Tumor Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for well-differentiated liposarcoma?

A

Marginal excision without radiation

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2
Q

What is the genetic basis of well-differentiated liposarcoma?

A

MDM2 amplification

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3
Q

t(12;16) is associated with what tumor?

A

Myxoid liposarcoma

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4
Q

Expression of PAX3-FKHR fusion gene occurs in which tumor?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma (alveolar)

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5
Q

Enchondromas are benign latent cartilaginous tumors composed of […] cartilage

A

hyaline

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6
Q

Enchondromas undergo malignant transformation in <1% to […]

A

chondrosarcoma

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7
Q

Maffucci’s syndrome is distinguished by soft-tissue […]

A

angiomas

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8
Q

Maffucci’s syndrome has increased risk of […] malignancies

A

visceral (astrocytoma, GI malignancy)

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9
Q

Overall risk of developing any malignancy with Maffucci’s syndrome is up to […] percent

A

100

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10
Q

What is the operative treatment for enchondromas?

A

intralesional curettage and bone grafting

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11
Q

What is the risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma in Ollier’s disease?

A

25-30%

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12
Q

The most common location of secondary chondrosarcoma is the […]

A

pelvis

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13
Q

Secondary chondrosarcomas are most commonly a […]-grade tumor

A

low

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14
Q

In MHE, mutations affect the […] chondrocytes of the physis

A

prehypertrophic

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15
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of MHE?

A

autosomal dominant

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16
Q

In MHE, a mutation in the EXT gene decreases production of […] by chondrocytes found at the physis.

A

heparin sulfate

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17
Q

Which genetic mutation in MHE has a more severe form?

A

EXT-1

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18
Q

In osteochondromas, do sessile or pedunculated lesions have a higher risk of malignant transformation?

A

sessile

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19
Q

In adults with osteochondromas, a cartilage cap greater than […] is increased risk of chondrosarcoma

A

2 cm

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20
Q

What is the treatment for secondary chondrosarcoma?

A

wide surgical resection

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21
Q

Risk of malignant transformation is about […] percent with MHE develop secondary chondrosarcoma

A

5-10

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22
Q

Mesenchymal chondrosarcomas are characterized by […] fusion protein

A

HEY1-NCOA2

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23
Q

Mutations of […] are identified in primary and secondary conventional chondrosarcomas.

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1 and IDH2)

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24
Q

Clear cell chondrosarcoma has a strong predilection for the […] of long bones

A

epiphysis

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25
Q

The most common locations of conventional chondrosarcoma include the […] (25% of all cases)

A

pelvis

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26
Q

What is the treatment for grade 2 or 3 chondrosarcoma?

A

Wide surgical resection

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27
Q

What is the treatment for chondrosarcoma of the pelvis, regardless of the grade?

A

Wide surgical resection

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28
Q

In chondrosarcomas, increased […] activity has been shown to directly correlate with the rate of recurrence

A

telomerase

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29
Q

Which serum labs, if elevated, can suggest a a more aggressive osteosarcoma?

A

LDH and ALP

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30
Q

What are the standard chemotherapy agents for osteosarcoma?

A

methotrexate, doxorubicin (adriamycin), cisplatin +/- ifosfamide

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31
Q

In osteosarcoma, greater than […] percent necrosis after neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is good prognostic sign

A

90

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32
Q

What is the MOA of methotrexate?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibitingdihydrofolate reductase

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33
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate?

A

mucositis, myelosuppression

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34
Q

What is the MOA of doxorubicin?

A

Blocks DNA/RNA synthesis by inhibiting topoisomerase II (pearl: fluoroquinolones inhibit prokaryotic form of topoisomerase II)

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35
Q

What are the side effects of doxorubicin?

A

cardiotoxicity

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36
Q

What is the MOA of cisplatin?

A

DNA disruption by covalent binding

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37
Q

What are the side effects of cisplatin?

A

renal failure, hearing loss, neurotoxicity

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38
Q

What is the MOA of ifosfamide?

A

DNA-alkylating agent

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39
Q

What are the side effects of ifosfamide?

A

hemorrhagic cystitis; renal failure

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40
Q

Osteosarcoma routinely expresses […], which is an INHIBITOR of the JNK radiation-induced apoptosis pathway and is thus a radioresistant tumor

A

NFkB

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41
Q

What are two known risk factors for infection following endoprosthesis reconstruction for osteosarcoma?

A

> 8 hours of surgery; >14 days of drain use

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42
Q

What is the most common reason for enodoprosthetic reconstruction failure for osteosarcoma?

A

aseptic loosening

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43
Q

What is the anatomic location of chondroblastomas?

A

epiphysis of long bones

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44
Q

Chondroblastomas almost exclusively arise in the […] of skeletally immature long bones

A

epiphysis

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45
Q

In chondroblastoma, chondroblasts produce areas of chondroid matrix, but […] cartilage is rarely produced

A

hyaline

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46
Q

Are chondroblastomas benign or malignant?

A

benign (but locally destructive)

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47
Q

What additional chest imaging should be obtained in chondroblastomas?

