports

A

dominant

STK11

Benign hamartomatous

bowel obstruction due to intussusception (“telescoping” of proximal segment into distal segment)

3rd decade

18

Hyperpigmented macules

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103
Q

– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Histopathologic features: –—— are not
precancerous
• Benign growths of —–

A

Gastrointestinal polyps

intestinal glandular epithelium

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104
Q
– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Treatment:
–Genetic counseling, parents and
patient
–Monitor for -----
A

intussusception and for tumor development

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105
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
• Prognosis:
–—— may self-correct or may require surgery to prevent ischemic necrosis
–If cancer develops, treat appropriately

A

Intussusception

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106
Q

– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Clinical features:
–Telangiectasia – small collection of
dilated capillaries
–Uncommon autosomal —— –~ 1 in 10,000
–Mutation of one of two genes which are responsible for ————

–Frequent spontaneous —— – may be
initial clue to diagnosis
–Numerous ——- red papules blanch with diascopy
–Telangiectasias may be seen on —–

Oral, oropharyngeal, nasal, genitourinary,
conjunctival mucosa and GI mucosa
–Arteriovenous fistulas may affect the —-

–Oral lesions often most dramatic and
most easily identified • Vermilion zones
• Tongue
• Buccal mucosa

A

dominant

blood vessel wall integrity

epistaxis

1 mm – 2 mm

mucosa and skin, including hands and feet

lungs (30% of patients), liver (30%) or brain (10-20%)

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107
Q

– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Diagnosis HHT requires 3 of 4 features:
–Recurrent spontaneous ——-
–Telangiectasias of mucosa and skin
–——- involving the lung, liver or brain
–Family history of HHT

A

epistaxis

AV malformation

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108
Q

– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Histopathologic features:
–Collection of thin-walled blood vessels in the —–

A

superficial connective tissue

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109
Q
– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Treatment:
–Genetic counseling, parent and patient
–Mild HHT – ----
–Moderate HHT – --------
–Severe – -------
A

no treatment

selective cryotherapy or electrocautery bothersome lesions

septal dermoplasty to prevent epistaxis

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110
Q

– Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
• Prognosis:
–Generally good, 1-2% mortality sometimes noted due to complications related to blood loss
–If —– develops, 10% mortality can be anticipated, despite early diagnosis and appropriate treatment

A

brain abscess

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111
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• —– etiology
• Inappropriate production of —– by the host directed against host tissue (autoantibodies)
–Damage to host by host’s own immune response

A

Autoimmune

antibodies

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112
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)

• In PV —– destroy —–

A

autoantibodies

desmosomes

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113
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Clinical features:
–Relatively rare, ~ — cases per million diagnosed each year in general population
–Average age — y.o. –No gender predilection

A

5

50

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114
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Clinical features (con’t):
– Oral lesions

A

“first to show, last to go”

• In other words – the oral lesions often are the initial manifestation of the disease and the most difficult to resolve with treatment

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115
Q
– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Clinical features (con’t):
• Flaccid -----, ---- on skin;
rarely seen intact intraorally
• + Nikolsky sign - inducing a ---- by applying firm, lateral pressure to normal appearing skin
A

vesicles

bullae

bulla

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116
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Biopsy
–Normal tissue adjacent to ulceration or erosion should be sampled for direct —— (in Michel’s solution) and for light microscopic evaluation
• Sample at periphery – not the ulcerated center

A

immunofluorescent

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117
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Histopathologic features:
–Microscopically, —— above the basal layer (i.e. within the epithelium)
–—— (breakdown of spinous layer; cells appear to fall apart) – is also usually evident

A

intraepithelial clefting

Acantholysis

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118
Q

• Direct immunofluorescence (DIF) used to detect

A

autoantibodies bound to the patient’s tissues

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119
Q

• Indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) used to detect antibodies

A

circulating in the blood

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120
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Immunopathologic features:
–—–) immunofluorescence studies will be positive in pemphigus vulgaris
–Autoantibodies bind —— components (desmoglein 1 & 3)

A

Both direct (DIF) and indirect (IIF

desmosomal

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121
Q

– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Treatment:
–——, often with azathioprine or other steroid-sparing agents
–Topical —– have little effect (PV is a systemic disease)
–~ —% resolve on their own after 10 yrs

A

Systemic corticosteroids

corticosteroids

30

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122
Q
– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Prognosis:
–Usually ---- if not treated
• *Severe infection
• Loss of fluids/electrolytes
• Malnutrition due to mouth pain
–Prior to corticosteroid therapy, 60-90% mortality
A

fatal

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123
Q
– Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)
• Prognosis (con’t):
–Complications of long-term steroid
may lead to mortality
–Today, ---% mortality, usually due to complications of therapy (side effect of steroids, immune- suppression; azathioprine suppresses bone marrow and is a carcinogen)
A

5-10

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124
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
Also known as —– • Clinical features:
–Resembles PV due to blister formation (i.e. pemphig”oid”)
–Twice as common as PV
–Older age than PV, average 50 – 60 y.o. –2:1 female predilection

A

cicatricial (scarring) pemphigoid

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125
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Clinical features (con’t):
–Any mucosal surface, occasionally affects
skin –Scarring
• Skin
• —– (conjunctiva) • Scarring on oral mucosa rare

A

Symblepheron

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126
Q

MMP: –May see intact —- because

the split is —-

A

intraoral blisters

subepithelial

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127
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Clinical features (con’t):
–—– gingivitis – descriptive term: erythema, desquamation, ulceration
• May be seen in several disorders

A

Desquamative

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128
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Most significant aspect of this condition is ocular involvement of symblepheron
–Scarring obstructs the —–
–Dryness leads to —— of the corneal epithelium, leading to blindness

A

orifices of glands that produce tears, resulting in a dry eye

keratinization

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129
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• For biopsy:
–Must include generous sample of normal mucosa, —– away from areas of ulceration/erythema, as epithelium easily strips off
–Tissue should be submitted in ——

A

0.5-1.0 cm

both formalin and Michel’s solution

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130
Q

– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Histopathologic features:
–—— formation – separation of the epithelium from the connective tissue at the basement membrane zone (BMZ)

A

Subepithelial cleft

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131
Q
– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Immunopathologic features:
–----- deposition of immunoreactants at
the BMZ
–Positive DIF; negative IIF
(only 5-25% of patients will have circulating autoantibodies)
A

Linear

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132
Q
– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Treatment:
–Depends on extent of involvement
• Oral lesions alone - --------, tetracycline/niacinamide or dapsone may be sufficient
• Frequent dental prophylaxis,----mos.
Refer patient to ophthalmologist for
exam and follow-up
• If ocular involvement, systemic immunosuppressive therapy indicated
A

topical steroids

q 3-4

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133
Q
– Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP)
• Prognosis:
–Rarely fatal
–Condition can usually be controlled
–Blindness results in patients with untreated ocular disease
–Rarely undergoes -----
A

spontaneous resolution

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134
Q

Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
• Clinical features:
–Most common of autoimmune blistering
conditions ~ 10 cases per million per year
–Usually older population affected, average age 75 – 80 y.o.
–Primarily on skin but mucous membrane involvement occurs
No gender predilection
–—– early symptom, followed by the development of multiple, tense bullae, blisters on normal or erythematous skin
–Rupture, crust, heal without scarring

A

Pruritus

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135
Q

– Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
• Clinical features (con’t):
–Oral involvement uncommon
• —– rupture sooner than on skin (constant trauma?) leaving —–

A

Bullae

large shallow ulcerations with smooth, distinct margins

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136
Q

– Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
• Histopathologic features: –—– cleft similar to MMP
• Immunopathologic features:
–—- DIF and IIF with immunoreactants deposited at the —-

