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UK ATC BASIC EU340 > UK ATM for Oral board > Flashcards

UK ATM for Oral board Flashcards

1
Q

What is an ATS?

A

Air traffic service

A generic term meaning variously;

  1. Air Traffic Control Service
  2. Air Traffic Advisory Service
  3. Flight Information Service
  4. Alerting Service
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2
Q

What is an Approach Control Service?

A

Where an ATC service is provided for controlled flights associated with arrival or departure

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3
Q

To whom do we provide an ATC service?

A
  • To all IFR in Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace
  • To all VFR flights in Class B, C and D airspace
  • All SVFR flights
  • All aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes.
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4
Q

What is a Flight Information Service?

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flights.

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5
Q

To whom do we provide a FIS?

A

to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:

– Provided with an ATC service, or

– Otherwise known to relevant Air Traffic Services units.

FIS does not relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft of any responsibilities and the pilot-incommand has to make the final decision regarding any suggested alteration of flight plan

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6
Q

What is an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A

-A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practicable, between aircraft operating on IFR flight plans.

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7
Q

What is advisory airspace?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available.

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8
Q

What is an advisory route?

A

A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.

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9
Q

Do controllers providing an ATAS have to coordinate?

A

Yes, excatly like controllers providing an ATC service.

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10
Q

What do IFR aircraft need before entering advisory airspace?

A

A FPL

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11
Q

What must an IFR flight do if crossing an advisory route?

A

Must cross at an angle that is 90° to the direction of the route.

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12
Q

What pertinent information is included in the provision of a FIS?

A
  • SIGMET and AIRMET information
  • Information concerning Pre-eruption volcanic activity, volcanic eruption and ash clouds
  • Information concerning the release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals
  • Information on changes in serviceability of Nav Aids
  • Information on changes in condition of aerodromes and associated facilities, including information on the state of the aerodrome movements areas when they are affected by snow, ice or significant deth of water
  • Information on unmanned free balloons
  • Any other information likely to affect safety

It shall also include

  • Weather conditions reported or forecast at dep. aerodrome, destination aerodrome and alternate aerodrome
  • Collision hazards to a/c operating in airspace classes C-G.
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13
Q

Where is Class C airspace found in the UK?

A

Everywhere above FL195

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14
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

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15
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

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16
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

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17
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

VFR and IFR

IFR require clearance to enter, VFR does not

IFR sep from IFR, tx info on VFR- avoidance advice given if requested

Participating VFR given Tx info on IFR and other VFR

IFR must comply with instructions

VFR pilots strongly encouraged to contact ATC and comply

VMC

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18
Q

What are Class E+ routes?

A

Same rules as for Class E airspace with the additional caveat that all aircraft must be equipped with transponders.

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19
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS, deconfliction advice may be provided

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

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20
Q

What class of airspace takes precedence when two different types join vertically

A

The lower class

This is to allow them to fly at that level without entering the CAS and comprising the safety of aircraft inside the CAS.

(a class G aircraft could fly as close to base of Class D as he wants so to ensure safety of those in Class D the boundary is treated as Class G and the A/C in class D would be kept away from it.)

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21
Q

Describe the vertical profile of the FIRS in the UK

A

FIR- from the surface to FL245

UIR- FL245 to FL660

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22
Q

What is an ATZ and describe its dimensions?

A

A volume of airspace established around an aerodrome for the proctection of aerodrome traffic.

From surface to 2000ft Above aerodrome level (height), centred on the midpoint of the longest runway.

If longest runway is 1850m or less than radius is 2nm otherwise its 2.5nm

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23
Q

Do civil ATZ’s still exist outside the notified hours of operation?

A

No

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24
Q

What class of Airspace are ATZ’s?

A

They adopt the same class as the airspace in which they sit.

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25
Q

What is a MATZ?

A

A military aerodrome traffic zone

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26
Q

What is the speed limit in the UK?

A

250kt IAS below FL100, except;

  • Flights in Class A & B airspace
  • IFR in Class C
  • VFR in Class C airspace if authorised by ATCU and MATS 2
  • Exempted flights in Class D airspace if authorised by ATCU and MATS 2
  • Test flights (specified conditions)
  • Flying displays when authorised by the CAA
  • A/C with CAA written permission
  • State A/C (military)
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27
Q

Is the ATZ inside a MATZ active 24hrs a day?

A

Yes

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28
Q

What is TRA(G)?

A

Temporary Reserved Area Gliders

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29
Q

What is RA(T)?

A

Temporary Restricted Airspace

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30
Q

What is a TDA?

A

Temporary Danger Area

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31
Q

What services compromise the UK’s suite of Flight Information Services?

A
  • Basic Service
  • Traffic Service
  • Deconfliction Service
  • Procedural Service
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32
Q

In addition to whatever service the ATCU is providing what other services are automatically provided?

A

An alerting service and a basic service

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33
Q

What is a basic service?

A

Similar to normal FIS however Traffic info is only provided if a definite risk of collision exists

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34
Q

What is a traffic service?

A

Traffic identified using surveillance systems and traffic information given wherever possible.

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35
Q

What is a deconfliction service?

A

As per traffic service but IFR only however advice and information given to enable pilots to avoid other traffic. Based on ATCO workload and other limitations.

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36
Q

What is a procedural service?

A

A non surveillance based service to IFR only advice and info given to enable pilots to avoid other participating IFR traffic, and traffic information on known BS traffic where a confliction exists.

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37
Q

Do you as the controller offer the best service?

A

No, only provide the service requested by the pilot.

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38
Q

What is a Regional Pressure Setting?

A

The lowest forecast QNH in an ASR made available hourly for H+1 and H+2

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39
Q

How many Altimeter Setting Regions are there in the UK?

A

20

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40
Q

When should an ATCO pass the RPS?

A
  1. When requested
  2. At the discretion of the controller
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41
Q

Define the Transition Altitude

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. The transition altitude is located at a fixed level and published in aeronautical information publications.

Unless otherwise notified the TA is 3,000ft in the UK

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42
Q

Define the Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. (from 2017 at least 1000 feet courtesy of SI 2016/01)

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43
Q

What level is the Transition Altitude normally in the UK?

A

Unless otherwise notified its 3,000ft

However normally 5,000 or 6,000ft in CAS

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44
Q

When is vertical position controlled with reference to FL?

A

When at or above the Transition Level or climbing through it.

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45
Q

When do we control vertical position with reference to altitude?

A

When at or below the transistion altitude or descending below it.

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46
Q

Define an alerting service

A

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding an a/c in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.

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47
Q

To whom do we provide an Alerting service?

A

Alerting service shall be provided to all aircraft known by ATCU’s to be operating within UK FIR’s

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48
Q

Who acts as the focal point for collating info re an A/C in need of SAR aid?

A

FIC or ACC shall serve as the central point for collecting all information relevant to a state of emergency of an aircraft operating within the FIR or control area concerned and for forwarding such information to the appropriate aeronautical rescue coordination centre (ARCC).

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49
Q

If a state of emergency arises to an aircraft while under ADI or APS control what happens?

A

The ATC unit will notify the ACC/FIC who will in turn notify the ARCC (Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre). They do not need to do this though if the nature of the emergency is such that the notification is unnecessary.

Even if the ARCC is not notified the unit shall alert and take other necessary steps to set in motion all appropriate local rescue and emergency organisations which can give the immediate assistance required.

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50
Q

Who is responsible initiating action?

A

Normally rests with the unit last in communication with the a/c or that which receives outside information from an outside source.

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51
Q

What are the phases of emergency?

A

Emergency Phase- A generic term meaning as the case may be;

1. Uncertainity Phase- Situation wherein doubt exists as to the safety of an a/c or a marine vessel and of the persons on board.

2. Alert Phase- Situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c or marine vessel and of the persons on board.

3. Distress Phase- Situation wherein there is a reasonable certainity that a vessel or other craft, including an a/c or a person on board, is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

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52
Q

What is the distress phase of an emergency?

A

A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.

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53
Q

What is the uncertainity phase of an emergency?

A

–When no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or…

– from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier, or…

– when an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA last notified to or estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later, except…

– when no doubt exists as to the safety of the aircraft an its occupants.

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54
Q

What is the alert phase of an emergency?

A

– When following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft, or…

– When an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft, or…

  • When information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, except…
  • When evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, or…
  • When an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
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55
Q

What is the distress phase of an emergency?

A

When following the alert phase, further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress, or…

  • When the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety, or…
  • When information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or…
  • When information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing, except…
  • When there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.
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56
Q

What is the distress condition?

A

Distress A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.

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57
Q

What is the urgency condition?

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

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58
Q

Name three types of SAR units and who coordinates them?

A
  1. Coastguard
  2. Mountain Rescue Teams
  3. Civilian Police

Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre (ARCC)

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59
Q

Describe the organisation of SAR services in the UK

A
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60
Q

What are the distress frequencies in the UK?

A

121.5 MHz- most of UK above 3,000ft, based at Swanwick (D&D)

243MHz for Military

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61
Q

What does squawk 7700 mean?

A

Emergency

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62
Q

What does squwak 7500 mean?

A

Hijack/unlawful interference

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63
Q

What does squwak 7600 mean?

A

Comms failure.

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64
Q

What is an ELT?

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter

Transmits on 406MHz used for locating an aircraft in distress (older ones use 121.5 or 243 MHz but these frequencies are not monitored for these)

65
Q

What is an EPIRB?

A

Emergency Position Indicator Radio Beacon

For maritime distress

66
Q

What is a PLB?

A

Personal Locator Beacon

67
Q

What are your responsibilities as an aerodrome controller when you become aware of an aircraft in need of SAR aid?

A

Immediately set in motion local emergency services

Notify watch supervisor at parent ACC

68
Q

What are the stages of coordination?

A

The coordination and transfer of control of a flight between successive ATC units and control sectors shall be effected by a dialogue comprising the following stages:

1) notification of the flight in order to prepare for coordination, as necessary;
2) coordination of conditions of transfer of control by the transferring ATC unit;
3) coordination, if necessary, and acceptance of conditions of transfer of control by the accepting ATC unit; and
4) the transfer of control to the accepting ATC unit or control sector

69
Q

What is Coordination?

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.

Effected when the parties concerned on the basis of known intelligence, agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining and ensuring implementation may be vested in one of the ATCOs.

70
Q

What is tactical coordination?

A

Tactical Co-ordination

For individual aircraft provided with, or are about to be provided with, an ATS. Achieved either verbally (face-toface or over a landline) or silently using an electronic aid.

71
Q

What is standing coordination?

A

Standing Co-ordination

Co-ordination which is implemented automatically, on a permanent basis, without communication between the controllers involved. (Achieved by written agreement, and is only valid for those aircraft and circumstances specified in MATS Pt 2)

72
Q

What is transfer of control?

A

Achieved when a flight operating in accordance with the co-ordination has reached agreed position, level or time.

This can take place at;

  • Agreed reporting point
  • On estimate for FIR boundary
  • At or passing an agreed level
  • Climbing or descending to agreed level-providing standard separation exists
73
Q

Why would transfer of communication take place before transfer of control?

A

So that instructions which become effective later can be issued.

74
Q

How do we deal with formations outside CAS?

A

Consider formation as a single unit for separation purposes (Subject to MATS1 S1 Ch4)

Callsign of leader and number in formation on FPL but ensure pilot confirms number on initial contact.

Allocate a discrete code to lead aircraft. Others squawk standby. Also to last aircraft if stream extends 3nm or more.

During Coordination, traffic information and handover messages state number of aircraft in formation and identify full extent of any formation of more than 1nm in length.

75
Q

How do we deal with formations inside CAS?

