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UK ATC BASIC EU340 > Definitions > Flashcards

Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of vis during the day?

A

The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognized when observed a black background.

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2
Q

What is the definition of vis at night?

A

The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background.

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3
Q

What is the definition of ground visibility?

A

The visbility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or automatic systems.

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4
Q

What is the definition of Flight visibility?

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an a/c in flight.

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5
Q

What is the CAA’s definition of night (ANO 2016 schedule 1)

A

Half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise

Determined at surface level

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6
Q

What is SERA’s definition of night?

A

the hours between the end of evening twilight and beginning of morning twilight. Twlight ends in the evening when the centre of the suns disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and vice versa.

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7
Q

What is the definition of VMC?

A

Meterological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima.

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8
Q

What is the definition of IMC?

A

Meteorlogical conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling less than the minima specified for VFR

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9
Q

What is the definition of an ATZ?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.

Radius of 2nm if runway length less than 1850m otherwise radius of 2.5nm

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10
Q

What is the definition of a congested area?

A

any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.

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11
Q

Define Cloud Ceiling

A

Mats 1= From an aerodrome the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the base of any cloud layer visible from the aerodrome sufficient to cover half of the sky.

SERA Art 2= The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6000m (20,000ft) covering more than half the sky.

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12
Q

Define an Aerodrome

A

A defined area (including any buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water, or on any fixed, off-shore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or partly for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

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13
Q

Define an ATCU

A

ANO Art 255- A unit established by a person appointed by a person maintaining an aerodrome or place to provide an ATC service.

MATS 1- A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control unit or aerodrome control tower.

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14
Q

Define flight

A

An a/c shall be deemed to be in flight when… In the case of a piloted flying machine from the moment when, after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of takng off it first moves under its own power until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing. (therefore towing doesnt count)

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15
Q

What is the definition of an aircraft?

A

A machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface. ICAO

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16
Q

What is the definition of an aeroplane?

A

Engine driven fixed wing aircraft heavier than air that is supported in flight by the reactions of the air against its wings. EASA

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17
Q

What is the definition of a helicopter?

A

Heavier than air craft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power driven rotors on a substantially vertical axis. EASA

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18
Q

What is a commerical air transport operation and what does it require to operate?

A

An aircraft operation to transport passengers, mail or cargo for renumeration or other valuable consideration.

Must hold an EU-Ops air operator certificate.

Normal commerical passenger ops

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19
Q

What is a public transport operation?

A

Any flight which carries passengers or cargo and where valuable consideration has been given or promised.

Defined in ART 255.

Does not include Commerical Air Transport

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20
Q

Define Uncertainity with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

A situation whereing doubt exists as to the safety of an a/c or a marine vessel and of the persons on board.

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21
Q

Define Alert with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

Situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft or marine vessel and of the persons on board.

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22
Q

Define distress with regards to the phases of an emergency.

A

Situation wherein there is a reasonable certainity that a vessel or other craft, including an a/c or a person is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

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23
Q

What is the definition of an Apron?

A

The part of an aerodrome provided for stationing of a/c for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers loading and unloading of cargo and parking.

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24
Q

What is the definition of a manoeuvring area?

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c.

EU 923/2012 and Cap 493

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25
Q

What is the definition of a runway?

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and tak-off of a/c.

EU 923/2012 and CAP 493

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26
Q

What is the definition of aerodrome traffic?

A

-All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. An aircraft operating in the vicinity includes but is not limited to a/c entering or leaving an ATZ.

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27
Q

Define a Flight Information Region

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which FIS and alerting service are provided.

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28
Q

Define a taxiway

A

A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of a/c and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another including;

  • Apron taxiways
  • Taxilane
  • Rapid exit taxiways
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29
Q

What is an apron taxiway?

A

A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron.

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30
Q

What is a taxilane?

A

A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide acess to a/c stands only.

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31
Q

Define a rapid exit taxiway

A

A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimising runway occupancy times.

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32
Q

Define Landing Area

A

That part of the movement area intended for landing or take-off of aircraft.

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33
Q

Define a safety management system

A

A systematic and explicit approach defining the activities by which safety management is undertaken by an organisation in order to achieve acceptable or tolerable safety.

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34
Q

What is the AAIB?

A

Air Accidents Investigation Board

  • Part of the dept for transport
  • Responsible for investigation of civil a/c accidents and serious incidents within the UK with the view to determining causes of air accidents/ incidents and making safety recommendations to prevent recurrence.
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35
Q

Define an AIRPROX

A

A situation in which in the opinion of the pilot or a controller, the distance between a/c as well as their relative positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the a/c involved was or may have been compromised.

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36
Q

Define SVFR

A

A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in met conditions below VMC.

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37
Q

Define identification

A

The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular aircraft is seen on a situation display and is positively identified. (ICAO)

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38
Q

Define Radar Contact

A

The situation which exists when the radar position symbol of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a situational display

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39
Q

Define identification

A

The act of correlating a particular position indication with a specific aircraft target by means of laid down procedures. It is possible to achieve identification and validation simultaneously

40
Q

Define Aerodrome Control Tower

A

A unit established to provide Air Traffic Control Service to aerodrome traffic

41
Q

Define vectoring

A

Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of an ATS surveillance system. • Vectoring shall be achieved by issuing specific headings to enable the aircraft to maintain the desired track.

42
Q
A
43
Q

Define QFE

A

Atmospehric pressure at offical aerodrome level. When QFE is set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter, the altimeter will read zero when the a/c is on the ground at the station.

44
Q

Define QNH

A

Atmospheric pressure at mean sea level. When set on the subscale of a pressure altimeter it will read aerodrome elevation when the aircraft is on the ground at the station.

45
Q

Define QNE

A

Height indicated on a pressure altimeter when the aircraft is on the ground at an airfield with a setting of 1013.2hPa set on the subscale.

46
Q

Define Height

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from a specified datum.

47
Q

Define Altitude

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.

48
Q

Define Elevation

A

The vertical distance of a point or level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level.

  • NOTE - Aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point on the landing area.*
  • A separate threshold elevation is published if it is 7ft or more BELOW aerodrome elevation and for precision approach runways.*
49
Q

Define a flight level

A

A surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to the specified pressure datum of 1013.25hPa and separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.

50
Q

Define the Transition Altitude

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. The transition altitude is located at a fixed level and published in aeronautical information publications.

51
Q

Define Flight level

A

The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude.

Located at least a nominal 1000 ft above the Transition Altitude to permit the TA and TL to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured.

Determined by;

  • In CAS, based on the QNH of the major aerodrome
  • Outside CAS, based on the QNH of the local aerodrome
52
Q

Define the Transition Level

A

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. (from 2017 at least 1000 feet courtesy of SI 2016/01)

53
Q

RT- define Acknowledge

A

“Let me know that you have received and understood this message.”

54
Q

R/T define AFFIRM

A

Yes, positive

55
Q

R/T define Break

A

I hereby indicate the separation between portions of the message

Only really used when it is not clear that this is the different portion of a message to the same a/c

56
Q

R/T define Break Break

A

I hereby indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.

57
Q

R/T define cancel

A

Annul the previously transmitted clearance.

58
Q

R/T define Check

A

“Examine a system or procedure.”

(Not to be used in any other context. No answer is normally expected.)

59
Q

R/T define cleared

A

“Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.”

60
Q

R/T define confirm

A

“I request verification of: (clearance, instruction, action, information).”

61
Q

R/T define Contact

A

“Establish communications with…” – Usually referring to details having been passed

62
Q

R/T define Correct

A

“True” or “Accurate”.

63
Q

R/T define Correction

A

“An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is…”

64
Q

R/T Define Disregard

A

Ignore

65
Q

R/T define “How do I read?”

A

“What is the readability of my transmission?”