A

Subepithelial

Positive

BMZ

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137
Q
Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
• Treatment:
–Management similar to ----, but most BP cases resolve spontaneously in ---- years
A

cicatricial pemphigoid

1-2

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138
Q

– Bullous pemphigoid (BP)
• Prognosis:
–Many patients —–
–Problems may develop with use of —- therapy in older population
• Mortality — times higher than age and sex matched population

A

experience remission

immunosuppressive

3

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139
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Etiology:
–Probably —–
• —— stimulated by trigger that produces the disease

A

immune-mediated

Immunologic derangement

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140
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Etiology (con’t):
–50% cases- —- –25% - —–

–25% - ——

A

unknown

preceding infection;
• *Viral (herpes), • Bacterial (Mycoplasma pneumoniae)

medication-related (antibiotics and analgesics)

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141
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Clinical features:
–Acute onset —- disorder skin and
mucous membranes –Young adult , age ——-

A

ulcerative

20’s – 30’s

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142
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Clinical features (con’t):
–—— symptoms ~ 1 week before onset (fever, malaise, headache, cough, sore throat)
–Previous studies showed —– predilection, more recent studies show —- predilection

A

Prodromal

male

female

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143
Q
– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Clinical features EM minor:
–Skin (extremities)
–Mucosa (oral, conjunctival, genitourinary, respiratory)
»---- crusting of vermilion zones
–Skin
• Variety of appearances “multiforme”
• ------ on skin of
extremities  • ----- with ------ centers

–Mucosa
• Erythematous patches oral mucosa that undergo —– and result in large, shallow erosions and ulcers with irregular borders
• ——- usually spared

A

HemorrhagicRound, dusky-red patches - “target lesions”

Bullae

necrotic
necrosis

Gingiva and hard palate

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144
Q
– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Clinical features EM major:
–------ mucosal sites in conjunction
with skin lesions
• Mucosal, lip and skin lesions as seen in EM minor
–Ocular involvement can produce ------
A

2 or more

symblepheron

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145
Q

• Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) –

A

at least two mucosal sites plus skin involvement

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146
Q

• Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) - (Lyell’s disease) –

A

diffuse bullous involvement of skin and mucosa

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147
Q
  • Difference between SJS and TEN: –Degree of —– involvement and age
  • SJS <10% and usually ——
  • TEN >30% and usually over
A

skin

younger patient

60 y.o.

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148
Q

• SJS and TEN almost always triggered by a —–, rather than —-
• SJS and TEN skin lesions begin as ——-
–Within 2 weeks ——- develop
–Patients may appear ——- - usually treated in —–
–Almost all patients have —— involvement, esp. oral

A

drug

infection

red macules on trunk rather than extremities

skin sloughing and flaccid
bullae

badly scalded

burn unit

mucosal

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149
Q

– EM, SJS and TEN
• Diagnosis:
–Usually based on —–
–DIF and IIF —–, not helpful except to rule-out other immune- mediated condition

A

clinical
presentation

non-specific

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150
Q
– EM, SJS and TEN
• Histopathologic features:
–------ vesicles 
–Necrotic ------
–Mixed inflammatory cell infiltrate –May see ------ inflammation
A

Subepithelial or intraepithelial

basal keratinocytes

perivascular

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151
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Treatment (supportive therapy):
–Discontinue causative drug!
–Systemic or topical steroids early on (benefits controversial)
–—– re-hydration
–Topical anesthetic or analgesic for pain

A

IV

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152
Q

• Treatment SJS and TEN (con’t):
–—– are avoided in the management of TEN – associated with increased mortality
–IV administration of —— seems helpful in resolution of TEN by blocking apoptosis of epithelial cells

A

Steroids

pooled human immunoglobulins

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153
Q

– Erythema multiforme (EM)
• Prognosis:
–EM minor and major - —–
–—% of patients get recurrences (esp. spring and autumn)
• If HSV is trigger maintenance antiviral –Not life-threatening except severe cases

A

self-limiting (2 – 6
weeks)

20

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154
Q
  • Prognosis SJS and TEN: –Mortality rate

* SJS —– •TEN —–

A

1% - 5%

25%-30%

155
Q
  • Prognosis SJS and TEN (con’t): –If patient survives
  • Skin heals in —- weeks
  • Oral lesions take longer
  • Ocular damage in —-% of patients
A

3 – 5

50

156
Q

– Erythema migrans (geographic tongue, benign
migratory glossitis)
• Etiopathogenesis unknown
• Probably —–
• One of the more common oral conditions, occurring in —- of the population considered a “common oral lesion”

A

immune-mediated

1-3%

157
Q

Erythema migrans

• Erythema is due to ——– and shearing off of the —- - remaining epithelium thins, results in red appearance

A

atrophy of filiform papillae

parakeratin

158
Q
– Erythema migrans (geographic tongue, benign
migratory glossitis)
• Clinical features:
–Occurs in --- of patients who have
fissured tongue
–Wax and wane
–Heal then develop in different area
–Characteristically ------ of the tongue
–On other ----- surfaces - “ectopic geographic tongue” can be referred to as erythema migrans

Multiple, well-demarcated zones of erythema surrounded at ———-–Can be singular - “persistens

A

1/3

dorsal and lateral
anterior 2/3

non-keratinized mucosal

least partially by a slightly elevated yellow-white serpentine or scalloped border

159
Q

– Erythema migrans (geographic tongue, benign
migratory glossitis)
• Histopathologic features:
–Similar to psoriasis “——” description on Bx report
–—– with extensive —— formation in the superfical —– layer

A

psoriasiform
mucositis

Parakeratosis

microabscess (neutrophils)

spinous

160
Q

– Erythema migrans (geographic tongue, benign
migratory glossitis)
• Treatment:

A

None generally necessary
–Occasionally sensitive or painful to hot, spicy foods
• Potent topical steroid

161
Q

Erythema migrans (geographic tongue, benign
migratory glossitis)
• Prognosis: –—–
• Reassure patient this is a benign condition

A

Good

162
Q

– Lichen planus (LP)
• Chronic —– disorder
• Cutaneous – may resolve in —– yrs
• —— – typically managed as chronic condition

A

immune-mediated

7 – 10

Mucosal

163
Q
– Cutaneous lichen planus
• Clinical features:
–Adults ~---- years of age –---- predilection
–Purple polygonal pruritic papules with
------ (lacy white lines)
–Flexor surface of -------
A

30-60

Female

Wickham’s striae

wrists, lumbar region, shins, but other locations

164
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP)
• 2 forms:
–—– (lacy white lines)
–—– (ELP)- erythematous, may ulcerate

A

Reticular

Erosive

165
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP/ELP)
• Clinical features:
–May occur alone or with skin lesions –Adults, with —- predilection (3:2) –—– form is most common
–Erosive form is most —–, especially with acidic, salty or spicy foods

A

female

Reticular

symptomatic

166
Q

–Reticular LP:

A

interlacing white lines

167
Q

–Erosive LP:

A

shallow ulcers, peripheral erythema and radiating white lines

168
Q
Oral lichen planus
–Dorsal tongue involvement may appear
as ------
–------ may be superimposed on either
• ------ conditions worsen with a superimposed ------ infection
A

patchy keratosis and atrophy

Candida albicans

Oral ulcerative

candidal

169
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP/ELP)
• Histopathologic features: (characteristic, but not specific)
–Varying degrees of —–, atrophy or ulceration
–Absent or pointed —- ridges (“saw- toothed”)
–Degeneration of the —- layer
• Degenerating —– –Band-like infiltrate of lymphocytes –Varying thickness of —– layer

A

hyperkeratosis

rete

basal cell

keratinocytes

spinous

170
Q

OLP histo
–—- non-specific except to r/o other
immune-mediated condition –Controversy ——• Inflammatory response to —– (especially mild) can have same histology as ——