A

Civil and mil formations may transit, arrive and depart in CTA’s, CTR’s, and TMA’s without NSF approval and subject to MATS S1 Ch4 and AIP ENR1.1.14

Consider as non RVSM compliant.

All aircraft will monitor relevant ATC frequency.

Prior to entering CAS obtain confirmation all aircraft within parameters of MATS S1 Ch4, if not remain clear.

If climbing or descending, ensure all aircraft have vacated the level.

Formation leader should confirm when all aircraft have reached an assigned level.

76
Q

When are Gliders allowed inside CAS?

A

Under certain circumstances exempt from RoA Rule29, glider pilots may request a clearance for flight in CAS. Glider flights of over four hours and in excess of 100 miles are common utilising lift from thermals and ridges with constant deviations and rapid level changes. Controllers must decide whether the flight is compatible with the current traffic situation if not possible to issue clearance immediately advise pilot when clearance is likely to be granted.

77
Q

Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.

A

Aircraft in emergency

Aircraft which have declared a police emergency

Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.

78
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.

A

Police flights under normal operational priority

Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops

Post accident flight checks

Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights

79
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status

A

Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement

80
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.

A

Flights carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers.

81
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.

A

Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks

HEMS flights positioning for the purposes of their duties

Other flights authorised by the CAA

82
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.

A

Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests

83
Q

What flight category are training and non standard flights?

A

Class Z

84
Q

When is a police aircraft likely to declare a police emergency and what category would this make the aircraft?

A

In situations where an immediate response is required where the safety of life is at immediate risk or a serious crime or major incident is in progress. Class A

85
Q

What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?

A

Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A

Cat B- Normal operational priority

Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc

86
Q

What call sign will UK police used and what will be added to denote the Flight being Cat A?

A

UKP- “Police” A will be suffixed to call sign

87
Q

What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?

A

Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved.

They can operate as;

Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks

Cat E when positioning for its duties

Cat Z when training, testing etc.

88
Q

What is the call sign for a he Helimed flight?

A

HLE- “Helimed” Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.

89
Q

How is information on a Royal flight disseminated?

A

By a notification message on a Royal flight collective, giving full details. Information on the establishment of CAS-T including vertical limits is promulgated by NOTAM.

90
Q

What are the dimensions of a formation?

A

1nm longitudinally and laterally and 1,000ft within the formation leader- Military

0.5nm longitudinally and laterally and 1,000ft within the formation leader- Civil

91
Q

What is MARSA?

A

Military Accept responsibility for Separation

This is the name given to the fact that the responsiblity for separation between a/c comprising a formation rests with the formation leader.

92
Q

How are squawks and instructions passed to formations?

A

To the formation leader as the formation is treated as one unit.

93
Q

What suffix is applied to foreign formations?

A

“Flight”

Eg Deadly 31 flight

94
Q

How do Callsigns work regarding formations?

A

UK formations

Blackcat= a UK formation

Blackcat 1= a single element from that formation

USAF or foreign formations

Deadly 31= a single a/c

Deadly 31 flight= Formation.

95
Q

If an aircraft was Non deviating status what flight Cat would you expect it to be and what is important about it?

A

B

Important that it is not deviated from its flight path

96
Q

When may standard separation be reduced?

A
  • May be reduced when authorised by the CAA and published in MATS Pt2.
  • Reduced separation in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  • Search and Rescue escorts- Standard Separation maybe reduced when escorting in an emergency
  • When climbing/descending in VMC
97
Q

When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when:

  • ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation
  • Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.)
  • Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
98
Q

What are the conditions for climb or descent in VMC?

A

When climbing/descending in VMC when;

  • Essential Traffic Information is passed
  • the pilot agrees to maintain his own separation from other a/c and the maneuver is agreed by the pilot of the other a/c;
  • it is during the hours of daylight;
  • the aircraft is flying in VMC;
  • In Class D, E, F* and G* (*UK difference) airspace at or below FL100
99
Q

What does essential Traffic information contain?

A
  • Direction of flight
  • Type of conflicting aircraft.
  • Cruising level of conflicting ACFT & ETA for Reporting Point. Or for aircraft passing through levels, ETA Reporting Point nearest where aircraft will cross levels.
  • Any alternative clearance.

“Essential traffic information, a (direction of flight) (a/c type), maintaining/climbing to/descending to (level) estimating (position) at (time), (any alternative clearance)”

100
Q

What conditions may a controller impart on a level change instruction?

A

Aircraft may be instructed to change level at a specified time, place or rate.

101
Q

Under what conditions may an a/c be instructed to climb/descend to a level previously occupied by another a/c?

A

An aircraft may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft provided that:

  • Vertical separation already exists. or;
  • Vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level which will maintain vertical separation, & either:
  1. Controller observes vacating aircraft has left the level, or
  2. Pilot has reported vacating the level.
102
Q

What is radar separation?

A

Horizontal Separation based on radar exists when the distance between the centres of the radar returns does not represent less than the prescribed minimum, provided that the returns do not touch or overlap.

103
Q

What shall you do in the event of a loss of separation?

A
  • Use every means to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay
  • When considered practicable pass traffic info (when using RADAR) otherwise pass Essential Traffic Info.

Separate then inform!!!

104
Q

How would you pass Essential Traffic Information as per CAP413?

A

“Essential traffic information, a (direction of flight) (a/c type), maintaining/climbing to/descending to (level) estimating (position) at (time), (any alternative clearance)”

105
Q

How are levels assessed using Mode C?

A
  1. An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200 feet or less from that level;
  2. An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400 feet or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;
  3. An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400 feet or more and continuing in the required direction;
  4. An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C readouts indicate 200 feet or less from that level.
106
Q

What are the types of Horizontal separation?

A
  • Longitudinal
  • Lateral
  • RADAR
107
Q

What is an ERP?

A

Exact reporting Point

Established;

  • Overhead a VOR or NDB
  • Intersection of 2 VOR radials
  • Intersection of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
  • Range and radial from a co-located or associated VOR/DME
108
Q

Why do we apply longitudinal separation?

A

Longitudinal separation shall be applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft being separated is never less than the prescribed minima

109
Q

How can Longitudinal Separation be applied?

A

Distance or time;

  • Depart at a specified time
  • To lose time to arrive over a geographical point at a specified time
  • To hold over a geographical location until a specified time
110
Q

What are the UK definitions of same, recipricol and crossing tracks?

A
  • ‘Same track’ when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°;
  • ‘Reciprocal track’ when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°;
  • ‘Crossing track’ intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’
111
Q

What are the times for longitudinal separation of departing a/c and what are the conditions? (MATS 1)

A

1 min- If the a/c are flying on different tracks separated by at least 45°. Minima may be reduced if using lateral runways which do not cross, procedure must be approved and lateral separation must be effected immediately after take off.

2 min- For tracks not separated by 45° provided that the preceding a/c is 40kts or more faster and neither aircraft is cleared to execute a manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 min separation between them.

5 min- Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.

5 min- Provided that 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the a/c will be subesequently separated either;

1) Vertically
2) by Tracks which diverte by 30° or more; or
3) by radar
* Only to be used at locations approved by CAA*

10 min

112
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft flying on the same track and same level according to MATS 1?

A

2 min Provided 2 min departure sep has been applied

3 min When specifically authorised by the CAA and both aircraft are;

1) equipped with functioning transponders and;
2) both aircraft are continuously monitored by RADAR and the actual distance between them is never less than 20nm.

5 min Provided preceding aircraft has filed an air speed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.

5 min when specifically authorised by the CAA provided both aircraft are;

1) equipped with functioning transponders and;
2) monitored by RADAR and the actual distance between them is never less than 30nm.

10 min otherwise

113
Q

What is the time based longitudinal separation we apply between an aircraft departing and those already en-route?

