Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

UK ATC BASIC EU340 > Law 02 > Flashcards

Law 02 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of an aerodrome?

A

A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or on a fixed, fixed off-shore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of an Apron?

A

A defined area on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for the purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking or maintenance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of a manoeuvring area?

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c. Excluding aprons.

EU 923/2012 and Cap 493

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the definition of a runway?

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and tak-off of a/c.

Indicator is derived from the magnetic heading rounded to the nearest ten and abbreviated to two digits.

EU 923/2012 and CAP 493

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define a taxiway

A

A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of a/c and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another including;

  • Apron taxiways
  • Taxilane
  • Rapid exit taxiways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an apron taxiway?

A

A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a taxilane?

A

A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide acess to a/c stands only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define a rapid exit taxiway

A

A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimising runway occupancy times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What considerations are there for runway selection?

A
  • Surface wind (or 2,000ft wind)
  • Traffic pattern
  • Runway lengths, declared distances
  • Availability of approach aids
  • Maneouvring area serviceability
  • Aerodrome lighting
  • Weather
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of a movement area?

A

That part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft including the manoeuvring area, aprons and any part of the aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two mandatory position reports in the circuit?

A

Downwind (at the upwind end of the runway)

Final.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the different types of aerodromes?

A
  • Civil
  • Military (sometimes called government)
  • International Aerodromes (those that have customs based there for foreign flights)
  • Regional aerodromes (commercial flights within the same territory).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define a Danger Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

Invariably military in nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define a restricted area.

A

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land or territorial waters of a state, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define a prohibited area.

A

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land or territorial waters of a state within which the flight or aircraft is prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is small arms range?

A

A range where smalls arm firing takes place, this is not normally hazardous to aircraft but they are still advised to remain above 500ft above these.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are air to air refueling areas.

A

Large areas where air to air refueling takes place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define an Aerial Tactics Area.

A

Airspace of defined dimensions designated for air combat training within which high energy manoeuvres are practiced by aircraft formations.

Pilots of non reporting aircraft that are forced to travel through these areas must maintain a good look out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define a Military Training Area.

A

An area of upper airspace of defined dimensions within which intense military flying training takes place.

It is not possible to provide civil air traffic control service in MTA’s during published hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define a HIRTA

A

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area

Airspace of defined dimensions within which there is radio energy of an intensity which may cause interference with, and on rare occasions damage to, communications and navigation equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an AIAA?

A

Area of intense aerial activity

Airspace of defined dimensions within which aircraft, either singly or in combination with others, regularly participate in unusual manoeuvres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where would pilots obtain details of activity of danger, prohibited areas etc?

A

From the ATSU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the scales for aeronautical charts?

A

Aeronautical Charts ICAO= 1:500,000

Topographical Charts= 1:250,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the definition of a holding procedure?