A

DIF

malignant transformation

epithelial dysplasia

lichen planus

171
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP/ELP)
• Treatment:
–Rule-out candidiasis; treat if + culture
–Reticular LP ——
• Patient may feel “rough” areas of hyperkeratosis, but no pain

A

usually no Tx needed

172
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP/ELP)
• Treatment (con’t):
–ELP treat with

A

potent topical steroid
• “off label”
• Systemic steroids not needed

173
Q

– Oral lichen planus (OLP/ELP)
• Prognosis: varies
–Some patients are well-controlled, others
can be difficult to control –Recurring —– a challenge
• Dry mouth, dentures, ATB, inhaler
• Topical steroid predisposes to —–

A

candidiasis

candida

174
Q

– Lichenoid mucositis
• A number of conditions can mimic
• —— reaction; lichenoid amalgam reaction; oral mucosal cinnamon reaction; lichenoid foreign body gingivitis; oral lesions of graft-vs.- host disease (GVHD); oral lesions of LE; some epithelial dysplasias

A

oral lichen planus, both clinically and histopathologically

Lichenoid drug

175
Q

– Lupus erythematosus (LE)
• Most common ——– tissue diseases in U.S., > 1.5 million people
• 3 forms:

A

collagen vascular/connective

• Chronic cutaneous lupus
erythematosus (CCLE)
• Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
• Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosis (SCLE) intermediate between CCLE and SLE will not be discussed in this lecture

176
Q

– Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
(CCLE)
• Clinical features:
–May have no signs or symptoms –Primarily affects ——- –Also known as “——” –Exacerbated by —– –Waxing/waning nature

–Skin – —— patches in
sun-exposed areas, esp. H&N
• Heal then reappear in different area; may result in —-

–Mucosa– —–, essentially identical to ELP, but seldom occur without skin lesions
–Painful, esp. with acidic, salty or spicy foods

A

skin and mucosa

discoid lupus

sun exposure

scaly, erythematous

atrophy and scarring with hypo- or hyperpigmentation

lichenoid mucositis

177
Q

– Systemic lupus erythematosus
• Clinical features:
–Waxing/waning nature
–Females affected —- times more than males
–—– more than Caucasians –Average age at diagnosis —-

–—– manifestations initially
• Fever, weight loss, arthritis, fatigue, general malaise
–—— spares nasolabial folds
–Skin lesions flare with —–

–———– of patients
is most significant aspect of disease –—– involvement common
• Pericarditis
• Libman-Sacks endocarditis

A

8 – 10

Women of color

31 y.o.

Protean

Malar “butterfly rash”

UV exposure

Renal involvement 40% - 50%

Cardiac

178
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus

–Oral involvement—– of patients
• May appear —— • Palate, buccal mucosa, gingiva
• Vermilion zones “lupus cheilitis”

A

5% - 25%

non-specific or lichenoid

179
Q

– CCLE and SLE
• Histopathologic features:
–—– features with —–
–May show subtle differences (e.g. subepithelial edema) which may help lead to the Dx

A

Lichenoid

vasculitis

180
Q

– Lupus erythematosus
• Diagnosis: Can be difficult, especially early stages
–Clinical appearance skin lesions in CCLE characteristic
–SLE - criteria by —-

–Serum studies show —–) present in 95% of SLE patients, negative in CCLE
–ANA - measures the amount and pattern of —– in your blood that work against your own body; a non-specific finding but can be used as a screening tool.

–Positive lupus band test – deposition of a band of —— at the basement membrane zone of normal skin; not specific to SLE; is also positive in other immune-mediated conditions
–Also, some patients with systemic LE are —– for the lupus band test

A

American Rheumatism Association for clinical and lab findings

anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs

antibodies

immunoreactants

negative

181
Q

– Lupus erythematosus

• Treatment:

A

–Sunscreens, avoid excessive UV exposure
–NSAIDS
–Antimalarial drug therapy, low dose thalidomide if resistant to topical Tx
–Topical steroids for skin and/or mucosa
–Systemic steroids or immunomodulating agents for more severe cases
• Complications from long-term steroids
–Kidney transplant may be needed

182
Q

– Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus

• Prognosis:

A

Good
–~ 50% resolve after several years
–~ 5% - 10% of patients with CCLE transform to SLE

183
Q

– Systemic lupus erythematosus
• Prognosis: —-
–Depends on —–

–Most common cause of death is —-
failure
• 5-year survival rate 95% • 15-year survival rate 75%

A

Variable

which organs affected and
how frequently SLE is reactivated –Worse for men than women –Worse for blacks than whites

renal

184
Q

Screening test:

A

Test used on people apparently free of disease in order to detect the disease in early stages

185
Q

Case-finding

Test

A

used to analyze abnormal clinical finding or symptomatic patient in order to establish or suggest diagnosis

186
Q

Brushtest results

Negative -

A

no precancerous cells

187
Q

Brushtest results

n Atypical -

A

abnormal cells

188
Q

Brushtest results

n Positive -

A

dysplastic cells

189
Q

Brushtest results

n Incomplete Specimen –

A

insufficient cells

190
Q

Chemiluminescence -

A
as the result of a chemical reaction.
      -
 n
long
standing diagnostic adjunct in detection of premalignant lesions of cervical mucosa

Abnormal epithelial cells will have altered reflective properties.

191
Q


form of fluorescence when excited by light
molecules that emit energy in the collagen,

A

Fluorophores

192
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Relatively rare condition characterized by -------
–Replaces and destroys normal tissue
• Probably immunologically mediated
• Has also been termed “-----
A

inappropriate deposition of dense collagen

Scleroderma” sclero = hard; derma = skin

193
Q

– Systemic sclerosis
• Clinical features:
–——- texture of skin
————-

A

Diffuse, hard, smooth

–Raynaud phenomenon
–Sclerodactyly (claw-like deformity)
–Acro-osteolysis (resorption terminal phalanges) ± ulceration

–“mask-like” face
–Atrophy of alae
–Mouse facies – pinched appearance of nose
–Microstomia –Dysphagia

194
Q

– Systemic sclerosis
• Clinical features:
–— cases/million annually
–Women affected —- times more frequently than men; adult age group

A

20

3

195
Q

–Raynaud’s phenomenon

A
  • Discoloration of the fingers and/or toes after exposure to changes in temperature or emotional events causing spasm of blood vessels.
  • Not specific for systemic sclerosis
196
Q

– Systemic sclerosis
• Clinical features (con’t):
–Claw-like deformity of fingers due to collagen deposition, ulceration of the fingertips - ——
–——–
• Destruction of the digit tips, including bone

A

sclerodactyly

Acro-osteolysis

197
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Clinical features (con’t):
–Microstomia “purse-string” appearance
–Dysphagia with ----- involvement
–Pulmonary, renal, cardiac and GI fibrosis may be seen, with pulmonary hypertension
A

esophageal

198
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Diagnosis:
–Generally stiffened skin with development of Raynaud’s phenomenon suggestive of Dx
–Skin biopsy –Lab studies
–Serologic studies
• Autoantibodies directed against -----
 • ----- antibodies
• Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
A

Scl-70

Anticentromere

199
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Treatment:
–Difficult, mainly symptomatic
–Several drugs have been used to inhibit ------, increase ------ to decrease symptoms of Raynaud’s
–------ do not seem to help
A

collagen production

peripheral blood flow

Steroids

200
Q

– Systemic sclerosis
• Treatment:
–ACE inhibitors for HTN, esp. due to — –Esophageal dilatation
–Oral hygiene instruction
–Fabricate prostheses with design to accommodate microstomia

A

renal

201
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Prognosis:
–Death due to ------
• ------ involvement has worse prognosis
• Most deaths due to ------
A

internal organ deposition
of collagen

Cardiac

pulmonary involvement

202
Q
– Systemic sclerosis
• Prognosis (con’t):
–Limited cutaneous involvement
----------
–Diffuse cutaneous involvement 10-year survival rate =------
A

