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UK ATC BASIC EU340 > Law 01 > Flashcards

Law 01 Flashcards

1
Q

What conference first agreed principles for regulation and between what years did it take place?

A

Paris conference of 1910-1918

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2
Q

What is ICAN and when was it formed?

A

International Commission for Air Navigation 1919 38 states ratified 43 articles

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3
Q

What gave rise to the supplementary agreements regarding Civil aviation and when did it occur?

A

Chicago convention 1944 with 52 states

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4
Q

What supplementary agreements did the Chicago convention come up with?

A

-International Air Services Transit Agreement Non commercial rights to transit airspace, established the first two freedoms of the air. -International Air Transport Agreement Established the other three freedoms of the air regarding carriage of passengers mail and cargo

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5
Q

What is the first freedom of the air?

A

The privelege to overfly without landing

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6
Q

What is the second freedom of the air?

A

The privelege to land for non-commercial reasons.

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7
Q

What is the third freedom of the air?

A

The privelege to put down passengers, mail and cargo taken on in the territory of registration of the aircraft.

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8
Q

What is the fourth freedom of the air?

A

The privelege to take on passengers, mail and cargo bound for the territory of registration of the aircraft.

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9
Q

What is the fifth freedom of the air?

A

The privilege to take on passengers, mail and cargo destined for the territory of any other contracting state and to put down passengers, mail and cargo coming from any such territory.

Essentially allowing you to pick up and put down anywhere outside the state of registration.

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10
Q

What is cabotage?

A

A state has the right to refuse permission to aircraft of another contracting state to take on passengers, mail and cargo inside its terriroty for renumeration or hire destined for another point within its territory. Basically a country can refuse the right for another to pick up pax mail and cargo at one point and fly it internally to another airport within the first countries territory (point to point internal flights).

Each contracting state agrees not to allow another states aircraft to conduct such flights exclusively. Either everyone is allowed to do these internal point to point flights or nobody can.

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11
Q

When was ICAO formed?

A

April 4th 1947

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12
Q

What are the aims and objectives of ICAO?

A
  1. Safe and orderly growth of int. Civil Aviation world wide
  2. A/C design for peaceful purposes
  3. Develop Airways, airports, Nav facilities, for int. Civil Aviation
  4. Promote safe, regular, efficient and economical air transport
  5. Prevent waste caused by unreasonable competition
  6. Ensure rights are respected and every state has right to operate int. airlines
  7. Avoid discrimination between states
  8. Promote flight safety
  9. Promote all aspects of Civil Aeronautics
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13
Q

What is the structure of ICAO?

A

Assembly

52 member states, overall authority

The Council 6 Committees

36 states, elected by assembly Appointed by & responsible to

to the council

Air Navigation Commission

11 technical divisions

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14
Q

What is the ANC?

A

Air Navigation Commission

Commission underneath the Committees with 11 technical committees of its own.

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15
Q

What are the 11 technical committees of the ANC?

A

AGA Aerodromes, Air routes, Ground Aids

AIG Accident investigation

AIS Aeronutical Information Service

COM Aeronautical Comms

MAP Aeronautical Charts

MET Meteorology

OPS Operation of A/C

SAR Search & Rescue

PEL Personnel Licensing

AIR Airworthiness

RAC Rules of the air and ATC

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16
Q

Who publishes SARPS and where are they written?

A

SARPS are written by the technical divisions and are written into the Annexes

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17
Q

What do SARPS cover?

A

They cover all technical and operational aspects of international civil aviation, such as safety, personnel licencing, operation of aircraft, aerodromes, ATS, accident investigation etc.

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18
Q

How many contracting states are there in ICAO?

A

52

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19
Q

What are SARPS?

A

Standard and Recommended Practices

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20
Q

What are standard practices?

A

Any specification the uniform application of which is agreed necessary for the safety or regularity of int. civil air navigation.

Differences must be lodged by member states with ICAO.

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21
Q

What are recommended practices?

A

Any specification the uniform application of which is agreed desirable for the safety or regularity of int air nav.

Differences are not lodged with ICAO.

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22
Q

Where are the SARPS laid down?

A

in the 19 ICAO annexes

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23
Q

What are the 19 ICAO annexes?

A
  1. Personnel Licencing
  2. Rules of the air
  3. Met. Services
  4. Aeronautical charts
  5. Units of measurement
  6. Int transport
  7. Aircraft nationality
  8. Airworthiness
  9. Facilitation
  10. Telecommunications
  11. ATS
  12. SAR
  13. A/C accident and incident investigation
  14. Aerodromes
  15. AIS
  16. Environmental Protection
  17. Security
  18. Safe transport of dangerous goods
  19. Safety management
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24
Q

Where can member states differences to the SARPS be found?

A

In the supplements to annexes

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25
Q

What is the content of an Annex?