66
Q

R/T define “I Say Again”

A

I repeat for clarity or emphasis

67
Q

R/T define Maintain

A

“Continue in accordance with the condition(s) specified” or in its literal sense, e.g. “Maintain VFR”.

68
Q

R/T define “Monitor”

A

“Listen out on (frequency).”

69
Q

R/T define Negative

A

No, not possible etc

70
Q

R/T define Readback

A

“Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received.”

71
Q

R/T define Recleared

A

“A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof.”

72
Q

R/T define “Report…”

A

“Pass me the following information…”

73
Q

R/T define request

A

“I should like to know…” or “I wish to obtain…”

74
Q

R/T define Roger

A

“I have received all of your last transmission.” Under no circumstances to be used in reply to a question requiring “READ BACK” or a direct answer in the affirmative (AFFIRM) or negative (NEGATIVE).

75
Q

R/T define Say Again

A

“Repeat all, or the following part, of your last transmission.”

76
Q

R/T define Speak Slower

A

“Reduce your rate of speech.”

77
Q

R/T define Standby

A

“Wait and I will call you.”

(The caller would normally re-establish contact if the delay is lengthy. STANDBY is not an approval or denial.)

78
Q

R/T define Unable

A

“I cannot comply with your request, instruction, or clearance.” (UNABLE is normally followed by a reason.)

79
Q

R/T define WILCO

A

“I understand your message and will comply with it.”

80
Q

R/T define “Words Twice”

A

a) As a request: “Communication is difficult. Please send every word, or group of words, twice.”
b) As information: “Since communication is difficult, every word, or group of words, in this message will be sent twice.

81
Q

Define an Air Traffic Control Clearance

A

Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit.

82
Q

Define a Danger Area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

In the context of the FUA Concept, some Danger Areas subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2 are established at ASM Level 1 as “AMC-Manageable Areas” and identified as such in AIP

83
Q

Define a Temporary reserved area

A

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance.

In the context of the FUA Concept, all TRAs are airspace reservations subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2.

84
Q

Define a Temporary Segregated Area

A

A defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.

In FUA, all TSAs are airspace reservations subject to management and allocation at ASM Level 2.

85
Q

With regards to Longitudinal Separation what is the definition of same track?

A

Where the angular difference of the tracks of both aircraft is less than 45°

86
Q

With regards to Longitudinal Separation what is the definition of recipricol tracks?

A

Opposite direction tracks and intersecting tracks (or portions thereof), the angular difference of which is more than 135º or less than 225º, and whose protection areas overlap

(Essentially where the track is opposite and within 45° of 180°)

87
Q

With regards to longitudinal separation what is the definition of crossing tracks?

A

Tracks which have an angular difference that is not specified as a same or recipricol track

88
Q

Define Coordination

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged. Effected when the parties concerned on the basis of known intelligence, agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining and ensuring implementation may be vested in one of the ATCOs.

89
Q

Define GAT

A

General Air Traffic

all flights conducted in accordance with the rules and procedures of ICAO and/or the national civil aviation regulations and legislation. (EUROCONTROL ASM Handbook)

90
Q

Define OAT

A

all flights which do not comply with the provisions stated for GAT and for which rules and procedures have been specified by appropriate national authorities

91
Q

R/T define freecall

A

Establish communication with…., your details have not been passed

92
Q

Define a Position Indication

A

A generic term for the visual indication, in nonsymbolic and/or symbolic form, on a situation display of the position of an aircraft, aerodrome vehicle or other object

93
Q

Define a Position Symbol

A

A visual indication in symbolic form, on a situation display, of the position of an aircraft, aerodrome vehicle or other object obtained after automatic processing of positional data derived from any source.

94
Q

Define a Radar Contact

A

The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a situation display.

95
Q

Define Radar Control

A

Term used to indicate that radar-derived information is employed directly in the provision of air traffic control service

96
Q

Define Situation Display

A

An electronic display depicting the position and movement of aircraft and other information as required.

UK ATC BASIC EU340 (20 decks)

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