10-year survival rate 75% - 80%

55% - 60%

203
Q
– CREST syndrome
• Clinical features:
–Calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Esophageal dysfunction, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia
–Milder variant of ------
 –Women, 6th to 7th decade of life
A

systemic sclerosis

204
Q

– CREST syndrome
• Treatment:
–—- - similar to systemic
sclerosis
• Prognosis: —— than systemic sclerosis
–6-year survival rate 80% –12-year survival rate 50%

A

Symptomatic

better

205
Q

• Effects of nicotine exposure: – Absorbed into blood stream
• Stimulation of ——– to produce ——-
–CNS stimulated, increases ——–
–Stimulates release of dopamine (pleasure reward)

A

adrenal gland

epinephrine

blood pressure, heart rate and respirations

206
Q

• Some HPV types are not sexually transmitted
– HPV 6, 11: ——-
– HPV 2: ——–

A

squamous papillomas

non-genital warts

207
Q

Some HPV types are sexually transmitted

A

– HPV 6, 11: Venereal warts (condyloma acuminatum)

–HPV 16, HPV 18

208
Q
Squamous papilloma
• Clinical features (con’t):
– Usually ------, but can be -----
– ----- with fingerlike projections giving a “cauliflower” or “wart-like” appearance
– Projections can be ------
A

pedunculated

sessile

Exophytic

pointed or blunted

209
Q

Sessile –

A

base is the widest

210
Q

Pedunculated –

A

base is narrower

211
Q
Squamous papilloma
• Clinical features (con’t):
– Low --, low ----
– Soft
– Painless
– Color depends on amount of -----
A

infectivity

virulence

keratin

212
Q
Squamous papilloma
• Treatment:
– -----
• Prognosis:
– Recurrence -----
– ------ possible
A

Conservative excision

unlikely

Spontaneous remission

213
Q

Verruca vulgaris

A

• Dermatologic term for common wart • Contagious

– Self-inoculation

214
Q
Verruca vulgaris
• Treatment:
– Skin lesions - ----
– Oral lesions – ------
• Prognosis:
– May recur
– Spontaneous remission possible
A

topical therapies, surgery

surgery, laser, cryotherapy, electrosurgery

215
Q

HPV’s and Sexually Transmitted Infections (STI)
• Low risk: —–
– May have —– with high risk type
• High risk: especially —— implicated in cancers

A

condyloma acuminatum

co-infection

HPV 16 and HPV 18

216
Q

Venereal warts (Condyloma acuminatum)
• Treatment:

A

Excision, cryotherapy, laser (concern for airborne virus)

– Topical agents for anogenital lesions

217
Q

Venereal warts (Condyloma acuminatum)
• Prognosis:
– —— infected with HPV 16, 18 have higher risk for malignant transformation to —–
– Oral condylomata have not shown this

A

Anogenital condylomata

SCC

218
Q

HPV infects

A

basal cells

219
Q

HPV infection

Terminal differentiation infected —-
– Viral shedding
– Mutations leading to —–

A

keratinocytes

pre-cancerous then cancerous
transformation

220
Q

– Over — percent of HPV infections are cleared by the body within ——– years

A

90

2 - 3

221
Q

• High-risk HPV types make proteins E6, E7 and L1, L2
– E6, E7 allow cell to ——
– L1, L2 comprise the ——

A

grow in uncontrolled manner and avoid cell death

virus capsid (shell) required for virus transmission, spread and survival

222
Q

– Oropharyngeal:

A

base of tongue, soft palate, palatine tonsils, and pharyngeal wall.

223
Q

• OPSCC can be —–
• Not all patients who have high-risk HPV in saliva will develop OPSCC
• Since 1988 the incidence of —– oropharyngeal cancers increasing, while —- oropharyngeal cancers decreased (smoking)
– Increase in oral sexual behavior – Decrease in tobacco use

A

HPV + or HPV –

HPV+

HPV-

224
Q

Oropharyngeal Cancer

• Diagnosis HPV+ OPSCC:

A

HPV-16 infection is not characterized by the presence of HPV- 16 alone:
E6, E7 within the tumor cells must be expressed AND
Serum presence of E6 or E7 antibodies must be present

225
Q

Oropharyngeal Cancer
• Treatment HPV + OPSCC – Early disease:

– Late disease:

A
  • Platinum-based chemoradiotherapy
  • Surgery
  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy • Radiation
226
Q

• Prognosis HPV + OPSCC

A

– Good

– Comorbidities (smoking, immunodeficiency) have negative effect on prognosis

227
Q

From best to worst - OPSCC prognosis

A

• Prognosis:
– HPV +, non-smoker – HPV +, smoker
– HPV -, non-smoker – HPV -, smoker

228
Q

HPV testing is important in oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma to identify patients that should have ——

A

treatment de-escalated

229
Q
What does HPV + mean in relation to oropharyngeal cancer?
• Improved 3-year survival
(80% for HPV+ vs. 40% for HPV -)
– Fewer -----
– Better response to ------
A

genetic alterations

therapy (surgery and/or radiotherapy)

230
Q
  1. Nevus –
A

“mole” (junctional – compound – intradermal/intramucosal)-benign melanocytic lesion. Often notice a decrease in pigmentation as nevi progress from junctional to compound to intradermal

231
Q
  1. Ephelides –
A

“freckles” brown pigmentation that develops following sun exposure. More common in children and fair skinned individuals

232
Q
  1. Lentigo-
A

benign melanocytic lesion. Macular (flat), increase in number in Caucasians with age, no change in color intensity with exposure to UV light

233
Q
  1. Seborrheic keratosis-
A

benign skin lesion with a “stuck on” appearance. Looks like “dropped on candlewax”

234
Q
  1. Dermatosis papulosa nigra-
A

variant of seborrheic keratosIs that occurs in ~ 30% of black population

235
Q
  1. Actinic keratosis-
A

precursor lesion for cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma. “Sandpaper” texture. Tx either surgical excision or topical, immune-activating agents such as Aldara. Use of sun blocking agents, limit sun exposure

236
Q
  1. Telangectatic capillaries-
A

prominent vessels, often an indication of sun damage

237
Q
  1. Sebaceous hyperplasia-
A

usually over 40 y.o. often seen on forehead, once achieve 1 to 2 mm size, minimal to no further growth. Central umbilication (sebaceous duct)

238
Q
  1. Basal cell carcinoma-
A

most common cancer in humans. “Mask” area, rolled borders, umbilicated center, and telangiectasia. Also associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome.

239
Q
  1. Fordyce granules-
A

ectopic sebaceous glands. Can be seen anywhere in the mouth, buccal mucosa most common location also may be seen on lips

240
Q
  1. Angular cheilitis-
A

associated with loss of vertical dimension. Candida, some may have co-infection with Candida and Staph. If external only, can use topical application of combination antifungal/corticosteroid cream.

241
Q
  1. Herpes labialis-
A

most common site for recurrent HSV-1 is vermilion border and/or adjacent skin of lips

242
Q
  1. Melanotic macule-
A

focal increase in melanin; also can occur as reactive melanosis in response to local trauma.

243
Q
  1. Mucocele-
A

focal deposition of mucous. Cause is damage to associated minor salivary gland duct. Treatment is conservative-remove extravasated mucous and associated minor salivary glands.

244
Q
  1. Leukoedema-
A

intracellular edema

245
Q
  1. Linea alba-
A

found along occlusal plane.

246
Q
  1. Morsicatio buccarum, linguarum, labiorum -
A

cheek, tongue, lip nibbling/chewing-shredded keratin, at a site(s) accessible to teeth.

247
Q
  1. Fibroma-
A

benign collection of dense fibrous connective tissue. Conservative removal.