A

10mins

5 mins provided

  • En-route a/c is 20kt or more faster,
  • En-route a/c has reported over an ERP where departing traffic joins the route and
  • Departing traffic instructed to arrive at that point 5 mins behind en-route aircraft.
114
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft climbing or descending through levels when flying on the same track according to MATS 1?

A

5 min Provided that the level change is commenced within 10 mins of the time the aircraft has reported over the same exact reporting point.

10 min

115
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft Crossing tracks according to MATS 1?

A

10 min

116
Q

What are the time based longitudinal separations for aircraft flying on recipricol tracks according to MATS 1?

A

10 min before and after estimated passing time

Vertical separation shall be provided for at least 10 mins both prior to and after the estimated time of passing unless it has been confirmed that the aircraft have actually passed each other by;

1) ATS surveillance system information
2) Visual reports from both pilots (day only)
3) Aircraft reports over the same ERP provided vertical separation is maintained for sufficient time to take into account navigational errors

117
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track and level in the UK?

A

Same level;

15nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster and both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN

20nm When the leading a/c is 20kts TAS or more faster

20nm when both a/c are within 100nm of a DME/TACAN

25nm otherwise

118
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on the same track when climbing and descending in the UK?

A

Climbing or descending on the same track

15nm at the time that the levels are crossed

119
Q

What are the distance based longitudinal separations for a/c on recipricol tracks in the UK?

A

Recipricol Tracks

40nm unless both a/c have been established as having crossed each other and are at least 10nm apart, if within 100nm of a DME/TACAN this may be further reduced to 5nm

120
Q

Why do we apply Lateral Separation?

A

so that the distance between those portions of the intended routes for which aircraft are to be laterally separated is never less than an established distance to account for navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer.

• This buffer shall be determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima as an integral part thereof

If Nav equipment fails or capability detoriates then Pilot must inform ATC

121
Q

How is Lateral Separation established?

A

By requiring aircraft to operate;

– On different routes, or

– In different geographical locations as determined by:

  • Visual observation, or
  • By use of navigation aids, or
  • By use of area navigation (RNAV) equipment
122
Q

Whom do we separate in Class A airspace and who is allowed in it?

A

IFR only

All flights separated

123
Q

Whom do we allow in Class C airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR and VFR

IFR separated from IFR and VFR

VFR separated from IFR, TI given on other VFR

124
Q

Whom do we allow in Class D airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR/SVFR and VFR

IFR separated from IFR, TI on VFR

VFR given TI on IFR and other VFR

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

125
Q

Whom do we allow in Class E airspace and what are the separations?

A

IFR and VFR

IFR separated from other IFR, given TI on participating and non participating VFR traffic

Participating VFR traffic given TI on IFR and other participating and non partcipating VFR flights, BS

126
Q

What is geographical separation in the UK?

A

• Positive position reports over different geographical locations - specified as being separated (MATS Pt2).

127
Q

What are the UK lateral separations using a VOR and co-located/associated DME/TACAN?

A

Both a/c diverging

  • Must be on tracks diverging by more than 20° and one of the a/c must be at least 15miles from the VOR/DME/TACAN
  • If diverging by 45° or more than they are separated straight away.

Both a/c converging

-Tracks must have a difference of at least 20° and one of the a/c must be at least 30miles from the VOR/DME/TACAN

When on a/c inbound other is outbound

-Tracks must have a difference of at least 20° and the inbound a/c must be at least 30nm from the VOR or the outbound a/c must be 20nm from the VOR/DME/TACAN.

128
Q

When using a bearing from an NDB what are the UK track lateral separations?

A

When both a/c diverging

-Tracks must be separated by 30° or more and one aircraft must be the time equivalent of 15miles or 4 mins from the NDB, whichever is greater.

129
Q

What are the UK wake turbulence categories?

A

Super- Over 136,000kg

Heavy- 136,000Kg or more

Medium;

Uppermedium- 136,000-104,000kg

Lower medium- 104,000kg-40,000kg

Small- 40,000-17,000kg

Light- 17,000kg or less.

130
Q

What wake turbulence category is used on FPL’s

A

ICAO ones not UK, to comply with PANS-ATM

131
Q

What are the wake turbulence distances for a/c on final approach?

A
132
Q

When using DME’s to establish separation what is the minimum range the aircraft must be from the DME?

A

15nm,

within this range slant error makes the reading too unreliable therefore any aircraft within 15nm must be treated as if it is 15nm away.

For example if Aircraft A is outbound from a DME passing 17 miles what range can a following aircraft be instructed to climb through the first ones level? The first a/c must be 30nm because even though only 15nm is needed between them the second aircraft will be treated as if it is 15nm until it actually reaches there, therefore the first aircraft must be 30nm for the requisite 15nm to exist.

133
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate?

A

H behind J= 2 mins

L/M behind H= 2 mins

L behind S/M= 2mins

L, S & M behind J= 3 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

134
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when intermediate?

A

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

135
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c heading in opposite directions?

A

L/M following H= 2 mins

L following M= 2 mins

L/M following J= 3 mins

  • Departing on the opposite runway heading.
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on the same runway. or;
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
136
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?

A

Arr L/S/M behind a H dep= 2mins

Arr L behind M/S dep= 2mins

Arr H behind J dep= 2mins

Arr L/S/M behind J dep= 3 mins

or

Dep L/S/M behind a H arr= 2mins

Dep L behind a S/M arr= 2mins

Dep H behind a J arr= 2mins

Dep L/S/M behind J arr= 3mins

If projected flight paths are expected to cross.

137
Q

What wake turbulence separations do we apply for an a/c on a touch and go behind a departing a/c?

A

The same as an intermediate departure

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

138
Q

What wake turbulence is applied for aircraft departing or arriving behind another on a low approach and go-around?

A

For wake turbulence separation purposes, aircraft carrying out a touch-and-go or a low approach shall be considered as making a departure from an intermediate point on the runway

139
Q

For departing wake turbulence what do we treat Smalls as?

A

A medium a/c

so a small departing behind an uppermedium requires no wake turbulence separation.

140
Q

What is the phraseology for wake turbulence for those following a heavier aircraft?

A

Caution wake turbulence, recommended distance is xxx miles.

141
Q

What is the phraseology for wake turbulence for a/c waiting to depart?

A

Hold position. x mins delay due wake turbulence.

142
Q

What does Free Call mean?

A

Establish comms with, your details have not been passed

143
Q

What does contact mean?

A

Establish comms with, your details have been passed

144
Q

When are non standard phrases permitted?

A

One when there is no standard phrasing

145
Q

What does the prefix student denote on a callsign?

A

Tha the pilot is a solo student

146
Q

How would you abbreviate Callsign BAW002?

A

You can’t

147
Q

How would you abbreviate Reg GDFRM?

A

G-RM

148
Q

How would you abbreviate N81247?

A

N-247

149
Q

How would you abbreviate QANTAS DGRN?

A

Qantas RN

150
Q

How would you abbreviate N767UA?

A

N-7UA

151
Q

How would you abbreviate PIPER GBSZT?

A

Piper ZT

152
Q

When someone asks to converse with you how do you respond?

A

Pass your message

153
Q

How do you instruct an aircraft to climb to a FL

A

Climb FL

NO TO!!!!

To is only included in climb/descents to a height or altitude.

154
Q

How would you pass windshear to an a/c?

A

At (time) a departing/arriving (a/c type) reported windshear at (altitude). Airspeed loss/gain (no.)kt, strong left/right drift”

155
Q

What services do you give as an aerodrome controller?

A

Basic

Alerting

Air Traffic Control

156
Q

What type of traffic information is given as part of a basic service?

A

Generic Traffic Information

157
Q

According to MATS 1 to whom can we provide a Deconfliction Service and when?

A

IFR a/c in any Met conditions

Not to VFR

158
Q

What is the transition level?

A

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude, will be at least 1,000ft from the TA.

UK ATC BASIC EU340 (20 decks)

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