A
  1. Definitions
  2. Standards
  3. Recommended Practices
  4. Appendices
  5. Attachments
  6. Supplement
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26
Q

What is ICAO annex 1?

A

Personnel Licencing

Used to write the standards relating to licensing of Pilots and controllers.

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27
Q

What is ICAO annex 2?

A

Rules of the air

Contains only standards

General rules for VFR and IFR flight which apply without exception over sea and land (provided they do not conflict with the rules of the state being overflown).

These are incorporated into MATS pt 1 and ANO in the UK

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28
Q

What is ICAO annex 11?

A

Air Traffic Services

Contains both standard and recommended practices.

Defines ATS and specifies the worldwide standards and recommended practices applicable in the provision of these services

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29
Q

How are the annexes amended?

A

ideas and proposals are first discussed at meetings at the assembly, these proposals are then sent to the ANC who then recommends to the council who decide whether to adopt or reject them.

Assembly discusses> ANC recommends> Council decides

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30
Q

How is the relationship between ICAO and the european organisations laid out?

A
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31
Q

What is the function of the AIS?

A

To collect, collate, edit and disseminate information necessary to the safety and efficiency of air navigation. Essentially creating a collated source for pre-flight information.

Sources include CAA, ANSPs AO’s etc

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32
Q

What is the INO and what are its functions?

A

International NOTAM office

  • Preperation and issue of civil and military NOTAMs
  • Receiving and transmitting info from/to NOTAM offices
  • Dissemination of AIS data to enable the production of PIBs
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33
Q

What are the NOTAM codes A-E for?

A

To let us know what type of information is contained within the NOTAM.

  • A= General, en-route nav and comm facilities, UIR airspace restrictions
  • B= Info on FIR airspace restrictions, activities and on other int. aerodromes where IFR flights are permitted
  • C= Info on VFR only aerodromes
  • D= Info on national aerodromes
  • E= Info on heliports
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34
Q

What are the three NOTAM types?

A
  • NOTAMN = New information
  • NOTAMR= replaces previous NOTAM
  • NOTAMC= Cancels previous NOTAM
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35
Q

What are PIBS?

A

Pre flight information Bulletins

Edited versions of NOTAMS which simplify the pre-flight briefing process

They are distributed by AFTN to airfields who can have paper copies available to pilots.

They are also a continengency should the AIS go down.

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36
Q

How often are PIBS updated?

A

Every four hours

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37
Q

How long are PIBS valid for?

A

12 hours from when they are produced.

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38
Q

What are the two types of notified documents?

A

AIP and NOTAMS

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39
Q

What is the AIP?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

A document which transposes ICAO SARP’s into national procedures, it breaks down how the country will do what ICAO mandates or recommends.

It also contains information of a lasting nature necessary for air navigation.

It is a notified document

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40
Q

What does the static data office?

A

With the AIP publications dept-

It maintains records of all aviation facilities in order to prepare the IAIP which consists of;-

  • AIP and amendment service (AIRAC/non-AIRAC permanent changes)
  • AIP supplements
  • AIC
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41
Q

What is the IAIP?

A

Integrated Aeronautical Information Publication

Published with the authority of the state and contains information essential to air navigation, it includes notified and non-notified documents including;

  • AIP
  • AIRAC
  • AIC’s
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42
Q

What ICAO document details the specifications for the AIS and which Annex does it relate to?

A

ICAO doc 8126

Annex 15

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43
Q

Where can the UK’s differences to Doc 4444, Regional Sups and the Annexes be found?

A

AIP, Gen 1.7

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44
Q

How are amendments to the AIP promulgated?

A

Permanent changes promulgated by CD and reprint which may contain AIRAC and Non-AIRAC changes.

Published every 28 days

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45
Q

What is an AIRAC?

A

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

An update to the AIP which falls outside the scope of a NOTAM.

The information is published in a paper form and distributed by the AIS unit at least 42 days in advance of the effective date of change. It must reach recipients at least 28 days before the change becomes effective.

Major changes must be published at least 56 days prior to the effective date.

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46
Q

What are the timescales for the publication of an AIRAC?

A

Must be distributed by the AIS unit at least 42 days prior to the change date and must be received by the receipients at lease 28 days prior to the change date.

Major changes must be published at least 56 days prior.

Effective days are always on a thursday.

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47
Q

Layout of the AIS.

A
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48
Q

What are PANS?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services

Specify in greater detail than the SARPS the actual procedures to be applied by ATSU’s in providing ATS.

They do not have the same status as SARPS.

DOC 4444 is the document used in ATC.

Annexes>SARPS> PANS> SUPPS

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49
Q

What is DOC 4444 PANS-ATM?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services- Air Traffic Management

Specifies in more detail how to apply the procedures in the SARPs and is therefore supplementary to the SARPs in Annex 2 and 11.