A

Chest XR; Chest CT only if CXR shows mets

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48
Q

“coffee bean” nuclei are classic finding in what bony tumor?

A

Chondroblastoma

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49
Q

Which bony tumors are positive for vimentin, neuron-specific enolase,S100+, and Sox9

A

Chondroblastomas

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50
Q

Chondroblastomas are positive for what four cellular markers?

A

Vimentin, neuron specific enolase, S100, and Sox9

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51
Q

Bony tumor that is: diaphyseal, rarely epiphyseal; nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs; nidus on CT

A

Osteoid osteoma

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52
Q

Bony tumor that is: multicystic bone lesion with fluid-fluid levels on MRI

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst

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53
Q

Is a giant cell tumor typically in skeletally mature or immature patients?

A

mature

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54
Q

Is chondroblastoma typically in skeletally mature or immature patients?

A

Immature

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55
Q

What is the standard of care for most chondroblastomas?

A

Intralesional curettage, bone grafting, local adjuvant (phenol, cryotherapy, HPO, etc)

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56
Q

In chondroblastoma, surveillance radiographs should be performed for […] years to monitor for local recurrence

A

5

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57
Q

What lab is a marker of prognosis/disease severity in Multiple Myeloma?

A

beta-2 microglobulin

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58
Q

Tumor with histology showing: round plasma cells with an eccentric nucleus, prominent nucleolus, and clock face organization of chromatin

A

Multiple myeloma

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59
Q

Greater than […] percent plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy is needed for diagnosis of multiple myeloma

A

10

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60
Q

What is the treatment for solitary plasmacytoma?

A

external beam irradiation (45-50 Gy)

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61
Q

What is the treatment for chondrosarcoma?

A

wide surgical resection

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62
Q

NOF most commonly occur in the […] of long bones

A

metaphysis

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63
Q

What congenital syndrome has multiple NOFs, cafe au lait pigmentation, and mental retardation?

A

Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome

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64
Q

Bony tumor with histology of: fibroblastic spindle cells in whirled or storiform pattern and positive for hemosiderin

A

NOF

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65
Q

What is the treatment for NOF?

A

Observation

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66
Q

What is the classification of unicameral bone cysts?

A

active or latent

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67
Q

In a latent unicameral bone cysts, […] separates cyst from physis

A

normal bone

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68
Q

An active unicameral bone cyst is […] to the physis

A

adjacent (~1cm)

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69
Q

A “fallen leaf” sign is pathognomic for what bony tumor?

A

Unicameral bone cyst

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70
Q

Aneurysm bone cysts typically have a transverse diameter […] than the epiphysis

A

wider

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71
Q

Unicameral bone cysts have a transverse diameter is […] than the epiphysis

A

smaller

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72
Q

What is the most commonly described translocation of an aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

TRE17-USP6

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73
Q

What is the treatment for an aneurysmal bone cyst without fracture?

A

Curettage, bone grafting, +/- local adjuvant (phenol, argon beam, liquid nitrogen)

74
Q

What is the treatment for aneurysmal bone cyst with fracture?

A

non-operative, allow to heal, then treat with curettage + bone grafting

75
Q

Fibrous dysplasia is a developmental abnormality caused by a […] protein mutation

76
Q

Patients with fibrous dysplasia and subsequent malignant transformation have […] overall survival rate compared with primary sarcomas

77
Q

Medical management with […] is indicated in symptomatic patients with Paget’s disease.

A

bisphosphonates

78
Q

Increased […] is the primary cellular abnormality in Paget’s disease.

A

osteoclastic bone resorption

79
Q

What is the primary cellular abnormality in Paget’s Disease

A

Increased osteoclastic bone resorption

80
Q

What viruses are associated with Paget’s disease?

A

Paramyxovirus; RSV

81
Q

In Paget’s disease, serum calcium levels are […]

82
Q

Paget’s osteoclasts are […] with […] nuclei than typical osteoclasts

A

larger; more

83
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in Paget’s disease due to risk of secondary osteosarcoma?

A

Teriperatide

84
Q

What is the most common complication of a TKA in a patient with Paget’s disease?

A

Malignment (pagetoid bone increases risk)

85
Q

What is the most common complication of a THA in a patient with Paget’s disease?

A

Bleeding (treat preoperatively with meds)

86
Q

Heterotopic ossification occurs between what two structures?

A

muscle and capsule

87
Q

What start point has a higher risk of heterotopic ossification in antegrade femoral nailing?

A

piriformis

88
Q

Which approach to the acetabulum has the highest rate of HO?

A

Extended iliofemoral

89
Q

Which approach to the femoral head has the highest rate of HO?

90
Q

Do cemented or cementless components have a higher risk of HO in THA?

A

Cementless

91
Q

Which approach in a THA has the lowest risk for HO?

92
Q

What dose of indomethacin is used to prevent HO?

A

75 mg/day x 10days-6 weeks

93
Q

What genetic defect is seen in fibrous dysplasia?