248
Q
  1. Lichen planus-
A

immunologically mediated process. Often has “striae” or lacy clinical presentation. Does not wipe off. “Lichenoid mucositis” is a descriptive term which could apply to several conditions.

249
Q
  1. Maxillary torus-
A

comprised of dense, vital lamellar bone.

250
Q
  1. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia-
A

found under sub-optimally fitting RPD or full denture, may also reflect nearly constant wear. Also has been noted with high palatal vault. Conservative excision, new denture.

251
Q
  1. Nicotine stomatitis-
A

inflamed minor salivary glands of the palate with hyperkeratosis around the orifices. Most commonly seen in pipe smokers; can also be seen with long-term use of hot beverages.

252
Q
  1. Black hairy tongue-
A

overgrowth of chromogenic bacteria and filiform papillae.

253
Q
  1. Fissured tongue –
A

multiple grooves in tongue, fissured tongue-

patients often also have geographic tongue.

254
Q
  1. Geographic tongue-
A

patients may be symptomatic e.g. tongue sensitive to spicy or acidic food, when lesions are present. Ectopic geographic tongue occurs in locations other than dorsal or lateral tongue.

255
Q
  1. Foliate papilla-
A

part of Waldeyer’s ring. Vertical lines at posterior lateral tongue often see lymphoid tissue in that area as well.

256
Q
  1. Mandibular tori-
A

vital lamellar bone. Often bilateral, commonly seen on lingual.

257
Q
  1. Amalgam tattoo-
A

silver in amalgam stains reticulin fibers in associated connective tissue. If unusual presentation, may need to excise to rule out melanoma.

258
Q
  1. Parulis (intraoral opening of sinus track)-
A

rule out an odontogenic source of infection.

259
Q
  1. Pericoronitis-
A

most common in mandibular third molars-food, etc. gets caught between the overlying soft tissue (operculum) and crown of partially impacted tooth. Ideally, remove offending tooth and opposing third molar. May need to initially decrease local inflammation e.g. with rinses, then surgery.

260
Q
  1. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)-
A

punched out interdental papillae that do not regenerate. Seen in persons with poor oral hygiene and/or poor diet and stress.

261
Q
  1. Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia-
A

associated most often with poorly fitting dentures. Conservative excision, construct well-fitting dentures.

262
Q
  1. Varix-
A

most often older patients, lower lip frequent site. If thrombosed, will NOT blanch with diascopy.

263
Q
  1. Ulcer-
A

loss of continuity of an epithelial or epidermal covered surface.

264
Q
  1. Aphthous ulcer-
A

immune mediated. Found on freely movable oral mucosa. “Canker sore” laypersons term. Ulcer on an erythematous base

265
Q
  1. Squamous papilloma-
A

associated with NON-oncogenic human papillomaviruses. Color depends on amount of keratin on the surface

266
Q
  1. leukoplakia-
A

rule-out dysplasia. White patch with crisply defined margins that does not rub off and cannot be diagnosed clinically or microscopically as anything else. Perform a biopsy to identify exact nature of the lesion.

267
Q
  1. Periapical cyst-
A

need to do biopsy to confirm. Assess vitality of adjacent teeth.

268
Q
  1. Dentigerous cyst-
A

develops due to fluid entrapment between crown of impacted tooth and reduced enamel epithelium.

269
Q
  1. Antral pseudocyst-
A

collection of fluid below maxillary sinus. Maxillary sinus lining will be superior to the fluid collection. May get referred pain to maxillary teeth with altitudes e.g. during flying.

270
Q
  1. Condensing osteitis-
A

look for tooth or teeth with deep caries in associated area.

271
Q
  1. Exostoses-
A

bony protuberances arise from cortical plate. Tori are exostoses.

272
Q
  1. Idiopathic osteosclerosis –
A

seen on radiograph; dense vital bone, no identifiable etiology, blends with surrounding trabeculae. Also called enostosis or dense bone island.

273
Q

The risk of developing malignant melanoma:

Answer

A

: Is increasing, as are the incidence and mortality of malignant melanoma

274
Q

What is the prognosis for central ossifying fibroma?

A

Answer: Excellent

275
Q

Which are features of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome?

A

Answer: Multiple OKCs, especially when occurring younger than 15 years old, and multiple BCCs most less aggressive than typical BCC

276
Q

The most common soft tissue location for metastatic disease to present in the oral cavity is:

A

Answer: Gingiva

277
Q

Which cyst feels firm because it is filled with keratin?

A

Answer: Gingival cyst of the newborn

278
Q
  1. Definition of leukoplakia
A

i) White patch that cannot be wiped off AND cannot be diagnosed clinically or microscopically as any other condition

279
Q
  1. Leukoplakia clinical appearance
    i) White patch with —–
    ii) Male > — y.o.
    iii) Smooth,—–
    iv) ——mostcommonoverallsite
    v) Flat to slightly elevated
    vi) Thinorthick
A

crisply defined borders

50

verrucousormicronodularsurface

Buccalmucosa

280
Q

Leukoplakia

High-risk sites:

A

a. Floor of mouth
b. Ventral tongue
c. Soft palate

281
Q
  1. Leukoplakia risk factors
    i) Male > —- y.o.
    ii) Tobacco use, especially cigarettes (products of combustion). More than 80% of patients with
    leukoplakia are ——.
    iii) Alcohol–—– effect
    iv) Reverse-smoking
    v) Use of —– products
    vi) UVradiation
    vii) Microorganisms
    viii)Use of betel quid and similar products
    ix) Biopsy-provenoralepithelialdysplasiaorsquamouscellcarcinoma
    x) Immunocompromised state (HIV+, chemotherapy, systemic steroids)
A

50

smokers

synergistic

sanguinaria

282
Q

80% leukoplakias microscopically show what? i) ——- without ——

A

Hyperkeratosis

epithelial dysplasia

283
Q
  1. Definition of erythroplakia

i) —— that cannot be ——-

A

Red patch

wiped off AND cannot be diagnosed clinically or microscopically as any
other condition

284
Q
  1. Erythroplakia clinical appearance
    i) —–
    a. Due to the lack of —– production on the surface of the lesion
    b. Mucosa is —–; underlying —— shows through
    ii) Well——

iv) Usually —–

A

Velvety red

keratin

atrophic

vasculature

demarcated

asymptomatic

285
Q

Erythroplakia

iii) Mostcommonsites:

A

a. Floor of mouth
b. Ventral tongue
c. Soft palate/tonsillar pillars

286
Q
  1. Erythroplakia risk factors
    i) Same as —- but no ——
    ii) More serious/severe than —–
A

leukoplakia

gender predilection

leukoplakia

287
Q
  1. 90% erythroplakias microscopically show what?
A

i) Severe epithelial dysplasia or worse

288
Q
  1. Actinic cheilitis ≠
A

exfoliative cheilitis

289
Q
  1. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) risk factors
A

i) Age (esp. over 40 y.o.)
ii) Fair complexion
iii) Chronic and intermittent sun (UV) exposure
iv) Frequentsunburns
v) Outdoor occupation or hobby
vi) Tendency for freckling in childhood
vii) Other: PUVA for psoriasis, tanning beds, immunosuppression
viii) Basal cell carcinoma syndrome ix) Male>female

290
Q
  1. BCC types
A

i) Nodulo-ulcerative BCC - most common
ii) Pigmented BCC
iii) Sclerosing (morpheaform) BCC - least common
iv) Others:superficialBCC,BCCassociatedwithsyndromes,fibroepithelioma

291
Q

Most common BCC

A

nodulo-ulcerative BCC

292
Q

Least common BCC

A

Sclerosing BCC

293
Q
  1. BCC clinical features of nodulo-ulcerative
    i) —– papule
    ii) —– enlargement
    iii) Central —— which often ulcerates
    iv) Rolledborders
    v) —— when pressed
    vi) No—-
    vii) Telangiectasia – collection of small blood vessels near surface
    viii) History of —– (patient may think they scratched it or shaved it)
A