A

A predetermined maneouvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace whilse awaiting further clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe a standard holding pattern.
26
What is a holding fix?
A point over a NAV aid or defined as an intersection of VOR radials or as a VOR/DME position. What the hold is based on.
27
What is the holding axis?
The required inbound track to the holding fix. If this is defined by VOR radials, then the axis must lie on one of the radials although it may be orientated towards or away from the relevant VOR.
28
What is the standard time measurement for each holding leg?
1 minute, increases to 1.5 minutes above 14,000ft
29
What is the standard turn rate in a holding pattern?
3°/sec or 25° of bank, whichever of these requires the lower angle of bank.
30
Are holding pattern legs limited only by time?
no ## Footnote They may also be limited by DME ranges or VOR radials.
31
What are the aircraft approach category speeds?
**A** less than 91kts IAS **B** 91-120kts IAS **C** 121-140kts IAS **D** 141-165kts IAS **E** 166-210kts IAS
32
What are approach category speeds based on?
based on nominal VAT (speed over the threshold) which is **1.3x the stalling speed of the aircraft at maximum certificated landing mass.**
33
Describe the offset holding pattern join procedure
No. 2 in picture 3 minutes join
34
Describe the parallel entry procedure
no. 1 in picture 3 minutes
35
Describe the direct entry join
no 3 in picture no time penalty in joining.
36
What factors can affect a holding pattern?
* Wind * Speed * Effect of level * Effect of navigation aid in use * Turbulence
37
Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with holding point procedures?
Pilot They must inform ATC if unable to conform with pattern.
38
What is an EAT?
Expected Approach Time ## Footnote A time at which to expect to leave the hold to commence an instrument approach. (normally the earliest time that an approach will be available).
39
To whom do we issue EAT's?
Those aircraft who will be subjected to a delay of 10 minutes or more.
40
What is an Expected Onward Clearance time?
Time to leave the hold to continue en-route.
41
What is the standard separation that an aircraft must maintain from a holding pattern?
5 minutes flying time from the flight path of those in the hold (ie 5 minutes from entire hold not just the holding fix).
42
What is a holding area?
An area drawn up and approved by the authority to provide separation from aircraft in the hold from aircraft outside the holding area.
43
What is a VRP?
Visual reporting point A geographical point over which a VFR aircraft can hold, they are used to assist controllers in integrating VFR traffic with IFR.
44
Can VFR aircraft hold over a VRP in uncontrolled airspace?
No This is because other VFR aircraft may use this point as a waypoint and arent necessarily talking to anybody.
45
For what flights are flight plans required?
- All flights to be provided with an ATC service - All IFR flight within advisory airspace - All flights within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority for the provision of Flight Information, Alerting and SAR services - All flights within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate coordination with the appropriate military units or ATSU's of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the state concerned - All flights across international boundaries - All flights planned to operate at night if leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome **SERA 4001**
46
What are the categories of flight plans?
- Full FPL - Repetitive flight plans - Abbreviated FPL- radio or phone booking, the minimum information needed for clearances.
47
For what flights may a pilot file a flight plan?
Any flight
48
What times before a flight must a FPL be issued?
- 60 mins before start or taxi clearance is requested. (in reality this is normally less than 30 mins) - 3 hours before EOBT for North Atlantic flights and flights subject to ATFM. - Airborne flight plans may incur a filing delay due ATCO workload- so these should be submitted at least 10 mins before entry to CAS. IFPS does not accept flight plans filed more than 120 hours in advance.
49
Who processes Airborne times and sends DEP messages?
- ATSU will normally process airborne time for a/c from their aerodrome and send DEP messages as required. - Where there is no ATSU it is the pilots responsibility to ensure his airborne time is passed to the ATSU with whom FPL is filed "responsible person".
50
What happens if an a/c fails to arrive at destination within 30 mins of ETA?
- Overdue action will be intiated. - At aerodromes where there is no ATSU on watch, the nominated "responsible person" must immediately advise the departure aerodrome in order that alerting service may be commenced by ATC.
51
When must a DEP message be passed?
- For IFR flights which go outside of the IFPS zone or outside CAS. - For all VFR flight plans as these are not covered by the IFPS.
52
What is the IFPS?
**Integrated Initial Flight Plan Processing System** ## Footnote - Part of Eurocontrol - Sole source for distribution of IFR/GAT FPL within Europe. - Does not cover VFR flights.
53
Who is ultimately responsible for IFR/GAT FPLS?
The pilot/ aircraft operator.
54
When must a FPL be submitted for a SVFR flight?
Full flight plan not normally required however; - A FPL is required if destination is to be informed, I is to be entered into item 8 of the FPL and any part of the route needing SVFR clearance shall be entered in item 15 designating the points at which you intend to enter or leave CTR and SVFR routeing withing the CTR. - Once in contact is unablle to accept flight in IMC pilot must inform ATC.
55
What is a flight plan?
Specified information provided to ATSU's relative to an intended flight or portion of flight of an aircraft.
56
How can a flight plan be submitted?
By booking out over the telephone Or full flight plan form (CA48)
57
What is a repetitive flight plan?
A scheme which is more convenient for organisations that need to file flight plans for flights that happen regularly.
58
What are the timings regarding repetitive flight plans?
The initial flight plan must be filed at 14 days before flight Revised submission must be done 7 days before flight Suspension of flights must be done by 3 days before the flight otherwise individual cancellations of flights will be necessary.
59
What is an abbreviated flight plan?
A flight plan that provides the limited information required to obtain a clearance (eg across CAS) for a portion of a flight filed either on the Radio of by telephone prior to take-off. Destination aerodrome will only be informed if the flight plan covers the whole route of the flight.
60
Who distributes the IFR GAT flight plan info within Europe?
IFPS
61
What is the maximum time before a flight that a flight plan can be submitted?
120 hours.
62
What is a chg message and what can it be used for?
Change to a flight plan Cannot be used to change; * A/C callsign * Dep aerodrome * EOBT * EOBD * Destination Aerodrome
63
What is a CNL message?
A cancellation message
64
What is a DLA message?
A delay message, can push an EOBT to a later time but to make it earlier the original FPL must be cancelled and refiled.
65
Can you change a FPL to an earlier time?
no must be cancelled and refiled
66
What is an ACK message
Message automatically accepted.
67
What is a SAM message?
Slot Allocation Message, aircraft has been issued with a CTOT.
68
What is a REA message?
