UK law for the Orals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the specific responsibilites of the CAA?

A
  • Air safety
  • Economic Regulation
  • Airspace regulation
  • Consumer protection
  • Environmental Research and consultancy
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2
Q

What groups is the CAA split into?

A
  • Safety and Airspace Regulation Group (SARG)
  • Regulatory Policy Group (RPG)
  • Consumer Protection Group (CPG)
  • Environmental Research & Consultancy Department
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3
Q

What are the specific responsiblities of SARG?

A
  • Commerical Aviation
  • GA
  • Harmonising European standards
  • Flight Ops
  • CAA/SARG support to gov
  • Pax safety
  • Uk register of civil a/c
  • a/c maintainence
  • Structures, materials and propulsion
  • A/C airworthiness
  • A/c design and manufacturing
  • Flight crew licensing
  • Medicals
  • HF
  • ATC
  • Aerodrome licensing
  • Incident reporting
  • Research
  • International consultancy and training services
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4
Q

What regulation governs licensing in EASA?

A

2015/340

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5
Q

What is the AAIB?

A

Air Accident Investigation Board

Responsible for the investigation of accidents and serious incidents within the UK.

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6
Q

What is the UKAB?

A

UK Airprox Board

Tries to learn lessons from air prox reports to prevent reoccurence therefore improving safety.

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7
Q

What is an airprox?

A

A situation in which, in the opinion of the pilot or a controller, the distance between aircraft as well as their respective positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.

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8
Q

What is GATCO?

A

Guild of Air Traffic Control Officers

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9
Q

Where would you find the differences from EASA and ICAO in the UK?

A

AIP Gen 1.7

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10
Q

What are the key differences mentioned in the ANO?

A
  • VMC
  • Cruising Levels
  • VFR at night
  • SVFR
  • Rights of way on the ground
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11
Q

What is article 160 of the ANO?

A

Allows the secretary of state to make regulations (rules of the air)

A rule to allow the making of rules.

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12
Q

What is CAP 493?

A

The Manual of Air Traffic Services Part 1 (MATS 1)

Is based on the Doc 4444 and is the air traffic “bible” of the UK.

Controllers not following the details written inside could be subject to prosecution

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13
Q

What are the mandatory statements in Air traffic?

A

Shall, Is to, Are to, Must

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14
Q

What is an informative or descriptive word in air traffic?

A

Will

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15
Q

What are the permissive/ optional words in air traffic?

A

May

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16
Q

What word is used to describe something that is strongly advised to do?

A

Should

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17
Q

What are SI’s?

A

Supplementary instructions

Updates to the documents that:

  • Introduce new subject or radical change
  • Issue urgent amendment
  • To remphasise existing instruction
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18
Q

What are the sections of MATS 1?

A
  1. ATS
  2. Aerodrome Services
  3. Approach services
  4. Area Services
  5. Emergency Procedures
  6. Reporting Procedures
  7. Associated Services
  8. Admin & Licensing
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19
Q

What is CAP 393?

A

The Air Navigation Order (ANO)

Established as UK law and violations of this are a criminal offence

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20
Q

What are the ORS?

A

Offical Record Series

These documents reflect the UK temporary (3 years) differences from EU regulations, which must be published and presented to EASA

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21
Q

What is contained in the IAIP?

A

Integrated AIP

contains aeronautical information essential to air navigation.

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22
Q

Read the AIC’s

A
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23
Q

What part of the ANO allows the CAA to suspend or revoke a licence?

A

ANO part 31 section 253

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24
Q

Apart from Suspending or revoking a licence what else can the CAA do to a licence?

A

Vary it by applying conditions or limitations on it.

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25
Q

What does the word notified mean in relation to the rules of the air?

A

Set out with the authority of the CAA in a document published by or under an arrangement entered into with the CAA and entitled UK NOTAM or AIP and for the time being in force.

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26
Q

What is a small unmanned aircraft?

A

An unmanned a/c, other than a balloon or a kite, weighing not more than 20kg without its fuel but including any articles or equipment installed in or attached to the a/c at the commencement of its flight.

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27
Q

What does Article 163 refer to?

A
  • Captive/tethered balloons must have an auto-deflate.
  • Mass release of balloons must have appropriate permissions;
    i) >1,000 CAA needs 28 days notice
    ii) 2,000-10,000 Written CAA permission
    iii) >10,000 CAA permission
  • Restricts use of captive balloons or free balloons within ATZ and most CAS.
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28
Q

What does article 166 say about flying small unmanned aerial vehicles?

A
  • May only fly if safe to do so
  • Person flying must maintain direct visual contact sufficient to monitor flight path in relation to other aircraft.
  • Shall not fly a small a/c over 7kg in class A-E airspace without ATC permission;
  • In an ATZ during notified hours
  • At a height exceeding 400ft above the surface
  • Shall not fly for aerial work purposes without CAA permission
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29
Q

What must a flight do if a navigation or anti-collision lights fail at night?

A

For any light he is not to depart at night if cannot be repaired immediately. If in flight, land as soon as possible unless authorised to continue by relevant authority.

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30
Q

What must a flight do if an anti-collision light fails during the day?

A

Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.

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31
Q

What must a controller take into account during the failure of anti-col or nav lights?

A

Permission to continue with the flight should normally only be given in the a/c is to remain in UK class A-D airspace, it can leave the UK if permission is granted by the adjacent authority.

If pilot intends to fly outside CAS or in Class E he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

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32
Q

Within how many days can an appeal be made for a refusal to grant or validate a licence, cert or rating?

A

14

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33
Q

Which airspace is notified as CAS in the UK?

A

Airspace which has been notifiedas class A, B, C, D or E

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34
Q

Define a controlled aerodrome?

A

An aerodrome at which ATC service is provided to aerodrome traffic regardless whether a CTR exists or not

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35
Q

Define flight visibility

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an a/c in flight.

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36
Q

When is an aircraft deemed to be in flight?

A

From the moment it first moves under its own power

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37
Q

What is the CAA’s definition of night (ANO 2016 schedule 1)

A

Half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise

Determined at surface level

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38
Q

Who is responsible for determining whether VMC permits VFR flight?

A

The pilot

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39
Q

Which visibility is used to determine whether VMC permits VFR flight?

A

Flight vis

However for fixed wing and helicopter flights to/or from aerodromes, or entering ATZ or traffic circuit in Class D airspace shall use Ground Vis

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40
Q

Which aircraft are exempted from the VMC criteria in the UK?

A
  • Powerline
  • Pipeline
  • Police
  • Helimed
  • SAR
  • SAR training if LOA (letter of agreement) with ATC provider exists
41
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at FL100 or above in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

42
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

43
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, Class C, D or E airspace during the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)

44
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace (F&G) in the day?

A

clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km

45
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.

46
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m (this may be as low as 800m providing the helicopter is travelling at a speed slow enough to see and avoid).

47
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

48
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

49
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

slides say that it is 5km COCSIS in Class G airspace but MATS 1 makes no reference to this!!

50
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight Helicopters may reduce the flight visibility to 3km provided they travel at a reasonable speed.

51
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 1500m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
52
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that VMC no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 1,500ft and/or a G.V of less than 5km in dya or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
53
Q

What are the conditions for a SVFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 600ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 1,500m (800m for helis)
54
Q

What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 5,000m
55
Q

What are the VMC for a fixed wing aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl when transiting a Class D airspace?

A

Providing the a/c is remaining outside the ATZ, not joining the circuit;

5km flight vis COCSIS

(ORS 1195)

56
Q

What are the VMC for a helicopter at or below 3,000ft amsl when transiting a Class D airspace?

A

Providing the a/c is remaining outside the ATZ, not joining the circuit;

1500m flight vis COCSIS

(ORS 1195)

57
Q

What is ORS 1126?

A

That VFR flight in the UK is not assigned specified levels (semi-circular rule)

58
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A

When airspace is notified as class A

Met condition conditions preclude VFR

59
Q

What are the VMC in class A airspace and when would you need this?

A

Above FL100 8km flight vis, 1500m and 1,000ft from cloud

Below FL100 5km flight vis, 1500m and 1,000ft from cloud (same as all other CAS)

VMC climb and descents

Powered a/c making an airways crossing

60
Q

Can A/C cross airways without an ATC clearance? If so how?

A

Yes

Must fly at right angles across the base of an en-route section of an airway where the lower limit is defined as a FL.

61
Q

What is the definition of an SVFR flight?

A

a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in met conditions below VMC.

62
Q

To what are SVFR flights seperated?

A

Standard separation applied between;

  • IFR and SVFR flights
  • SVFR flights and SVFR flights
  • No sep can be provided between SVFR flights on notifed SVFR routes or areas.*
63
Q

What conditions is SVFR flight subject to?

A
  • COCSIS with the surface in sight
  • Flight vis must be at least 1,500m (800m for helis)
  • Speed of 140kt IAS or less
64
Q

What does ORS 1195 say regarding transits of CTR’s?

A

VFR

May transit when;

  1. 140kt or less
  2. COCSIS
  3. 5km flight vis (1500m helis)

SVFR

May transit when;

  1. 140kt or less
  2. COCSIS
  3. Flight vis of 1500m (800m for helis)
65
Q

Do you normally assign a level to fly to an SVFR a/c?

A

no, vertical sep. achieved by requiring one to fly not above a level and the other not below a level

66
Q

What form is used to complete Full FPL’s in the UK?

A

CA48

67
Q

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan in the UK?

A
  • Flying over the sea more than 10nm from the UK coast
  • Over sparsely populated areas where SAR may be difficult
  • Into an area where SAR ops are in progress
68
Q

When must a DLA message be sent?

A

For IFR a/c when delayed more than 15 mins from their planned EOBT

69
Q

What can be changed by a CHG message?

A

A/C type, speed, level, route etc

70
Q

Can you change a destination or call sign by a CHG message?

A

no, these as well as changes of departure a/d will require a brand new FPL.

71
Q

When will overdue action be initiated?

A

If the aircraft has not arrived within 30 mins after is ETA

72
Q

When must a DEP message be sent?

A

For all VFR FPL’s and IFR FPLs outside CAS or outside the IFPS zone.

73
Q

When is a DEP message not required?

A

If an IFR FPL has been filed in the IFPS zone and will operate solely within it.

74
Q

What is the maximum time beforehand a FPL can be filed?

A

120 hours

75
Q

Are VFR flight plans covered by the IFPS?

A

No, they must be addressed to aerodromes and appropriate FIRS on the route.

76
Q

What are the addresses for IFPS FPL?

A

EUCHZMFP & EUCBZMFP

77
Q

What is the London FIR AFTN address?

A

EGZYVFRT

78
Q

What is the address for the Scottish FIR AFTN?

A

EGZYVFRP

79
Q

When is a Full FPL required for an SVFR flight?

A

Not normally required but pilot may give an abbreviated one

however a FPL will be required if destination needs to be informed with “I” written in flight rules

80
Q

What are AIC’s?

A

Aeronautical information circulars

Information that doesn’t qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.

81
Q

What are the AIC colours?

A

White- Admin

Yellow- Operations/ATS

Pink- Safety

Mauve- UK restriction charts

Green- Maps/Charts

82
Q

What does notified mean?

A

Means that the information is in the AIP or in something that modifies the AIP such as a NOTAM

83
Q

What form is used to report on a possible breach of legislation regarding an a/c?

A

form 939

84
Q

What is the function of the AIS?

A

To collect, collate, edit and disseminate information necessary to the safety and efficiency of air navigation. Essentially creating a collated source for pre-flight information.

Sources include CAA, ANSPs AO’s etc

85
Q

What is the INO and what are its functions?

A

International NOTAM office

  • Preperation and issue of civil and military NOTAMs
  • Receiving and transmitting info from/to NOTAM offices
  • Dissemination of AIS data to enable the production of PIBs
86
Q

What are PIBS?

A

Pre flight information Bulletins

Edited versions of NOTAMS which simplify the pre-flight briefing process

They are distributed by AFTN to airfields who can have paper copies available to pilots.

They are also a continengency should the AIS go down.

87
Q

How often are PIBS updated?

A

Every four hours

88
Q

How long are PIBS valid for?

A

12 hours from when they are produced.

89
Q

What are the two types of notified documents?

A

AIP and NOTAMS

90
Q

What does the static data office?

A

With the AIP publications dept-

It maintains records of all aviation facilities in order to prepare the IAIP which consists of;-

  • AIP and amendment service (AIRAC/non-AIRAC permanent changes)
  • AIP supplements
  • AIC
91
Q

What is the IAIP?

A

Integrated Aeronautical Information Publication

Published with the authority of the state and contains information essential to air navigation, it includes notified and non-notified documents including;

  • AIP
  • AIRAC
  • AIC’s
92
Q

What is an AIRAC?

A

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

An update to the AIP which falls outside the scope of a NOTAM.

The information is published in a paper form and distributed by the AIS unit at least 42 days in advance of the effective date of change. It must reach recipients at least 28 days before the change becomes effective.

Major changes must be published at least 56 days prior to the effective date.

93
Q

What are the timescales for the publication of an AIRAC?

A

Must be distributed by the AIS unit at least 42 days prior to the change date and must be received by the receipients at lease 28 days prior to the change date.

Major changes must be published at least 56 days prior.

Effective days are always on a thursday.

94
Q

Layout of the AIS.

A
96
Q

What are AIC’s?

A

Aeronautical information circulars

Information that doesn’t qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.

97
Q

What are the AIC colours?

A

White- Admin

Yellow- Operations/ATS

Pink- Safety

Mauve- UK restriction charts

Green- Maps/Charts

98
Q

What are the different types of PIBs?

A

Route

Area

Narrow Route

Aerodrome

99
Q

What is ORS 1084

A

permits the commander of an aircraft during daylight hours to operate VFR within Class C, D and E airspace, when clear of cloud and insight of the surface with a flight visibility of at least 5 km for aircraft other than helicopters, and a flight visibility of at least 1,500 metres for helicopters. This permission does not enable commanders to transit the aerodrome traffic zone or active aerodrome traffic circuit of an aerodrome within Class C, D or E airspace under VFR whenever the ground visibility is less than 5 km for aircraft other than helicopters, and less than 1,500 metres for helicopters.