Firm, painless

Slow

umbilication (depression)

Pearly, opalescent

hair

intermittent bleeding then healing

294
Q

Telangiectasia –

A

collection of small blood vessels near surface

295
Q
  1. BCC Tx
A

i) Scalpel excision
ii) Electrodesiccation and curettage
iii) Cryotherapy
iv) Radiationtherapy
v) Mohs micrographically controlled surgery; uses pathology and surgery

vi) UV protection with SPF products, hats

296
Q
  1. Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) risk factors
    i) Chronic sun (UV) light exposure
    ii) Medical ionizing radiation
    iii) Pre-existing —–
A

actinic keratosis

297
Q
  1. Cutaneous SCC clinical features
    i) Any sun-exposed site (dorsum of hands, arms)
    ii) —- head and neck (i.e., face, helix of ear, scalp esp. with thinning hair)
    iii) Non-healing—–
    iv) Slowgrowth
    v) Plaque, papule or nodule
    vi) Variabledegreesofscale,ulcerorcrust
    vii) Often —- base
A

~ 70%

ulcer

erythematous

298
Q
  1. Cutaneous SCC prognosis

i) —– if identified and treated early

A

Good

299
Q
  1. SCC lip risk factors
    i) —– exposure
    ii) Arises in setting of —–
A

Chronic (UV) sun

actinic cheilitis

300
Q
  1. SCC lip clinical features
A

i) Especially lower lip
ii) Rare on upper lip (protected by forehead, nose and mustache)
iii) Rough,scaly
iv) Oftenulcerated
v) Slow growing, non-healing

301
Q
  1. SCC lip prognosis
    i) Relatively —- for lower lip, upper lip has ——-
    ii) Good overall if identified early
A

good

high risk for lymph node metastasis

302
Q
  1. Oral SCC risk factors
    i) ~ —% of cases occur in patients under — years-old with no risk factors, typically on the
    - —–
A

25

40

ventrolateral tongue

303
Q

b. —-% patients Dx’d with OSCC have Hx TOB

A

80

304
Q

OSCC

iii) Intrinsicfactors:
a. Biopsy proven —- or SCC
b. Presence of ——
c. Leukoplakia in high-risk site
d. Immunosuppression, i.e. taking systemic steroids, HIV or transplant patients
e. Heredity not major role; few heritable conditions
f. Older male >—-
g. —– male predilection
h. ± pain (pain usually a late feature)

A

oral epithelial dysplasia

erythroplakia or PVL

50

2:1

305
Q

i) Most common sites OSCC:

A

a. Tongue – most common (especially posterior/lateral/ventral)
b. Floor of mouth (often near midline) almost as common as tongue
(i) Other site:
1. Gingiva – women 2:1, often non-smoker
2. Soft palate (esp. posterior/lateral) R/O sinus primary
3. Labial and buccal mucosa (not common, but occurs)
4. Hard palate (reverse-smoking)

306
Q

iii) Exophytic

A

(mass-forming;fungating,papillary,andverruciform)

307
Q

iv) Endophytic(

A

invasive,burrowing,andulcerated)

308
Q

OSCC

ix) Can resemble a

A

non-specific ulcer,infection(TB,syphilis,deepfungal)orulceratedimmune-
mediated condition

309
Q
  1. Oral SCC radiographic features
    i) —– usually a late feature
    ii) “—–” radiolucency, ——- margins
    iii) —— fracture possible
A

Bone invasion

moth-eaten

ill-defined

Pathologic

310
Q
  1. Oral SCC prognosis
    i) Depends on stage
    ii) Generally —–; most OSCC present in Stage —-
    iii) Metastasis to lymphnodes
    iv) —– 5-yearsurvival
    v) Periodic follow-up after Tx completed
    vi) 10-25% of these patients will develop new —
A

poor

III or IV

60%

upper aerodigestive tract malignancies, particularly if
carcinogenic habits are continued

311
Q
  1. Melanotic macule etiology
    i) —– etiology (post-traumatic melanosis?)
    ii) Similar lesions associated with —–
A

Unknown

systemic conditions, medications and genetic disorders

312
Q
  1. Melanotic macule clinical features
A

i) Common, harmless
ii) Maximum dimension achieved rapidly then remains constant
iii) Roundtooval7mmorless
iv) Not dependent on sun exposure
v) Female predilection
vi) Averageage43,butbroadagerange
vii) Lip or oral mucosa (lower lip vermilion zone most common location)
viii) Uniformly tan to dark brown
ix) Demarcatedmargins

313
Q
  1. Melanotic macule Tx
    i) None indicated unless for —–
    ii) ——- Bx if recent onset, large size, irregular pigmentation, unknown duration, recent
    enlargement (early —– can have similar appearance)
A

esthetics

Excisional

melanoma

314
Q
  1. Melanotic macule prognosis
    i) Considered —–
    ii) One report of ——
A

benign

malignant transformation

315
Q
  1. Melanoma risk factors
A

i) Whites, esp. fair-skinned
ii) Light hair/eyes
iii) Family history of melanoma
a. Genetic predisposition
iv) Personalhistoryofmelanoma
v) Tendency to sunburn/freckle easily
vi) History of blistering sunburn early in life
a. Acute sun exposure > chronic
vii) Indoor occupation; outdoor recreation viii)History dysplastic or congenital nevus
ix) >100commonnevi
x) Immunocompromised – organ transplant
xi) 40-70 years of age
a. Female predilection under age 40 xii) Male predilection in older pts.
xiii) Overall, slight male predilection

316
Q

Melanoma ABCDE

A

a. Asymmetry
b. Border irregularity
c. Color variegation
d. Diameter greater than 6 mm (size of a pencil eraser)
e. Evolving – enlarging or changing color

317
Q
  1. Melanoma types
A

i) Lentigo maligna melanoma
ii) Superficial spreading melanoma – most common type
iii) Nodularmelanoma
iv) Acrallentiginousmelanoma

318
Q

a. Most common type of melanoma seen in the oral cavity is —— with the following:

A

acral lentiginous

clinical features:

(a) Dark, may see color variegation
(b) Can be amelanotic
(c) Irregular margin
(d) Macule which develops into nodule
(e) Male predilection
(f) 5th – 7th decade
(g) Hard palate/maxillary alveolar mucosa (70% - 80%)
(h) + ulceration
(i) + pain, usually if ulcerated
(j) Soft to palpation
(k) Cervical lymph node metastasis

319
Q
  1. Melanoma Tx
A

i) Surgical excision
ii) Lymph node dissection
iii) Genotype-directed immunotherapy
iv) Chemotherapy
v) Close clinical follow-up
vi) SPFproducts,hats

320
Q
  1. Melanoma prognosis
    i) Depends on —-
    ii) Better prognosis:
    a. Younger than —-
    b. Female
    c. Worse for ——
    d. Worse for ——
    iii) Oral melanoma - —-
    a. 5-year survival rate ~——
    b. Difficulty achieving ——-
    c. Early metastasis
A

depth of invasion

50

cutaneous on trunk, head and neck (esp. scalp and neck)

mucosal than cutaneous

poor

10% - 25%

wide surgical margins

321
Q
  1. Mucocele/ranula etiology
A

i) Rupture of salivary gland duct → spillage of mucin

322
Q

a. Ranula
(a) Arises from —-
(b) FOM, right or left of midline
(c) Similar clinical features as ——–

A

sublingual gland

mucocele

323
Q

Mucocele/ranula Tx

i) Microscopic exam to rule-out neoplasm
ii) Some resolve with no
iii) Excision of mucous deposit including ——-
iv) Txranulamayincludemarsupialization–unroofing

A

treatment (especially superficial)

involved gland

324
Q
  1. Sialolithiasis clinical features
    i) Hard submucosal mass in soft tissue
    ii) Submandibular gland (—-%), but can also affect parotid or minor glands
    iii) ± symptoms
    iv) May have swelling prior to or during meals
A

80

325
Q

i) Sialadenitis

A

a. Bacterial, often penicillinase-producing staph
b. Viral, most often mumps
c. Ductal obstruction, retrograde infection - associated with xerostomia, may follow general
anesthesia

326
Q

Sialadenosis

A

a. Non-infectious etiology
b. Associated with underlying systemic condition
(a) Diabetes
(b) Malnutrition (c) Alcoholism (d) Bulimia

327
Q

i) Sialadenitis features

A

a. Diffuse
b. Unilateral swelling
c. Painful/tender, especially around meal times
d. May feel warm
e. Overlying skin may be erythematous
f. May have low-grade fever
g. May have trismus
h. Acute usually parotid
i. Purulent exudate expressed from the parotid papilla
j. Chronic - usually submandibular gland

328
Q

ii) Sialadenosis
a. Slowly evolving enlargement of —–
b. Usually —–
c. ± pain

A

parotid or submandibular gland

bilateral

329
Q

Sialadenitis tx

a. —– to rule-out sialolith
b. Antibiotic therapy – —- spectrum
c. ——- if purulence
d. Massage (with caution)
e. Warm compress
f. Sialogogues with hydration
g. Sugarless lemon drops
h. Ductal —–
i. ——- with saline irrigation

j. Surgical drainage
k. Surgical removal of affected gland may be needed

A

Screening radiograph

broad

Culture and sensitivity

stenting

Sialoendoscopy

330
Q

ii) Sialadenosis tx
a. Often —– – control of underlying disease
b. Partial —— cosmetic reasons
c. —— reported to be beneficial

A

unsatisfactory

parotidectomy

Pilocarpine

331
Q
  1. Most common major salivary gland to have a neoplasm
A

i) Parotid

332
Q
  1. Most likely major salivary gland to have a malignancy
A

i) Sublingual

333
Q
  1. Most common minor salivary glands to have a malignancy
A

i) Tongue, retromolar region

334
Q
  1. Pleomorphic adenoma clinical features

i) 80% occur in the —-
ii) 4th – 6th decade (mean age 45 y.o.)
iii) Slightfemalepredilection
iv) ——growing
v) Painless
vi) —–able
vii) —— on palpation
viii) Usually —–, but —— may be present secondary to trauma
ix) Lesions of the hard palate are not moveable due to normal anatomy of the palate
x) Palatal lesions are usually —– to the midline
xi) Usually round when small, —– as it grows

A

parotid

Slow

Move

Rubbery-firm

non-ulcerated

ulceration

lateral

bosselated

335
Q
  1. Pleomorphic adenoma Tx

i) Parotid –

A

remove lesion with the involved lobe

336
Q
  1. Pleomorphic adenoma Tx

ii) Submandibular –

A

remove lesion and the involved gland

337
Q
  1. Pleomorphic adenoma Tx

iii) Hard palate–

A

remove lesion, including overlying mucosa down to periosteum

338
Q
  1. Pleomorphic adenoma Tx

iv) Softpalate,labialandbuccalmucosa-

A

enucleation

339
Q
  1. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma clinical features
    i) —— salivary gland malignancy
    ii) Wide age range, 2nd to 7th decade
    iii) May also be found —- within maxilla or mandible
    iv) Well——
    v) Non-tender
    vi) Usually ——, but can be
    vii) Ulceration and pain may develop as lesion progresses
    viii) —— on palpation
    ix) May have —– due to entrapped ——
    a. ——— should be considered mucoepidermoid carcinoma until proven otherwise!!
A

Most common

centrally

demarcatedorinfiltrative

non-ulcerated

Fluctuant to hard

bluish tinge

mucin

Mucocele-appearing lesion of retromolar area

340
Q
  1. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma Tx i) Depends on the grade
    a. Low-grade – —-
    b. High-grade – ——
A

wide surgical excision

wide surgical excision plus radiation

341
Q
  1. Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia (IFH, “denture epulis”) clinical features
A

i) Flange of ill-fitting denture

ii) May have central fissure/ulcer

342
Q
  1. Name “3 P’s”
A

i) Pyogenic granuloma
ii) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
iii) Peripheralgiantcellgranuloma

343
Q
  1. Langerhans cell histiocytosis radiographic features
A

i) Any bone affected but skull, mandible, ribs, vertebrae most frequent
ii) Solitary or multiple
iii) May break out of bone
iv) Radiolucent
v) Well-defined (usually) but not corticated
vi) Occasionally ill-defined
vii) Severe bone loss can resemble periodontal disease
viii) “scooped-out” appearance of superficial bone, esp. posterior mandible
ix) Extensivealveolarinvolvementcausesteethtoappearasiftheyare“floatinginair”

344
Q
  1. Myelophthisic anemia associated with leukemia
    i) Normal bone marrow cells replaced by —–
    a. Fatigue, shortness of breath (SOB), pallor (decreased RBC’s)
    b. Easy —– (decreased platelets)
    c. —— (decreased WBC’s)
A

leukemic cells

bruising

Infection

345
Q
  1. B signs associated with lymphoma
A

i) Fever
ii) Weight loss
iii) Drenchingnightsweats
iv) Generalizedpruritus(itching)

346
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma radiographic features
    i) Widespread —- lesions of bone
    ii) Any bone can be affected
    iii) —— radiolucencies,especiallyskull
    iv) May appear as ——
    v) Mandible involved ~ —-% of cases
A

lytic

“punched-out”non-corticated

osteomyelitis

30

347
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma Tx - to control disease and keep pt. comfortable
A

i) Chemotherapy
ii) Bone marrow transplant
iii) Radiationonlyaspalliativetreatment
iv) Bisphosphonateshelppreventfracture

348
Q
  1. Cleidocranial dysplasia clinical/radiographic dental features
    i) —– retained because permanent teeth don’t erupt
    ii) Numerous ——–
    iii) Plenty of teeth; not erupting in the correct space, or, not erupting at all
A

Primary dentition

impacted and supernumerary teeth

349
Q
  1. Osteitis deformans (Paget disease) radiographic features
    i) “—–” appearance of bone
    ii) May have extensive —-
A

Cotton wool

hypercementosis

350
Q
  1. Osteitis deformans (Paget disease) Tx
    i) If asymptomatic, —-
    ii) —-
A

no Tx

Bisphosphonates

351
Q
  1. Cemento-osseous dysplasia, types
A

i) Periapical COD
ii) Focal COD
iii) Floridosseousdysplasia

352
Q
  1. Cemento-osseous dysplasia clinical features
    i) Most commonly seen in ——, followed by ——, then ——–
    a. ======= type reported to be more common in ======
    b. However, COD can affect both genders and any ethnic group
    ii) Usually found incidentally on x-ray
    iii) Tooth-bearing areas of jaws
    iv) Asymptomatic,
    v) Swelling, discomfort unusual
    vi) **——
A

black females

east Asian females

white females

Focal

white females

Teethtestvital

353
Q
  1. Cemento-osseous dysplasia radiographic features
    i) Ranges from —— to —— with a thin radiolucent rim (—–
    remains intact)
A

completely radiolucent

densely radiopaque

PDL

354
Q

ii) Florid osseous dysplasia shows multiple “——- in at least 2 quadrants of
the jaws
iii) May be associated with ——

A

cotton wool” type radiopacities

simple bone cyst

355
Q
  1. Cemento-osseous dysplasia Tx
    i) None indicated for —–
    ii) Bx may be indicated for —- to r/o other disease processes
    iii) Bx generally not necessary for ——
    iv) Regular visits for dental prophylaxis and OHI to prevent periodontal disease and need for
    extractions
    v) Encourage pts to retain their teeth
    vi) Ideally avoid ——–onset of symptoms associated with ———
A

periapical COD

focal

florid osseous dysplasia

surgical procedures

exposure of sclerotic bone to
oral cavity

356
Q

vii) Management of symptomatic pt with secondary osteomyelitis difficult

A

a. Debridement
b. Antibiotics (often not effective)
c. Chlorhexidine rinse

357
Q

i) Central ossifying fibroma - conditions

A

a. Hyperparathyroidism-jaw tumor syndrome

358
Q

ii) Osteoma - condition

A

a. Gardner syndrome

359
Q

iii) Centralgiantcellgranuloma - conditions

A

a. Hyperparathyroidism

b. Renal osteodystrophy

360
Q

Chondrosarcoma clinical features

i) Mostly —–, 4th – 6th decade
ii) Mainly ——
iii) May present with ——
iv) 10%headandneck
v) May mimic ——
a. ± pain, swelling, loose teeth

A

adult males

femur, pelvis or ribs

pain, swelling

dental infection

361
Q
  1. Chondrosarcoma radiographic features
    i) Poorly defined —— with variable amounts of ——
    ii) Larger lesions may appear ——-
    iii) May see widened —- in area of tumor
A

radiolucency

radiopacity

multilocular

PDL

362
Q
  1. Chondrosarcoma Tx
A

i) Radical surgery “one chance for cure”

363
Q
  1. Osteosarcoma clinical features
    i) —– – usually around knee, mean age 18 y.o.
    ii) Jaws – mean age ~ — y.o.
    iii) Painofteninitialcomplaintlongbonesandjaws
    iv) Jaws
    a. Swelling
    b. Loose teeth
    c. Paresthesia
A

Long bones

28

364
Q
  1. Osteosarcoma radiographic features
    i) “=====” pattern uncommon in jaws
    ii) Mixed ===== with ill-defined borders
    iii) SymmetricallywidenedPDLofteethinthearea
A

sun-burst

radiolucent/radiopaque

365
Q
  1. Metastatic disease to the oral cavity clinical features
A

i) Paresthesia, tooth mobility, swelling, hemorrhage, pathologic fracture, trismus
ii) Lack of a healing tooth socket consider:
a. Granulation tissue
b. Lymphoma
c. Metastatic disease

366
Q
  1. Metastatic disease radiographic features
    i) Poorly defined —-
    ii) Less commonly, ——
    iii) “motheaten”
A

radiolucency

radiopacity

367
Q
  1. Metastatic disease prognosis
    i) Very poor, most patients die within —– of the diagnosis
    ii) —-% of jaw metastases are initial manifestation
A

one year

22

368
Q
  1. Odontogenic keratocyst clinical features
    i) Usually —–
    ii) Peak incidence —- decade
    iii) Slightlydecliningincidenceinsubsequentdecades
    iv) Anterior maxilla favored after —- y.o.
    v) No cases under —- y.o. unless pt. has syndrome
    vi) Mandible—-
A

asymptomatic

3rd

70

10

2:1

369
Q
  1. Odontogenic keratocyst radiographic features
    i) Majority (up to 80%) —- radiolucencies with —– margins and a thin —–
    border
    ii) Can ——, however can be expansile and symptomatic
    iii) Only20%—–
A

unilocular

well-demarcated

sclerotic

hollow-out the mandible without expansion

exhibitmultilocularappearance

370
Q
  1. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin syndrome) clinical features, significance to dentistry
    i) Enlarged —– circumference (60 cm or more in adults)
    ii) —– ridges – frontal bossing
    iii) Broad —–
    iv) Mildocularhypertelorism(wide-set)
    v) Basal cell carcinomas that:
     are —–
     occur in —— skin
     develop at an ——
     often show —– pigmentation
     are usually —–, with a few being aggressive
A

occipitofrontal

Heavy brow

nasal root

multiple

unexposed, as well as exposed,

earlier age (puberty-35 years)

melanin

quiescent

371
Q

Gorlin syndrome:

vi) OKCs of the jaws develop in at least —% of affected patients
a. May begin in 1st decade, after age 7 years
b. May be —– - more likely to have syndrome if —–

A

75

single or multiple

multiple

372
Q
  1. List the tissue of origin for each odontogenic neoplasm discussed in class
    i) Odontogenic epithelium
A

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Adenoid odontogenic tumor
c. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

373
Q
  1. List the tissue of origin for each odontogenic neoplasm discussed in class
    ii) Mixed odontogenic epithelium and odontogenic ectomesenchyme
A

a. Ameloblastic fibroma
b. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
c. Odontoma

374
Q
  1. List the tissue of origin for each odontogenic neoplasm discussed in class
    iii) Odontogenicectomesenchyme
A

a. Odontogenic myxoma

b. Cementoblastoma

375
Q

i) Compound odontoma a. Usually —- jaw
ii) Complex odontoma
a. Usually —– jaw

A

anterior

posterior

376
Q

i) Compound odontoma
a. Collection of —– surrounded by narrow —– rim
b. Often overlies —–

A

small malformed teeth

radiolucent

impacted tooth

377
Q

ii) Complex odontoma
a. —- mass, if fully formed has density of tooth structure
b. Surrounded by narrow —- rim
c. Typically overlies —-

A

Calcified

radiolucent

impacted tooth

378
Q
  1. Ameloblastoma clinical features
    i) —, but locally aggressive
    ii) Painless
    iii) Frequency equals combined frequency of all other odontogenic tumors
    iv) Nogenderpredilection
    v) Average age of diagnosis – —- y.o.
    vi) ——growing
    a. Usually ——- bone
A

Benign

33

Slow

expands, rather than perforates

379
Q
  1. Ameloblastoma radiographic features
    i) Most in —– region of mandible, but can occur anywhere
    ii) ~ —-% associated with impacted tooth
    iii) Unilocular/multilocularwithwell-definedbutnotscleroticborders,especiallysmalllesions
    iv) —— “soap bubble” or “honeycomb”
    v) May —– teeth/resorb roots
A

molar/ramus

20

Multilocular expansile radiolucency

displace

380
Q
  1. Ameloblastoma prognosis
    i) Guarded
    a. Recurrence rates reported up to —-%
    ii) Can be —-, especially lesions of maxilla
    iii) Rare——transformation
    iv) Annual radiographic follow-up for —– years
A

15

fatal

malignant

8 – 10

381
Q
  1. List 4 developmental mucocutaneous conditions discussed in class
A

i) Ectodermal dysplasia
ii) White sponge nevus
iii) Peutz-Jegherssyndrome
iv) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

382
Q
  1. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome clinical features lips and oral mucosa
    i) —- macules of lips and oral mucosa (also can occur around eyes, nostrils, anus, hands, feet), may fade with age
A

Hyperpigmented

383
Q
  1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) clinical features
    i) Frequent spontaneous —– – may be initial clue to diagnosis
    ii) Numerous —– red papules blanch with diascopy
    iii) Telangiectasiasmaybeseenonmucosaandskin,includinghandsandfeet
    iv) Oral,oropharyngeal,nasal,genitourinary,conjunctivalmucosaandGImucosa
    v) —– may affect the lungs (30% of patients), liver (30%) or brain (10-20%)
    vi) Orallesionsoftenmostdramaticandmosteasilyidentified
    a. Vermilion zones b. Tongue
    c. Buccal mucosa
A

epistaxis

1 mm – 2 mm

Arteriovenous fistulas

384
Q
  1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) prognosis
    i) Generally good, —- mortality sometimes noted due to complications related to —–
    ii) If brain abscess develops, —% mortality can be anticipated, despite early diagnosis and appropriate
    treatment
A

1-2%

blood loss

10