It is a recommended document but EU have enforced it applicability through 2015/340.

Supplementated by DOC 7030

ATC bible for this course.

How to Air Traffic!

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50
Q

What document contains the regional supplementary procedures?

A

ICAO doc 7030

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51
Q

What are SUPPS?

A

Regional Supplementary procedures

They indicate a way of implementing the provisions laid down in the Annexes and PANS but must not conflict with these. These SUPPS are recommended to contracting states for application in the groups of FIR’s to which they are relevant.

They do not have the same status as SARPS but can be adopted as SARPS

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52
Q

What are the types of Air Law?

A

Hard- Binding rules

Soft- Non-binding standards

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53
Q

What is a regulation?

A

A binding legislative applied across whole of EU

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54
Q

What are directives?

A

A legislative act that sets out a goal to achieve for EU member states allowing those states to determine their own course to that goal.

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55
Q

What is a decision?

A

binding on who it is addressed to.

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56
Q

What is a recommendation?

A

Non binding recommendation

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57
Q

What is an opinion?

A

The EU stating an opinion on something in a non binding fashion.

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58
Q

What is basic regulation EC no. 216/2008?

A

The first level of regulation that is binding in all elements.

It is the overiding regulation for adopting common safety rules and requires compliance with all implementing rules.

It empowers EASA to develop three types of soft law,

  • Certification specs
  • AMC
  • GM
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59
Q

What happens when a member state does not comply with the regulations immediately?

A

A derogation takes place within a limited timescale to allow the member state to achieve compliance or seek an acceptable alternative means with which the EU agrees.

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60
Q

What commission regulation concerns ATCO licencing?

A

EU 2015/340

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61
Q

Which commission regulation governs the Single European rules of the air?

A

EU 923/2012

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62
Q

What is EU 923/2012?

A

The commission regulation laying down the single European rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation.

Designed to achieve common rules of the air for all EU states.

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63
Q

To whom do SERA apply?

A
  • To every a/c in EU airspace regardless of registration
  • National authority may keep supplementary rules that compliment SERA
  • SERA may also permit routine operations and grant exemptions from the these rules.
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64
Q

What is Guidance material

A

What is says on the tin

it is material which provides guidance on the implementation of regulations from.

Produced by EASA

Proposes where relevant possible means of compliance (eg AMCs) and examples of good practices.

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65
Q

What are AMC’s?

A

Acceptable means of compliance

Standards adopted by EASA that allow a member state to comply with the regulations by the simple act of following this acceptable means (presumption of compliance). They are not legislative as a state can seek other means of compliance.

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66
Q

What is an AltMoC?

A

Alternative Acceptable Means of Compliance

A method of complying with the regulations proposed by a member state, EASA must agree that the compliance with the regulations has been achieved.

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67
Q

Legislative flow diagram

A
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68
Q

What are the mandatory descriptive words?

A

Shall,

Is to,

are to,

must

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69
Q

What is the permissive optional descriptive word?

A

May

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70
Q

What is the strongly advisable descriptive word?

A

Should

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71
Q

Describe the Gen sections of the AIP.

A
  • GEN 1- National requirements and regulations
  • GEN 2- Tables and codes
  • GEN 3- Services
  • GEN 4- Charges for Aerodromes/ heliports and ANS
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72
Q

What are SUPs in context of the AIP?

A

Supplments and Amendments

These are usually temporary in nature, they differ from NOTAMS in that they must be of operational significance and contain text and/or graphics.

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73
Q

How often are AIP SUP’s issued?

A

Every 28 days.

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74
Q

What are AIC’s?

A

Aeronautical information circulars

Information that doesn’t qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.

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75
Q

What are the AIC colours?

A

White- Admin

Yellow- Operations/ATS

Pink- Safety

Mauve- UK restriction charts

Green- Maps/Charts

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76
Q

What are the different types of PIBs?

A

Route

Area

Narrow Route

Aerodrome

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77
Q

What is ECAC?

A

European Civil Aviation Conference

Serves as a forum for all 44 member states to discuss every major aviation topic.

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78
Q

What are Air Navigation Services?

A

A term which encompases ATM, CNS (communications and survelliance systems), MET, SAR and AIS.

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79
Q

What does SERA 3205 say?

A

Aircraft shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

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80
Q

What does SERA say regarding formation flights?

A

Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except by prearrangement among the pilots-in-command and, for formation flights in CAS, in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the competent authority. Formation flights are treated as one aircraft for the purposes of control and coordination.

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81
Q

What is ORS4 1174 about?

A

The CAA’s exemptions to the minimum flight rules as specified in SERA 5005 and 5015, ie; -VFR a/c may be flown lower than 500ft provided it is not flown within 150m of any vessel, vehicle, person or structure. -IFR and VFR a/c may fly lower than the specified heights for landings and takeoff (including practice approaches).

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82
Q

What are the procedures for giving way according to SERA 3210?

A

-A/c giving way shall pass well clear and shall avoid passing over or under unless well clear. A/c with right of way shall maintain course and speed. -Converging a/c at the same altitude the one with the other on its right gives way except that power driven a/c give way to towed a/c.

Flying machines> Airships> Gliders> Balloons

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83
Q

According to SERA 3210 what is the order of Landing?

A
  • A/c Landing or on final approach has right of way over other a/c in flight or on the ground.
  • Lower a/c has right of way
  • A/c shall not overtake or cut in front of another a/c on final approach to land, unless ATC say so or there is an emergency.
  • At night, even if a/c has been cleared to land this a/c must go around if there is an emergency a/c behind unless ATC clear it to land again.
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84
Q

What is an ATZ?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.

2nm radius where runway length is less than 1850m otherwise 2.5nm

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85
Q

When and where are ATZs established?

A

Where= At aerodromes;

  • That are government controlled
  • An aerodrome having an ATC or AFIS unit
  • Licensed aerodromes having two way radio communication with a/c.

When=

  • At such times as notified
  • During notified hours of watch
86
Q

What is the definition of an SVFR flight and what are its conditions according to MATs 1?

A

Def= A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in met conditions below VMC

Conditions= -SVFR clearance is issued when requested by a pilot or when it is notified in the UK AIP for a particular op.

  • Before issuing such a clearance a controller must considerthe prevailing traffic conditions, the extent of the proposed flight and the availablity of air-ground comms.
  • SVFR flights are not to hinder normal IFR flights.
87
Q

How long are unit endorsements valid for?

A
  • 12 months
  • Extend for 12months as long as the ATCO has completed minimum hours as per the unit training plan.
88
Q

Give 3 examples reasons that may lead to action regarding an ATCO’s licence?

A
  • Deficiency in, or doubts about, the competence to provide an ATC service.
  • Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licece, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self control.
  • Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards.
89
Q

What are the mechanisms for licensing action?

A

a) Suspension- To place a licence, or its ratings in abeyance, with conditions set.
b) Revocation- The act of withdrawing a licence or its associated ratings.

Only the competent authority may revoke or suspend a licence.

90
Q

What is provisional inability?

A
  • Where a licence holder shall not exercise the privileges of their licence when having doubts about their ability to safely exercise those privileges. Must notify the ANSP of this provisional inability.
  • ANSPs may also declare provisional inability if they become aware of any doubt of the ability of the licence holder to safely exercise the privileges of the licence.
  • ANSPs shall develop and implement transparent and objective procedures to enable provisionally inable ATCO’s to exercise the privileges of a licence or to decalre their inability and limit the operational impact.
91
Q

What must an ATCO do if their licence is revoked?

A

Return it to the competent authority.

92
Q

How long are medical certificates valid for?

A

a) 24 months for controllers under 40 years of age
b) 12 months after 40 years.

For renewal and initial medicals validity period begins from day of assessment, for revalidations (these take place when licence is still active) it is from the date of the expiry of the first certificate.

93
Q

What is an ATS?

A

Air traffic service is a generic term meaning variously a;

  • Air Traffic Control Service
  • Flight information Service
  • Alerting Service
  • Air Traffic Advisory Service
94
Q

Define an Air Traffic Control Service?

A
  • 1.A service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between a/c, and on the manoeuvring area between a/c and obstructions;*
  • 2.and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of traffic. (EU 923/2012)*

Area

Approach

Aerodrome

95
Q

To whom do we provide an Air Traffic control service?

A
  • To all IFR a/c in Class A, B, C, D and E airspace
  • To all VFR a/c in Class B, C and D airspace
  • To all SVFR a/c
  • To all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
96
Q

What is a Flight Information Service?

A

A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.

  • weather
  • changes to serviciability of facilities
  • conditions at aerodromes
  • any other information pertinent to safety.
97
Q

What is an Air Traffic Advisory Service?

A

-A service provided within Class F airspace which provides information on collision hazards which is more effective than FIS.

Suggest to the aircraft a course of action by which a potential hazard may be avoided. Priority shall be given to an aircraft already in advisory airspace over other aircraft wanting to enter advisory airspace. Pass to aircraft information comprising the same information as that received by an area control service.

The advisory service does not:

• offer the same degree of safety, or assume the same responsibilities as an ATCS. The information available to the unit providing the advisory service may be incomplete The advisory service does not deliver “clearances” but only “advisory information”. It uses the words “advise” or “suggest” when a course of action is proposed to an aircraft.

98
Q

What are the objectives of an ATS?

A
  1. To prevent collisions between aircraft
  2. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  3. Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of Air traffic
  4. Provide advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight
  5. notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.
99
Q

What is the definition of a controlled aerodrome?

A

an aerodrome at which ATC service is provided to aerodrome traffic regardless of whether or not a control zone exists.

100
Q

Define Aerodrome traffic

A

All traffic on the maneouvring area of an aerodrome an all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome includes but is not limited to aircraft entering or leaving the aerodrome traffic circuit.

101
Q

To whom do we provide FIS?

A

Shall be provided by the appropriate ATSU’s to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are;

  • provided with an ATC service; or
  • otherwise known to the relevant ATSU’s
102
Q

Define an FIR

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which FIS and alerting services are provided.

103
Q

What is an alerting service?

A

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding a/s in need of SAR aid and to assist such organisations as required.

Can be provided by anyone.

104
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

105
Q

Describe class B airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

Everybody seperated.

VMC applies

106
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

107
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

108
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

VFR and IFR

IFR require clearance to enter, VFR does not

IFR sep from IFR, tx info on VFR- avoidance advice given if requested

Participating VFR given Tx info on IFR and other VFR

IFR must comply with instructions

VFR pilots strongly encouraged to contact ATC and comply

VMC

109
Q

Describe Class F airspace

A

Advisory service to participating flights

IFR and VFR

IFR are required to FPL before entry

no clearances required

Participating IFR expected to comply with advice

FIS provided on request

Advice provided in presence of essential tx info and pass course of action

“suggest” and “advise”

110
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

111
Q

What class of airspace takes precedence when two different types join vertically

A

The lower class

This is to allow them to fly at that level without entering the CAS and comprising the safety of aircraft inside the CAS.

(a class G aircraft could fly as close to base of Class D as he wants so to ensure safety of those in Class D the boundary is treated as Class G and the A/C in class D would be kept away from it.)

112
Q

Define a CTR

A

Control Zone, Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control zone and which extends from the surface. No standard dimensions.

Extends at least 5nm from the centre of the aerodromes concerned

113
Q

Define CTA

A

Controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards from a notified altitude or flight level.

Minimum 700ft AGL base.

114
Q

Define an Airway

A

A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor. 10 miles wide

We’ve been told its 5 miles high too so learn that.

115
Q

Define an ATS route

A

An ATS route is a designated route for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services.

116
Q

What is a TMZ

A

A Transponder Mandatory Zone is airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of pressure altitude reporting transponders is necessary.

117
Q

What is an RMZ?

A

A Radio Mandatory Zone is airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is Mandatory.

VFR flights in Class E, F or G RMZ’s and IFR flight in F or G RMZ’s shall maintain RTF watch and establish comms as prescribed.

There are requirements to enter covered in another slide.

118
Q

Define a TMA

A

Terminal Control Area

A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.

Roundabout

119
Q

What are conditional routes?

A

ATS routes useable only under specified conditions.

3 types;

  1. CAT 1- A route which is permanently plannable during the times published.
  2. CAT 2- only plannable in accordance with the conditions in daily airspace utilisation plan
  3. CAT 3- A route not plannable but may be used tactically at the discretion of ATC

Can have more than one category.

120
Q

What is Direct Route Airspace?

A

Airspace in which ATS routes are removed and navigation directly between any two points is permitted.

Free routing that this allows cuts down on CO2 emissions.

121
Q

Define a TRA

A

Temporary Reserved Area

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use of another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit under ATC clearance.

122
Q

Define a TSA

A

Temporary Segregated Area

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.

123
Q

What is required before entering an RMZ?

A

Before entry A/C must make a call on the appropriate comms channel declaring his;

Callsign, Type, position, level, and intentions.

124
Q

What is the speed limit?

A

A/C must not fly faster than 250kts IAS below FL100, unless;

  • In Class A or B airspace
  • IFR in Class C
  • VFR in Class C
  • Or any flights in Class D, E, F & G if authorised by the competent authority or dues to safety or technical reasons.
125
Q

What are the Rating endorsements?

A
  • TWR- Tower Control
  • AIR- Air Control
  • GMC- Ground movement Control
  • GMS- Ground Movement Survelliance
  • RAD- Radar Control
  • PAR- Precision Radar Approach
  • SRA- Survelliance Radar Approach
  • TCL- Terminal Control
  • OCN- Oceanic Control
126
Q

What must an ATCO do if their licence is revoked?

A

Return it to the competent authority.

127
Q

Within what time period must occurences be reported?

A

72 hours

128
Q

What is a provisional suspension?

A
  • A temporary measure with possible restrictions
  • Also possible to vary a licence or associated rating(s) by applying conditions or limitations.
129
Q

What is the maximum time in advance a FPL can be submitted?

A

120 hours

130
Q

What are the priveleges of a Student ATCO licence?

A

Holders shall be authorised to provide ATC services under the supervision of an OJTI in accordance with their ratings and endorsements contained within the licence.

131
Q

What requirements are there to hold a student licence?

A
  • Must be 18 years old
  • Must have successfully completed initial training at a training organisation relevant to the rating and endorsements
  • Hold a valid medical
  • Have demonstrated ICAO language proficiency lv 4.
132
Q

What requirements are there to apply for a full ATCO licence?

A

Must hold a student ATCO licence

Must have successfully completed a unit endorsement course and successfully passed the appropriate examinations and assessments

Hold a valid medical

Have demonstrated ICAO language proficiency lv 4.

133
Q

What are the privileges of an ATCO licence?

A
  • Holder shall be authorised to provide air traffic control services in accordance with ratings and endorsements
  • If more than a year elapses from using licence APC is required.
134
Q

How long does a Student ATCO have to begin training at the unit?

A

1 year

135
Q

What are the requirements for a full ATCO licence?

A
  • Name of state of issue
  • Title of licence
  • serial no. of the licence
  • Name, date of birth, nationality and signature of holder
  • Competent authority
  • Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
  • Signature of issuing officer and date
  • Seal or stamp of competent authority.

Must be accompanied by a valid medical certificate.

136
Q

What are the types of endorsements?

A
  1. Licence Endorsements
  2. Rating endorsements
  3. Unit endorsements
137
Q

What is a rating?

A

An indication of which type of service you have been trained to deliver.

ADV/ADI, APS, APP etc.

138
Q

What are ADV and ADI ratings and how do they differ?

A
  • Ratings that indicate that the holder can provide an ATC service to aerodrome traffic.
  • ADV can only provide this service at an aerodrome where there are no Instrument Procedures published.
139
Q

What is an APP rating?

A

Approach Control Procedural

indicates that the holder of the license is competent to provide an ATC service to arriving, departing, and transiting aircraft without the use of survelliance equipment.

140
Q

What are the rating endorsements associated with Aerodrome control?

A
  • TWR- Tower Control
  • GMC- Ground Movement Control
  • AIR- Air Control
  • RAD- Radar Control
  • GMS- Ground Movement Survelliance
141
Q

What is the TWR endorsement?

A

Tower Control

Holder can provide Aerodrome control at aerodrome controlled from one working position.

eg EGSC

142
Q

What is the GMC endorsement?

A

Ground Movement Control

Holder is competent to provide Ground movement control

143
Q

What is a AIR endorsement?

A

Air Control

Holder is competent to provide Air Control

144
Q

What is a GMS endorsement?

A

Ground Movement Survelliance

Holder is competent to provide Ground movement control with the aid of aerodrome surface movement guidance systems,

additional to the GMC or TWR endorsement

145
Q

What is a RAD endorsement?

A

Aerodrome Radar Control

holder is competent to provide aerodrome control with the aid of surveillance Radar equipment eg ATM

Granted in addition to TWR or AIR endorsements.

146
Q

What are the SRA and PAR endorsements?

A

Surveillance Radar Approach

Precision Approach Radar

SRA=competent to provide surveillance non- precision approaches

PAR=competent to provide surveillance precision approaches

Big difference is that PAR (and its precision approach) include vertical control as well.

147
Q

What is a TCL endorsement?

A

Terminal Control Endorsement

Holder is competent to provide ATC services with the use of surveillance equipment to a/c in a specified terminal area and/or adjacent sectors.

148
Q

What is an OJTI licence endorsement?

A

On the Job Training Instructor

Authorised to provide OJT and supervision at a working position for areas covered by a valid unit endorsement.

They must;

  • Hold an ATC licence which has a rating that has been valid for at least two years (can be lowered to 1 year by request with the CAA).
  • Have exercised the priveleges of the licence for at least 6 months at that unit
  • have successfully completed an OJTI course

Is valid for a renewable period of 3 years.

149
Q

What is an STDI licence endorsement?

A

Synthetic Training Device Instructor

Competent to train using SIMS.

150
Q

When are unit endorsements issued and how long are they valid for?

A

Awarded at the rating validation examination

1 year, competency assessments completed annually.

151
Q

What must a unit endorsement have to be valid?

A
  • The ratings, rating endorsements, language endorsements, instructor endorsements, and unit endorsements must be on the licence.
  • Dates when it was issued
  • Date of expiry of validity
  • Signature of issuing officer and date of issue
  • Seal or stamp of the authority issuing the licence.
152
Q

How long are unit endorsements issued for?

A

12 months

extended for 12 months provided the ATCO has completed the minimum hours as per UTP.

This leads to a valid rating.

153
Q

ADI endorsements

A
154
Q

Surveillance Endorsements

A
155
Q

Non surveillance endorsements

A
156
Q

What are the reporting regulations?

A

EU reg 996/2010 and 376/2014

European portal for reporting is www.aviationreporting.eu

157
Q

Within what maximum time can medical revalidations take place

A

45 days before expiry.

158
Q

With regard to medicals what are Revalidations and renewals?

A

Revalidation

Act taken within validity period that allows holder to continue utilitsing medical, is valid from the expiry date of the first medical. Can be done up to 45 days in advance.

Renewal

When the medical has expired, valid from the date of the assessment.

159
Q

What happens if a medical certificate is revoked or suspended?

A

If revoked it must be returned to authority immediately.

If suspended authority may ask for its return.

160
Q

What does SERA 3105 say regarding minimum heights?

A

A/c shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open air assemble of persons, unless at such height as will permit, in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Except when- landing/taking off or with the written permission of the competent authority.

161
Q

According to SERA 3210 what is the order of Landing?

A
  • A/c Landing or on final approach has right of way over other a/c in flight or on the ground.
  • Lower a/c has right of way
  • A/c shall not overtake or cut in front of another a/c on final approach to land, unless ATC say so or there is an emergency.
  • A/c in emergency has right of way
162
Q

According to SERA 3210 what are the rules regarding overtaking?

A
  • A/c being overtaken has right of way
  • A/c overtaking, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight alters course to right
  • Glider overtaking glider may alter course to the left or right
163
Q

According to SERA 3210 who has right of way when two a/c in flight converge?

A

The one on the right, the other shall give way.

164
Q

What does SERA 3210 say about movement of aircraft on the ground?

A

Two aircraft approaching head on, each stop and alter course to the right

When converging the one on the right has right of way

A/c shall stop at stop bars or holding points unless clearance to enter runway has been given.

165
Q

What does SERA 3135 refer to?

A

Formation flights

Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except by pre-arrangement among the pilots-in-command of the aircraft taking part in the flight and, for formation flight in controlled airspace, in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the competent authority.

These conditions shall include the following:

(a) one of the pilots-in-command shall be designated as the flight leader;
(b) the formation operates as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting;
(c) separation between aircraft in the flight shall be the responsibility of the flight leader and the pilots-in-command of the other aircraft in the flight and shall include periods of transition when aircraft are manoeuvring to attain their own separation within the formation and during join-up and breakaway; and

(d) for State aircraft a maximum lateral, longitudinal and vertical distance between each aircraft and the flight leader in accordance with the Chicago Convention. For other than State aircraft a distance not exceeding 1 km (0,5 nm) laterally and longitudinally and 30 m (100 ft) vertically from the flight leader shall be maintained by each aircraft.

166
Q

What does SERA 3210 say about avoiding collision?

A

An a/c which has right of way shall maintain course and speed (no requirement to maintain level)

The other aircraft shall give way behind it (must not cross ahead, over or under the priority a/c).

167
Q

What is the order of priority according to 3210?

A

Flying machines give way to:

Airships, give way to

Gliders, give way to

Balloons

168
Q

According to SERA 3210 what happens when two a/c approach head on?

A

Both must alter course to the right.

169
Q

According to SERA 3210 who has priority on the ground?

A

Aircraft taking off or landing.

Aircraft taxiing

Vehicles towing aircraft

Vehicles

Vehicles must also give way to other vehicles in accordance with ATC instructions

Emergency vehicles have overall priority in emergency

170
Q

In what direction must a/c turn if not explicitly instructed and there are no published procedures? What rule enforces this?

A

Left

SERA 3225

171
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at FL100 or above in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

172
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

173
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, in controlled airspace during the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)

174
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft crusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace in the day?

A

clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km

175
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft or at or below 1,000ft above terrain (whichever is higher) in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.

176
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft or at or below 1,000ft above terrain (whichever is higher) in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m (this may be as low as 800m providing the helicopter is travelling at a speed slow enough to see and avoid).

177
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

178
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

179
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight Helicopters may reduce the flight visibility to 3km provided they travel at a reasonable speed.

180
Q

What aircraft are exempt from VMC minima?

A

medical flights, SAR, firefighting

181
Q

What does SERA 3205 say?

A

Aircraft shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

182
Q

What are the procedures regarding SVFR within SERA 5010?

A

Conditions applied by ATC:

  • By day only (unless authorised by the CAA-ORS 1125 permits SVFR at night in the UK in a CTR)
  • Clearances not to be issued when met conditions at A/D:

.Ground visibility of less than 1500m (800m for Helis)

.Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft.

Conditions applied by Pilots:

  • Clear of cloud with Surface in sight
  • Flight visibility not less than 1500m (heli 800m)
  • IAS of 140knots or less
183
Q

What visibility is used to determine VMC at an aerodrome?

A

Ground vis

184
Q

What visibility is used to determine VMC?

A
  • In flight- Flight visibility
  • For flights to/from aerodromes or entering the ATZ or joining the circuit ground visiblity shall be used.
185
Q

What is the SERA definition for night?

A

The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Twilight begins and ends when the suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.

186
Q

Who is responsible for determining whether the VMC allow VFR flight?

A

The pilot

However for flights to or from an aerodrome or entering the ATZ or traffic circuit in controlled airspace the ground visibility shall be used.

187
Q

What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?

A

Except when SVFR, VFR flights shall not;

  • take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

When the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 5,000m
188
Q

What are the IFR minimum levels according to SERA 5015?

A
  1. 2,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km when flying over high or mountainous terrain.
  2. 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c

Exceptions: -When taking off/landing

-When specifically authorised by the competent authority

189
Q

What are the VFR minimum levels during the day SERA?

A

SERA 5005- Must be 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600m when flying over a congested area except with permission of the CAA.

  • 500ft above the highest obstacle within 150m (500ft) or you can fly less than 500ft above the ground or water if you wish
  • Aircraft landing/ taking off are exempt from these minima.*
190
Q

What are the VFR minimum levels at night SERA?

A
  • 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c.
  • 2,000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c when flying over high/mountainous terrain.
  • Except for aircraft taking off/landing*
191
Q

What is the maximum level for VFR flight according to SERA?

A
  • FL195
  • VFR flights must not be operated at transonic or supersonic speeds

Unless authorised by the competent authority.

192
Q

What are the VFR cruising levels according to SERA appendix 3?

A

Above 3,000ft AMSL for Eastbound levels it is odd thousands +500ft

For westbound levels it is even thousands +500ft

up to FL285

193
Q

What are the IFR cruising levels in SERA appendix 3?

A

Above 3,000ft AMSL

Westbound= Even levels up to FL400

Eastbound= Odd levels up to FL410

Above FL410 all directions are odd with a vertical sep. of 2,000ft

194
Q

When must a pilot fly IFR?

A
  • When airspace is notified as Class A
  • Met conditions preclude VFR
195
Q

What must a VFR pilot do when switching to IFR?

A
  • If a FPL has already been submitted he merely needs to communicate the change
  • Must submit a FPL to the appropriate ATSU as soon as practicable and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.
196
Q

How does a pilot change from an IFR flight?

A

He must cancel his IFR flight plan, only the pilot can do this.

The controller will reply “IFR flight planned cancelled at time…”

197
Q

What is the definition of an SVFR flight?

A

a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in met conditions below VMC.

198
Q

What are SERA’s conditions pertaining to Special VFR flight?

A
  • Only during the day
  • Met conditions minima are;
    COCSIS, flight vis 1500m or more (800m for helis)
  • Speed must be 140kts IAS or less
199
Q

To what are SVFR flights seperated?

A

SVFR and IFR are always seperated except when approved by the authority, or unless the SVFR a/c on are on notified SVFR routes or areas.

200
Q

Are SVFR flights assigned levels to flight?

A

No as they are still VFR although they can be told to fly not above or below a certain level in order to achieve a vertical sep.

201
Q

Display of landing lights by Aircraft SERA 3215

A

In air

By day= An anti collision light

By night= Lights as specified in the rules and no other lights which might obscure, impair the visibility or be mistaken for such lights. NAV lights to show path of a/c and lights to indicate extremeties of structure.

On ground

By day= When a/c is stationary on apron with engines running

By night= Same lights as if in flight unless the a/c is stationary on an apron or maintenance area.

202
Q

What does SERA 3215 say regarding aircraft lights on the ground?

A
  1. A/C moving must have nav lights that indicate their path
  2. Lights delinating the extremties of an a/c must be displayed if not otherwise adequately illuminated.
  3. A/C taxiing or being towed on the movement area shall display lights that attract attention to it
  4. A/C who are on the movement area and have engines running must display lights that draw attention to the fact (usually an anti-col light)
203
Q

What colour are anti-col lights on a helicopter?

A

Flashing red

204
Q

What colour are anti-col lights on a/c other than helicopters?

A

Flashing red/white 360 degrees

205
Q

When are anti-col lights displayed?

A

Day and night when in flight, taxiing or being towed

Basically all the time unless stationary

206
Q

Are pilots permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of lights?

A

Yes if they are or are likely to affect;

  1. adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties
  2. subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle
207
Q

What lights must be displayed at night when an a/c is in flight?

A
  1. Anti col lights
  2. Nav lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer
  3. In the case of balloons position lights.
208
Q

Define a congested area

A

Any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.

Relates to towns cities or settlements

209
Q
A
210
Q

What maneouvres are defined as Aerobatics?

A

Loops

Spins

Bunts

Stall turns

Inverted flying

etc…

SERA 3130

211
Q

What does SERA 3105 say regarding minimum heights?

A

A/c shall not be flown over

  • the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or
  • an open air assembly of persons,

unless at such height as will permit, in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Except when- landing/taking off or with the written permission of the competent authority.

212
Q

How would you tell if an a/c had its engines running?

A

Its anti-col light would be illuminated.

UK ATC BASIC EU340 (20 decks)

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