Ready message Aircraft is ready for startup and can accept an earlier slot time. Can only be issued when CTOT causes more than 20 minutes delay.
69
What is a SRM message?
A slot revision message
70
What is a MAN message?
Message has been accepted pending manual intervention.
71
What is a REJ message?
FPL has been rejected, reason will be sent with REJ message.
72
What is a DEP message?
Departure time of aircraft
73
What is an ARR message?
Time of arrival of an aircraft.
74
What happens to FPL supplementary information if the Aircraft Operator is going to be closed before a/c's ETD + 1 hour?
They must pass the details to the ATSU, if no ATSU this must be sent to the ACC.
75
What happens to FPL supplementary information if the ATSU is going to be closed before a/c's ETD + 1 hour?
ATCO must pass details to the parent ACC.
76
When must an aircraft make position reports in controlled airspace?
Unless exempted flight shall report the time and level of passing each designated compulsory reporting point and any points requested by ATSU. If there are no designated points than reports must be passed at prescribed intervals.
77
When must an aircraft make position reports in un-controlled airspace?
Same as in CAS if ATSU is providing a FIS
78
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at FL100 or above in the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km
79
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km
80
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in controlled airspace during the day?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)
81
What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace in the day?
clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km
82
What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft or at or below 1,000ft above terrain (whichever is higher) in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?
Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.
83
What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft or at or below 1,000ft above terrain (whichever is higher) in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?
Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m (this may be as low as 800m providing the helicopter is travelling at a speed slow enough to see and avoid).
84
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km
85
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km
86
At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?
1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight Helicopters may reduce the flight visibility to 3km provided they travel at a reasonable speed.
87
What aircraft are exempt from VMC minima?
medical flights, SAR, firefighting
88
What does SERA 3205 say?
Aircraft shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
89
What are the procedures regarding SVFR within SERA 5010?
_Conditions applied by ATC:_ - By day only (unless authorised by the CAA-ORS 1125 permits SVFR at night in the UK in a **CTR**) - Clearances not to be issued when met conditions at A/D: .Ground visibility of less than 1500m (800m for Helis) .Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft. _Conditions applied by Pilots:_ - Clear of cloud with Surface in sight - Flight visibility not less than 1500m (heli 800m) - IAS of 140knots or less
90
What visibility is used to determine VMC at an aerodrome?
Ground vis
91
What visibility is used to determine VMC?
- In flight- Flight visibility - For flights to/from aerodromes or entering the ATZ or joining the circuit ground visiblity shall be used.
92
What is the SERA definition for night?
The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. Twilight begins and ends when the suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.
93
Who is responsible for determining whether the VMC allow VFR flight?
The pilot However for flights to or from an aerodrome or entering the ATZ or traffic circuit in controlled airspace the ground visibility shall be used.
94
What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?
Except when SVFR, VFR flights shall not; * take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR * or enter the ATZ * or traffic circuit When the reported MET conditions are below the following minima; * Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or * Ground vis less than 5,000m
95
What are the IFR minimum levels according to SERA 5015?
1. 2,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km when flying over high or mountainous terrain. 2. 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c Exceptions: -When taking off/landing -When specifically authorised by the competent authority
96
What are the VFR minimum levels during the day SERA?
**SERA 5005-** Must be 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600m when flying over a congested area except with permission of the CAA. - 500ft above the highest obstacle within 150m (500ft) or you can fly less than 500ft above the ground or water if you wish * Aircraft landing/ taking off are exempt from these minima.*
97
What are the VFR minimum levels at night SERA?
- 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c. - 2,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c when flying over high/mountainous terrain. * Except for aircraft taking off/landing*
98
What is the maximum level for VFR flight according to SERA?
* FL195 * VFR flights must not be operated at transonic or supersonic speeds ## Footnote *Unless authorised by the competent authority.*
99
What are the VFR cruising levels according to SERA appendix 3?
**Above 3,000ft** **AMSL** for Eastbound levels it is odd thousands +500ft For westbound levels it is even thousands +500ft up to FL285
100
What are the IFR cruising levels in SERA appendix 3?
**Above 3,000ft AMSL** Westbound= Even levels up to FL400 Eastbound= Odd levels up to FL410 Above FL410 all directions are odd with a vertical sep. of 2,000ft
103
When must a pilot fly IFR?
* When airspace is notified as Class A * Met conditions preclude VFR
104
What must a VFR pilot do when switching to IFR?
* If a FPL has already been submitted he merely needs to communicate the change * Must submit a FPL to the appropriate ATSU as soon as practicable and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.
105
How does a pilot change from an IFR flight?
He must cancel his IFR flight plan, only the pilot can do this. *The controller will reply "IFR flight planned cancelled at time..."*
106
What is the definition of an SVFR flight?
a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in met conditions below VMC.
107
Define a congested area
Any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes. Relates to towns cities or settlements
108
What maneouvres are defined as Aerobatics?
Loops Spins Bunts Stall turns Inverted flying etc... SERA 3130
109
When can you not file an VFR flight plan?
For an IFR flight in Class A airspace When flying over FL195 (due to VFR not being permitted above this level)
110
What vis is used for SVFR or VFR aircraft within a CTR?
Ground vis.
111
Above what level do Crusing levels apply?
3,000ft, AMSL
112
What type of service is provided at a controlled aerodrome?
An Aerodrome control service.
113
What is the first number of a danger area based on?
The latitude
114
What is a DME limiting distance designed to do?
To limit the outbound leg distance.
115
What are the 3 essential elements of risk management?
1. Hazard Identification 2. Risk assessment 3. Risk mitigation.

UK ATC BASIC EU340 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions