ATM 01 Flashcards
1
Q
What is an Approach Control Service?
A
Where ATC is provided for controlled flights associated with arrival or departure.
2
Q
What is an ATS?
A
Air traffic service is a generic term meaning variously a;
- Air Traffic Control Service
- Flight information Service
- Alerting Service
- Air Traffic Advisory Service
3
Q
Define an Air Traffic Control Service?
A
A service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between a/c, and on the manoeuvring area between a/c and obstructions; and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of traffic. (EU 923/2012)
Area
Approach
Aerodrome
4
Q
To whom do we provide an Air Traffic control service?
A
- To all IFR a/c in Class A, B, C, D and E airspace
- To all VFR a/c in Class B, C and D airspace
- To all SVFR a/c
- To all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
5
Q
What is a Flight Information Service?
A
A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.
6
Q
To whom do we provide a FIS?
A
to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:
– Provided with an ATC service, or
– Otherwise known to relevant Air Traffic Services units.
FIS does not relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft of any responsibilities and the pilot-incommand has to make the final decision regarding any suggested alteration of flight plan
7
Q
What is an Air Traffic Advisory Service?
A
-A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practicable, between aircraft operating on IFR flight plans.
8
Q
What is advisory airspace?
A
An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available.
9
Q
What is an advisory route?
A
A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.
10
Q
Do controllers providing an ATAS have to coordinate?
A
Yes, excatly like controllers providing an ATC service.
11
Q
What do IFR aircraft need before entering advisory airspace?
A
A FPL
12
Q
What must an IFR flight do if crossing an advisory route?
A
Must cross at an angle that is 90° to the direction of the route.
13
Q
What are the RADAR separations that a controller must use?
A
5nm when using RADAR or surveillance equipment such as ADS-B
This can be reduced to 3nm provided the capabilites of the surveillance system allow.
14
Q
What is an STCA?
A
Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA)
– visual and (sometimes) aural warnings if potential aircraft conflicts detected. (usually up to 2 minutes ahead).
15
Q
What is RIMCAS?
A
Runway Incursion Monitor and Collision Avoidance System (RIMCAS)
- Fitted to some surface movement surveillance systems
- Provides Tower controllers with audio and visual warnings of potential conflictions on runways
- (PSR and SSR returns can both trigger RIMCAS) )
16
Q
What is MTCD?
A
Medium Term Conflict Detection
A safety net that warns (visually and with an audio alarm) the controller of potential conflicts up to 20 minutes in advance.
Eg IFACTS
17
Q
Define identification with regards to PSR
A
The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular aircraft is seen on a situation display and is positively identified. (ICAO)
18
Q
Describe the turn method of identification
A
- Ascertain the aircraft’s heading
- Observe the aircraft’s track for a period of time
- Correlate the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with;
1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30 degrees.
2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees, as instructed by another controller, or
3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees, reported by the pilot.
A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service
Before instructing an aircraft to turn, consider:
- Terrain
- PSR coverage
- Other surveillance returns
- Rules of the Air
- Proximity of Controlled airspace boundary
Caution must be exercised to ensure that;
- the movements of not more than one Position Indication match those of the aircraft
- This method is not used in areas where aircraft reguarly make turns for navigational purposes
19
Q
Describe the departing aircraft method of identification
A
Identification is achieved by observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within 1nm of the end of the runway used.
Take care to avoid confusion with:
- Aircraft overflying the airfield
- Aircraft making a Missed Approach
- Aircraft departing from an adjacent runway
- Aircraft holding overhead the airfield
20
Q
Describe the position report method
A
By correlating a particular radar position indication with an aircraft reporting its position over, or as bearing and distance from,
• a point shown on the situation display, either
1) An exact reporting point, or
2) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display. Must not be more than 3,000ft above this point to use it in the UK.
• and by ascertaining that the track of the particular radar position is consistent with the aircraft path or reported heading;
Both must be within PSR coverage to be valid points to use.
Use an alternative method if there is any doubt concerning the identification. The appropriate ATS authority may prescribe conditions for the application of these methods, e.g.:
i) a level or levels above which this method may not be applied in respect of specified navigation aids; or
ii) a distance from the radar site beyond which this method may not be applied.
21
Q
Define an ERP
A
Exact reporting point.
A position established by a navigational facility, which is:
- Overhead a VOR or NDB
- A notified fix defined by VOR radials or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
- A position defined by a VOR radial and a range from a co-located DME
22
Q
What must a controller do if he loses identity of an a/c?
A
Inform that a/c of the loss of identification.
23
Q
When is it necessary to inform a pilot that his a/c has been identified?
A
When the a/c has been identified outside Controlled Airspace. It is no longer required to pass a position report in this situation unless controller deems it necessary.
24
Q
What are the methods for identifying an a/c using SSR?
A
- Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four digit code.
- Recognising a validated four digit code Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used if code/callsign pairing confirmed
- Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested
CAUTION:
(1) Possible mis-ident due to simultaneous requests to ident.
(2) Ident cannot be used for aircraft displaying a conspicuity code.
25
What methods are there to validate an assigned Mode A Code?
* Instruct aircraft to squawk assigned code and observe that the correct numbers appear.
* Instructing the aircraft to “squawk ident” and simultaneously checking that the code numbers are associated with the radar return.
* Matching a previously identified primary radar return with the assigned code for the flight.
*Can be done at the same time as identifying.*
26
When may a Mode A code be deemed validated?
When the code set can be recognised by the Code Assignment Plan to have been assigned by an ATC unit capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as being corrupt.
27
What is verification?
A check to confirm that the aircrafts Mode C read out is accurate within agreed parameters. There are strict guidelines concerning the use of Mode C data which vary according to whether the readout is verified or not
* Mode C can be assumed to have been verified if associated with a deemed validated Mode A
* Verification may be achieved, if necesssary, with the assistance of another ATSU.
* If in error:- Request the pilot to “check altimeter setting and confirm level” If still in error: “Stop Squawk Altitude. Wrong indication” “Squawk 0000” – to indicate a data error (independent switching off of Mode A & Mode C not available)
28
How are levels assessed using mode C read Outs?
By checking that the level assessments correlate with the reported level of the aircraft, either by;
1. Maintaining an assigned level (level occupied) Mode C readout indicates +/-200ft from that level in RVSM (FL290-410) or +/- 300ft in other airspace, unless the ATS authority specify smaller (not less than +/-200ft). *+/-200ft in the UK and on the sims in all airspace.*
2. VACATED a level; when instructed to climb or descend Mode C readout shows a change of more than 300ft (400ft in UK) from the level, and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
3. PASSING through a level in the climb or descent Mode C readout shows the level has been passed by more than 300ft and is continuing in the required direction. *400ft in the UK*
4. REACHED an assigned level Three successive Mode C readouts or 15 secs (whichever the greater) indicate the appropriate tolerance as in 1.
29
When should a pilot be informed of his a/c's position?
1. Upon identification, except when the identification is established:
i) based on the pilot’s report of the aircraft position; or within 1nm of the runway upon departure (and the observed position on the situation display is consistent with the aircraft’s time of departure;) or
ii) by use of either ADS-B / SSR Mode S aircraft ident or assigned discrete SSR codes and the location of the position indication is consistent with the CPL of the aircraft; Or
iii) by transfer of identification;
2. when the pilot requests this information;
3. when a pilot’s estimate differs significantly from the controller’s estimate based on the observed position;
4. when the pilot is instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring if the current instructions had diverted the aircraft from a previously assigned route;
5. immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service, if the aircraft is observed to deviate from its intended route.
30
In what ways can you pass position information to a pilot?
a) as a well-known geographical position;
b) magnetic track and distance to a significant point, an enroute navigation aid, or an approach aid;
c) direction (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position;
d) distance to touchdown, if the aircraft is on final approach; or
e) distance and direction from the centre line of an ATS route.
31
What should a controller be cautious of when using the turn method for identification?
Caution must be exercised to ensure that;
- the movements of not more than one Position Indication match those of the aircraft
- This method is not used in areas where aircraft reguarly make turns for navigational purposes
32
When using the departure method of primary identification what must the controller be cautious of?
Take care to avoid confusion with:
* Aircraft overflying the airfield
* Aircraft making a Missed Approach
* Aircraft departing from an adjacent runway
* Aircraft holding overhead the airfield
33
What must a controller be
Use an alternative method if there is any doubt concerning the identification. The appropriate ATS authority may prescribe conditions for the application of these methods, e.g.:
i) a level or levels above which this method may not be applied in respect of specified navigation aids or points (3,000ft in the UK); or
ii) a distance from the radar site beyond which this method may not be applied.
34
Over what type of points may the position report method be used?
a point shown on the situation display, either
1) An exact reporting point, or
2) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display. Must not be more than 3,000ft above this point to use it in the UK.
35
Define RADAR contact
The situation which exists when a RADAR position symbol of a particular aircraft has been seen and identified on a situational display.
36
Define validation
The act of correlating a particular position indication with a specific aircraft target by means of laid down procedures. It is possible to achieve identification and validation at the same time.
37
What are the methods for identifying an a/c using SSR?
* Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four digit code.
* Recognising a validated four digit code Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used if code/callsign pairing confirmed
* Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested
**CAUTION**:
(1) Possible mis-ident due to simultaneous requests to ident.
(2) Ident cannot be used for aircraft displaying a conspicuity code.
38
What methods are there for transferring identity of an a/c between controllers?
Provided the position indication is in the surveillance cover of both controllers;
a) designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt;
b) notification of the aircraft’s discrete SSR code or aircraft address;
c) notification that the aircraft is SSR Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an aircraft ident feature when Mode S/ADS-B coverage is available;
d) direct designation (pointing with the finger) of the position indication, if the two situation displays are adjacent - “That one!”, or if a common “conference” type of situation display is used;
e. designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the aircraft is not known to both controllers; (ANSP's may put conditions on this, such as max. distance from point – e.g. UK require a max. of 30nm from a VOR/DME facility.)
f) instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the transferring controller and the observation of the change by the accepting controller; or
g) issuance of an instruction to the aircraft by the transferring controller to ‘squawk IDENT’ and observation of this response by the accepting controller.
* Note.— Use of procedures f) and g) requires prior coordination between the controllers, since the indications to be observed by the accepting controller are of short duration.*
39
What must a controller do when allocating a squawk?
Validate and verify it.
40
What must a controller do if a Mode A code displayed by an aircraft does not correlate with the code that has been assigned?
Instruct the pilot to reset the code
* If an error persists, instruct the pilot to squawk A0000
* If an error still exists then instruct the pilot to switch off the transponder. ( A corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if the Mode C has been verified but adjacent ATSU's must be informed.)
41
What must a controller do if Mode C data is incorrect?
• If in error:
- Request the pilot to “check altimeter setting and confirm level”
- If still in error: “Stop Squawk Altitude. Wrong indication” “Squawk 0000”
– to indicate a data error (independent switching off of Mode A & Mode C not available)
42
What are the vectoring principles?
a) Ideally vector along tracks so that the pilot can monitor position using pilot-interpreted aids (to minimise assistance required and reduce issues from a radar failure);
b) when given its initial vector diverting it from a previously assigned route, inform pilot why; and specify limit of the vector (e.g. to ... position, for ... approach);
c) except when transfer of control is to be effected, aircraft shall not be vectored closer than 2.5 NM or, if minimum separation is \>5 NM, distance of half of the separation from the limit of the airspace;
d) controlled flights shall not be vectored into uncontrolled airspace except in the case of emergency or in order to circumnavigate adverse meteorological conditions (in which case the pilot should be so informed), or at the specific request of the pilot; and
e) when an aircraft has reported unreliable directional instruments, the pilot shall be requested, prior to the issuance of manoeuvring instructions, to make all turns at an agreed rate and to carry out the instructions immediately upon receipt.
43
What are the functions of Aerodrome Control Towers?
Shall issue information and clearances to a/c under their control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of Air Traffic on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome with the object of preventing collisions between;
a) A/c flying within the designated area of responsibility of the control tower, including aerdodrome traffic.
b) A/c operating on the manoeuvring area.
c) A/c landing and taking off.
d) A/c and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area.
e) A/c on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area.
44
In terms of Aerodrome control what is Essential Traffic Information?
Essential local traffic shall be considered to consist of:
a) any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area, or
b) traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome,
which may constitute a _hazard_ to the aircraft concerned.
**Essential local traffic shall be described so as to be easily identified.**
45
When is Essential Traffic Information passed?
Information on essential local traffic shall be issued in a timely manner, either directly or through the unit providing approach control service when, in the judgement of the aerodrome controller, _such information is necessary in the interests of safety, or when requested by aircraft._
46
What Aerodrome and Met information is passed to an a/c prior to taxiing?
Aircraft shall be advised of the following elements of information in the order listed, with the exception of such elements which it is known the aircraft has already received (for example ATIS):
a) the runway to be used;
b) the surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations therefrom;
c) The QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if so requested, the QFE
d) the air temperature for the runway to be used, in the case of turbine-engined aircraft);
e) the visibility representative of the direction of take-off and initial climb, if less than 10 km, or, when applicable, the RVR value(s) for the runway to be used;
f) the correct time.
47
What information must be passed to a/c prior to take off?
aircraft shall be advised of:
a) any significant changes in the surface wind direction and speed, the air temperature, and the visibility or RVR value(s)
b) significant meteorological conditions in the take-off and climb-out area, except when it is known that the information has already been received by the aircraft.
48
What information is to be passed to an a/c making an approach to land or joining the Aerodrome Traffic Circuit?
Prior to entering the traffic circuit or commencing approach to land, aircraft shall be provided with the following elements of information, in the order listed, with the exception of such elements which it is known the aircraft has already received:
a) the runway to be used;
b) the surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations therefrom;
c) The QNH and either on a regular basis in accordance with local arrangements or if so requested, the QFE
49
After passing the essential Aerodrome information and before passing a taxi clearance what must an Aerodrome Controller do?
Ascertain the location of the aircraft (ie where it is parked).
50
What must a taxi clearance contain?
Taxi clearances shall contain concise instructions and adequate information so as to assist the flight crew:
* To follow the correct taxi routes
* To avoid collision with other aircraft or objects, and
* And to minimize the potential for the aircraft inadvertently entering an active runway.
51
What must a taxi clearance contain when its clearance limit is beyond an active runway?
an explicit clearance to cross or an instruction to hold short of that runway.
52
Can a/c taxi on the runway in use?
Yes, this is to help expedite air traffic but it can only be done when there is no risk to safety or delay imposed on the other a/c.
Where control of taxiing aircraft is provided by a ground controller and the control of runway operations by an aerodrome controller, the use of a runway by taxiing aircraft shall be coordinated with and approved by the aerodrome controller.
53
If a controller cannot visually or through the use of the ATS surveillance system ascertain whether an a/c has vacated the runway, what other way is there to?
If the control tower is unable to determine, either visually or via an ATS surveillance system that a vacating or crossing aircraft has cleared the runway, the aircraft shall be requested to report when it has vacated the runway. The report shall be made when the entire aircraft is beyond the relevant runwayholding position.
54
When is an a/c considered to have vacated the runway?
When it is over the relevant holding point when exiting the runway.
55
If not cleared to enter the runway what is the furthest point an a/c can taxi and hold?
The holding point for the runway
56
At what point can an a/c be permitted to enter a runway when another a/c is effecting a landing?
Aircraft shall not be permitted to line up and hold on the approach end of a runway-in-use whenever another aircraft is effecting a landing, until the landing aircraft has passed the point of intended holding.
57
With regards to Helicopters air taxiing, what are the considerations?
Instructions which require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in close proximity to taxiing helicopters should be avoided and consideration should be given to the effect of turbulence from taxiing helicopters on arriving and departing light aircraft.
58
Why shouldn't you QSY a single pilot helicopter when it is airtaxiing (even relaying instructions from other controllers if necessary)?
Most light helicopters are flown by one pilot and require the constant use of both hands and feet to maintain control during low-altitude/low-level flight. Although flight control friction devices assist the pilot, changing frequency near the ground could result in inadvertent ground contact and consequent loss of control.
59
Whose authority is required before a vehicle can enter and move around the manoeuvring area?
The controllers
An entry to the runway must be subject to further authorisation
60
Who has priority on the manoeuvring area?
Vehicles and pedestrians must give way to a/c.
Emergency vehicles will have priority over all surface traffic during an emergency (in which case all the traffic would be halted anyway).
61
What is an aerodrome control tower?
A unti established to provide ATC service to aerodrome traffic.
62
What is aerodrome traffic?
All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flyinh in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
63
What is generally considered to be the vicinity of an aerodrome?
An aircraft is considered to be in the vicinity of an aerodrome when it is in, entering or leaving the aerodrome traffic circuit.
64
What is air traffic?
All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
65
What is the landing area?
That part of the movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
66
In what order will departing a/c normally be departed in and what may cause you to deviate from this?
The order in which they are ready to depart;
Attempts to facilitate the maximum amount of departures with the minimum amount of delay.
67
What other factors may decide the order of departure?
* Types of aircraft and their relative performance;
* Routes to be followed after take-off;
* Any specified minimum departure interval between take-offs;
* Need to apply wake turbulence separation minima;
* Aircraft which should be afforded priority; and
* Aircraft subject to ATFM requirements.
68
After a preceding a/c has passed which point may a follwing departure be cleared for take-off or following inbound be cleared to cross the threshold to land?
the preceding departing aircraft has
1. crossed the end of the runway-in-use, or
2. has started a turn, or
3. until all preceding landing aircraft are clear of the runway-in-use.
**Same for a/c landing after or departing after.**
69
When a take-off clearance is required prior to take-off (ie those relayed from other units like LF to LK) can the a/c depart without it?
No the take-off clearance shall not be issued until the clearance has been passed to and acknowledged by the a/c concerned.
70
When can a take-off clearance be issued?
-the aircraft is ready for take-off and at or approaching the departure runway, and the traffic situation permits.
To reduce the potential for misunderstanding, the take-off clearance shall include the designator of the departure runway.
71
What is an "immediate take-off"?
In the interest of expediting traffic, a clearance for immediate take-off may be issued to an aircraft before it enters the runway. On acceptance of such clearance the aircraft shall taxi out to the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
## Footnote
*Note: ‘immediate’ should not be used with “cleared for take-off”. Aircraft should have been asked if they are ready for “immediate departure” and if they are, should be “cleared for take off” (ICAO)*
72
Who has the greatest priority between an a/c landing and one ready to depart from the same/intersecting runway?
The landing a/c
73
If you want to expedite traffic what can you say to a landing a/c and what would be your considerations?
A landing a/c may be requested to:
a) hold short of an intersecting runway after landing;
b) land beyond the touchdown zone of the runway;
c) vacate the runway at a specified exit taxiway;
d) expedite vacating the runway.
_Before doing this you must consider;_
a) type of aircraft;
b) runway length;
c) location of exit taxiways;
d) reported braking action on runway and taxiway;
e) prevailing meteorological conditions.
**A HEAVY aircraft shall not be requested to land beyond the touchdown zone of a runway.**
If the pilot-in-command considers that he or she is unable to comply with the requested operation, the controller shall be advised without delay.
74
Do we provide seperation between aircraft in formation?
No, the aircraft involved in the same flight as a formation are exempted from seperation minima.
75
Are aircraft operating on different runways at an aerodrome approved for simultaneous runway ops seperated?
No
76
Are aircraft operating under military necessity seperated?
no.
77
Can a controller withold permission to land indefinitely?
no
78
What aircraft are given priority for landing?
* Aircraft which anticipates being compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe operation of the a/c
* Hospital a/c or a/c carrying any sick or seriously injured persons requiring urgent medical attention
* SAR a/c
* Other a/c as determined by the appropriate authority.
79
What information is contained in an ATIS and in what order?
1. Name of aerodrome
2. Arrival/Dep. indicator
3. Contract type, if D-ATIS
4. Designator
5. Time of obs
6. Type of approach(es) to be expected
7. The runway in use
8. Significant runway surface conditions and if appropriate braking action
9. Holding delay
10. Transition Level
11. Other essential operational info
12. Current METAR
13. Any available info on met phenomena in the approach or climb out areas
14. trend forecast when available
15. Specific ATIS instructions
80
Define QFE
Atmospehric pressure at offical aerodrome level. When QFE is set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter, the altimeter will read zero when the a/c is on the ground at the station.
81
Define QNH
Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level. When set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter it will read aerodrome elevation when the aircraft is on the ground at the station.
82
Define QNE
Height indicated on a pressure altimeter when the aircraft is on the ground at an airfield with a setting of 1013.2hPa set on the subscale.
83
Define Height
The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from a specified datum.
84
Define Altitude
The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.
85
Define Elevation
The vertical distance of a point or level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level.
## Footnote
* NOTE - Aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point on the landing area.*
* A separate threshold elevation is published if it is 7ft or more BELOW aerodrome elevation and for precision approach runways.*
86
Define a flight level
A surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to the specified pressure datum of 1013.25hPa and separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
87
Define the Transition Altitude
The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. The transition altitude is located at a fixed level and published in aeronautical information publications.
88
Define the Transition Level
The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude, located at least a nominal 1000ft above the TA to allow both to be used at the same time.
89
What is aerodrome elevation?
NOTE - Aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point on the landing area.
A separate threshold elevation is published if it is 7ft or more BELOW aerodrome elevation and for precision approach runways.
90
When do seperate threshold elevations get published?
A separate threshold elevation is published if it is 7ft or more BELOW aerodrome elevation and for precision approach runways.
91
Define Transition Layer
The airspace between the transition level and transition altitude, will be at least 1000ft.
92
What is ASM?
Airspace Management
It is a planning function whose primary objective is maximizing the utilization of avilable airspace by dynamic time sharing and segregation of airspace.
93
What is the FUA concept?
Flexible Use of Airspace
The principle that airspace should not be designated either pure civil or military.
Any segregation is short term.
94
What are the three levels of ASM?
1. Strategic- National and international agreements (AIP)
2. Pre-Tactical- Short timescale
3. Tactical- real time
Provided for the purpose of achieving the most efficient use of airspace based on actual needs and, where possible, avoiding permanent airspace segregation.
95
What is the AMC?
Airspace Management Cell
Joint civil and military cell responsible for the day-to-day management and temporary allocation of national or sub-regional airspace under the jurisdiction of one or more ECAC states.
96
What are AMC-manageable areas?
An area subject to managment and allocation by an AMC at ASM level 2 and either;
1. Firnak structures entitled TRA's or TSA's
2. Restricted and danger areas that are manageable at ASM level 2 in the same way as TRA's or TSA's
97
Define a TRA
Temporary Reserved Area
## Footnote
A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the **specific use** of another aviation authority and through which **other traffic may be allowed** to transit under ATC clearance.
98
Define a TSA
Temporary Segregated Area
## Footnote
A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the **exclusive use** by another aviation authority and through which other traffic **will not be allowed** to transit.
99
Define a danger area
an airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
100
RT- define Acknowledge
“Let me know that you have received and understood this message.”
101
R/T define AFFIRM
Yes, positive
102
R/T define Break
I hereby indicate the separation between portions of the message
Only really used when it is not clear that this is the different portion of a message to the same a/c
103
R/T define Break Break
I hereby indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
104
R/T define cancel
Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
105
R/T define Check
“Examine a system or procedure.”
## Footnote
*(Not to be used in any other context. No answer is normally expected.)*
106
R/T define cleared
“Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.”
107
R/T define confirm
“I request verification of: (clearance, instruction, action, information).”
108
R/T define Contact
“Establish communications with...” – Usually referring to details having been passed
109
R/T define Correct
“True” or “Accurate”.
110
R/T define Correction
“An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is...”
111
R/T Define Disregard
Ignore
112
R/T define "How do I read?"
“What is the readability of my transmission?”
113
R/T define "I Say Again"
I repeat for clarity or emphasis
114
R/T define Maintain
“Continue in accordance with the condition(s) specified” or in its literal sense, e.g. “Maintain VFR”.
115
R/T define "Monitor"
“Listen out on (frequency).”
116
R/T define Negative
No, not possible etc
117
R/T define Readback
“Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received.”
118
R/T define Recleared
“A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”
119
R/T define "Report..."
“Pass me the following information...”
120
R/T define request
“I should like to know...” or “I wish to obtain...”
121
R/T define Roger
“I have received all of your last transmission.” Under no circumstances to be used in reply to a question requiring “READ BACK” or a direct answer in the affirmative (AFFIRM) or negative (NEGATIVE).
122
R/T define Say Again
“Repeat all, or the following part, of your last transmission.”
123
R/T define Speak Slower
“Reduce your rate of speech.”
124
R/T define Standby
“Wait and I will call you.”
(The caller would normally re-establish contact if the delay is lengthy. STANDBY is not an approval or denial.)
125
R/T define Unable
“I cannot comply with your request, instruction, or clearance.” (UNABLE is normally followed by a reason.)
126
R/T define WILCO
“I understand your message and will comply with it.”
127
R/T define "Words Twice"
a) As a request: “Communication is difficult. Please send every word, or group of words, twice.”
b) As information: “Since communication is difficult, every word, or group of words, in this message will be sent twice.
128
R/T define Approved
Permission for proposed action granted
129
R/T define over
My transmission is ended, and i expect a response from you
130
R/T define out
This exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
131
What language shall be used for ATC and must be available for any station to use on request?
English,
local languages may be used but english shall be used when requested.
132
Who decides the order of priority of communications for aircraft?
The controller.
When two call simultaenously he/she shall decide who to call back first.
133
What makes up radio transitting technique?
* Ensure that the microphone is directly in front of the mouth and as close as possible
* When using a desk/handheld mic do not turn your head away when transmitting
* Before transmitting listen out on the frequency to make sure you are not about to transmit over another station
* Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
* No more than 100 words per minute
* If you know that your message is being written down speak at a slower rate
* Do not use hesitation sounds
* Do not release transmission button and ensure it is fully down before transimitting to avoid clipping tansmission
134
How are the numbers pronounced on the radio?
1. Wun
2. Too
3. Tree
4. Fower
5. Fife
6. Sicks
7. Seven
8. Ait
9. Niner
10. Zero
135
What is the correct phraseology for initiating a radio check?
"(C/S of station called), (C/S of station requiring test), Radio check on 119.650 (whatever frequency)"
136
What does 1 mean on the readability scale?
Unreadable
137
What does 2 mean on the readability scale?
Readable now and then
138
What does 3 mean on the readability scale?
Readable but with difficulty
139
What does 4 mean on the readability scale?
Readable
140
What does 5 mean on the readability scale?
Perfectly readable
141
For what messages must you transmit the numbers seperately?
* A/c C/S
* Flight levels (except whole hundreds)
* Headings
* Wind direction and speed
* Pressure settings (except 1000)
* Frequencies
* Transponder codes (except those ending in 000's)
* Aircraft speeds
142
How are numbers used in altitude, height, cloud height, RVR and vis transmitted?
Those which contain whole 100's and 1000's shall be transmitted by each digit followed by the word hundred or thousand eg
* 900= niner hundred feet
* 11000ft= wun wun tousand feet
* 2500ft= too tousand fife hundred feet
143
What is the callsign for aerodrome control?
Tower
144
What is the callsign for ground movement control?
Ground
145
What is the callsign for clearance delivery?
Delivery
146
What is the callsign for approach control?
Approach
147
What is the callsign for approach radar (general)
Radar
148
What is the callsign for approach radar arrival?
Director
149
What is the callsign for approach control departure?
Departure
150
What is the callsign for precision approach radar?
Talkdown
151
What is the callsign for area control?
Control
152
What is the callsign for flight information?
information
153
What is the callsign for radio operator?
radio
154
How would you abbreviate Callsign BAW002?
You can't
155
How would you abbreviate Reg SDFRM?
S-RM
156
How would you abbreviate N81247?
N-247
157
How would you abbreviate QANTAS DGRN?
Qantas RN
158
How would you abbreviate N767UA?
N-7UA
159
How would you abbreviate PIPER GBSZT?
Piper ZT
160
What is an ATC instruction?
A directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action
161
What is an ATC clearance?
Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by the an ATC unit.
162
What is a downstream clearance?
A clearance issued to an aircraft by a controller that is not the current controlling authority of that aircraft
163
What is a clearance limit and how can it be defined?
The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
Can be
1. A reporting point
2. aerodrome
3. Controlled Airspace boundary
164
Does an aircraft require a clearance to operate in Controlled airspace and if so how would this be requested?
Yes
Through the submission of a flight plan.
165
Can an aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area do so without a clearance?
no, it must comply with any instructions given as well.
166
What must a clearance contain and in what order?
1. A/C identity
2. Clearance limit
3. route of flight
4. levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof
5. Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres comms and the time of expiry of the clearance.
167
What phrase must not be used when granting a re-clearance?
"Cleared via flight planned route"
This is because you don't know if the flight planned route has changed and the pilot may assume the clearance is for a route different to the one you think it is.
168
For the cleared level when do we use a flight level?
When the clearance will have the aircraft climbing through the transition layer to a point above the transition level.
169
For the cleared level when do we use an altitude?
When cleared to a point that involves descending through the transition layer or is below the transition altitude.
170
When an aircraft has been cleared to land using the QFE how shall the vertical position of the aircraft be expressed?
In terms of height above the aerodrome level, however it will be expresssed as height above runway threshold when;
* An instrument runway has a threshold height that is 7ft or more lower than the aerodrome elevation
* for precision approach runways.
171
When can a controller use conditional clearances?
When the clearance uses the active runway **only** when the controller can see all the aircraft/vehicles concerned.
The aircraft/vehicle causing the condition must also be passing in front of the other aircraft concerned.
172
What shall a conditional clearance contain and in what order?
1. The Callsign
2. The condition
3. The clearance
4. A brief reiteration of the condition
173
When can the route part of the clearance be abbreviated to a name/designation?
When the aerodrome concerned has established SID's and STARS that are published in the AIP
174
What items must be read back in a clearance?
Speed instructions
Transition Levels
Approach clearances
Runway in use
SSR code setting instructions
**Type of ATS**
Heading instructions
Airways/Route clearances
**Taxi/Towing instructions**
Clearance to enter, land on, backtrack on, cross, take-off from, hold short of, taxi on the active runway
Altimeter settings
Level instructions
Frequency changes
**VDF Info**
Ones in bold are additional ones that a pilot is required to read back as a normal instruction.
175
Do CPDLC messages require a read back?
Not unless specified by the ANSP
176
When can aircraft be cleared for the entire route or to the aerodrome of landing?
* When it has been possible prior to departure to coordinate the clearance between all the units under whose control the aircraft will come, or
* When there is reasonable assurance that prior coordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the flight for all the unit who will control the aircraft.
177
What else should you give to an aircraft when giving a delay?
A reason for the delay
178
For ICAO phraseology what must be included in ground movement instructions?
To
Eg Proceed to
Taxi to
179
What does a distress message contain?
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
* Name of station addressed
* Aircraft identity
* Nature of emergency
* Pilots intentions
* Position Level and heading
* Other information (if time permits)
180
What does an urgency message contain?
PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN
* Name of station addressed
* Aircraft identity
* Nature of emergency
* Pilots intentions
* Position, level and heading
* Other information (if time permits)
181
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route
Permit transition from en-route phase of flight to the approach phase.
Achieved by linking a significant point on an ATS route with a point near the aerodrome from which a standard instrument approach procedure can be commenced (IAF).
182
What is a SID?
Standard Instrument Departure
Notified route instructions to provide a link between a specified aerodrome or runway at that aerodrome with a significant point at which the en-route phase of the flight along a designated ATS route can be commenced.
183
What are the purposes of SIDs and STARs?
* Segregate traffic along different route and in holding patterns
* Provide adequate terrain clearance
* Be compatible with RTF comms failure
* Be compatible with NPRs
* Use the shortest practical tracks
* Allow continous climb and descent
* Allow for the performance of the aircraft.
* Reduce RTF loading on controllers
184
What are NPR's?
Noise preferential routings?
Part of noise abatement
In the UK all jet aircraft and those with a MTOW of 5,700kgs or more are subject to them.
185
Describe the composition of a SID designator
OCK2B
1. Basic indicator (nav aid or reporting point at which the SID ends)
2. Validity number (amendment number)
3. Route indicator
186
Describe the composition of a STAR designator?
LAM 4M
1. Basic indicator (can be nav aid or reporting point at which STAR begins)
2. Validity indicator (indicates amendment number)
3. Route indicator
187
What is ATFM?
**Air Traffic Flow Management**
## Footnote
A service established with the objective of contributing to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic by ensuring that ATC capacity is utilized to the maximum extent possible, and that traffic volume is compatible with the capacities declared by the appropriate ATS authority.
188
With regards to ATFM describe the strategic level of planning?
**Strategic**
**Very long term planning, can happen months or years in advance**
• It should consist of examining the demand for the forthcoming season, assessing where and when demand is likely to exceed the available ATC capacity and taking steps to resolve imbalance by:
– Arranging with the ATC authority to provide adequate capacity at the required place and time
– Re-routing certain traffic flows (traffic orientation)
– Scheduling or rescheduling flights, as appropriate
– Identifying the need for tactical ATFM measures
Carried out in conjunction with ATC and AO's
189
What is a CTOT?
**Calculated Take Off Time**
## Footnote
Slot allocated by ATFCM to restrict traffic, A/C must be airborne by this time or -5mins +10mins.
190
Who is responsible to CTOT adherence?
ATC and AO
191
Define an alerting service
A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding an a/c in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.
192
To whom do we provide an Alerting service?
Alerting service shall be provided:
– For all aircraft provided with ATC service
– In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services; and…
– To any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
193
What are the phases of emergency?
**Emergency Phase-** A generic term meaning as the case may be;
**1. Uncertainity Phase-** Situation _wherein doubt exists_ as to the safety of an a/c or a marine vessel and of the persons on board.
**2. Alert Phase-** Situation _wherein apprehension exists_ as to the safety of an a/c or marine vessel and of the persons on board.
**3. Distress Phase-** Situation wherein there is a _reasonable certainity_ that a vessel or other craft, including an a/c or a person on board, is threatened by _grave and imminent danger_ and requires _immediate assistance._
194
What is the distress phase of an emergency?
A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
195
What is the uncertainity phase of an emergency?
–When no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of 30 minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or...
– from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier, or…
– when an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA last notified to or estimated by ATSUs, whichever is later, except…
– when no doubt exists as to the safety of the aircraft an its occupants.
196
What is the alert phase of an emergency?
– When following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any news of the aircraft, or…
– When an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft, or…
* When information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, except…
* When evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, or…
* When an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
197
What is the distress phase of an emergency?
When following the alert phase, further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress, or…
* When the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety, or…
* When information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or…
* When information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing, except…
* When there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.
198
Define distress
Distress A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
199
Define urgency
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
200
With regards to ATM describe the pre-tactical stage of planning
**Pre Tactical**
Pre-tactical planning should entail fine tuning of the strategic plan in light of updated demand data. During this phase
* Certain traffic flows may be re-routed
* Off-load routes may be co-ordinated
* Tactical measures will be decided upon
* Details for the ATFM plan for the following day should be published and made available to all concerned
201
With regards to ATM describe the tactical stage of planning
**Tactical**
Tactical ATFM operations should consist of;
a) Executing the agreed tactical measures in order to provide a reduced and even flow of traffic where demand would otherwise have exceeded capacity
b) Monitoring the evolution of the air traffic situation to ensure that the ATFM measures applied are having the desired effect, and to take or initiate remedial action when long delays are reported, including re-routing of traffic and flight level allocation, in order to utilize the available ATC capacity to the maximum extent.
WHEN ALL ELSE FAIL RESTRICT MOVEMENTS -
• Constrain airborne capacity. Calculated Take Off Times (CTOT) -‘Slots’ Times sent over AFTN which aim to allow continuous maximum flow rate without congestion along the Airways system. The allowed window for departure is 5 minutes before to 10 minutes after the CTOT.
202
What is ASM?
Airspace Management
## Footnote
A planning function with the primary objective of maximiszing the utilization of available airspace by dynamic time sharing segregation of airspace
Also a strategic function.
203
How often does the Collabrative Decision Making process take place?
Daily, can be more frequent depending on demand
The outcome is the ATFCM daily plan (ADP) which is constantly updated througout the day