A

G protein; affects the cAMP

94
Q

In Achondroplasia, a mutation in the FGFR3 gene leads to abnormal […] production by chondroblasts

95
Q

Osteopetrosis is an inherited metabolic bone disease caused by defective […] resorption of immature bone

A

osteoclastic

96
Q

Prior to excision of HO, which lab should be normalized?

A

ALP (CRP could also be a marker)

97
Q

Giant Cell Tumors are benign, aggressive tumors typically found in the […] of long bones

98
Q

What is the most common location of giant cell tumor?

A

Distal femur

99
Q

In giant cell tumor, which locations have the higher risk of metastasis?

A

hand and wrist

100
Q

In giant cell tumors, overexpression of […] by mononuclear stromal cells considered the instrumental pathogenicpathway

A

RANK-Ligand

101
Q

What two medications can be used in the treatment of giant cell tumor?

A

denosumab; bisphosphonate

102
Q

What is the treatment for giant cell tumor?

A

curettage, bone grafting, local adjuvant (phenol, cryo, argon beam, etc)

103
Q

What is the MOA of denosumab?

A

monoclonal antibody against RANK-Ligand

104
Q

Giant cell tumor can undergo malignant transformation to what tumor?

A

high grade sarcoma

105
Q

What is the translocation of Ewing Saroma?

106
Q

What is the fusion protein of Ewing sarcoma?

107
Q

Positive CD99 is seen in what tumor?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

108
Q

What is the treatment for Ewing sarcoma?

A

neoadjuvant chemo + wide surgical resection + adjuvant chemo +/- radiation

109
Q

Patients with Ewing sarcoma and lung mets should undergo what additional adjuvant therapy?

110
Q

What chemotherapy agents are used in Ewing sarcoma?

A

vincristine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide

111
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator in Ewing sarcoma?

112
Q

Are lung mets or bone mets a better prognostic indicator for Ewing sarcoma?

113
Q

Ewing sarcoma tumors greater than […] in size are a poor prognostic indicator

114
Q

Age greater than […] is a poor prognostic indicator in Ewing sarcoma.

115
Q

A […] mutation in addition to t(11:22) translocation is a worse prognostic indicator

116
Q

What are the four most common bony sites for metastatic cancer?

A

spine >pelvis >proximal femur > humerus

117
Q

acral (distal extremities) lesions are rare, but when present are most commonly from […] carcinoma

118
Q

What cell adhesion molecule (CAM) on tumor cells modulates release from primary tumor focus into bloodstream?

A

E cadherin

119
Q

It metastatic cancer, tumor cells secrete […] which stimulates the release of RANKL from osteoblasts

A

PTHrP (parathyroid related protein)

120
Q

Which two metastatic cancers cause osteoblastic lesions?

A

prostate and breast

121
Q

Tumor secretion of […] leads to metastatic osteoblastic lesions

A

endothelin-1

122
Q

What is the valveless venous plexus of the spine that provides a route of metastasis?

A

Batson’s vertebral plexus

123
Q

A Mirel’s score greater than […] indicates prophylactic fixation

124
Q

What is the best predictor for fracture healing due to a metastatic pathologic fracture?

A

life expectancy >6 months

125
Q

Radiation therapy for metastatic pathologic fracture should begin […] weeks post surgery

126
Q

Which bony mets should undergo preoperative embolization?

A

renal and thyroid cancer

127
Q

What translocation is associated with clear cell sarcoma?

128
Q

What translocation is associated with synovial sarcoma?

129
Q

What translocation is associated with chondrosarcoma?

130
Q

What translocation is associated with myxoid liposarcoma?

131
Q

What is the most common site for mets in giant cell tumor of the bone?

132
Q

What medication has been found to be most effective at reducing skeletal morbidity in giant cell tumor of the bone?

A

Denosumab (more effective the bisphosphonates)

133
Q

What fusion protein is seen in synovial sarcoma?

134
Q

Which drug is a human monoclonal antibody which targets receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-Β ligand (RANKL)?

135
Q

Is renal cell carcinoma radiosensitive?

136
Q

Is renal cell carcinoma chemosensitive?

137
Q

Who’s soft tissue sarcomas metastasize to the lymph nodes?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma, angiosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelia sarcoma, synovial sarcoma

138
Q

A poor prognostic indicator for soft tissue sarcoma is a mass greater than […] cm

139
Q

What additional CT imaging is needed for myxoid liposarcoma?

A

CT chest, abdomen, pelvis

140
Q

What is the standard treatment for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Wide surgical resection + radiation

141
Q

What is the treatment for synovial sarcoma?

A

Wide surgical resection + radiotherapy + chemotherapy

142
Q

What is the first line treatment for lung Mets in soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Surgical resection

143
Q

In soft tissue sarcoma, resection of greater than […] cm of periosteum increases the risk of fracture and prophylactic fixation should be considered

144
Q

What is the standard preop dose of radiation therapy for soft tissue sarcomas?

145
Q

What is the standard post dose of radiation therapy for soft tissue sarcomas?

146
Q

Pre-operative radiotherapy for soft tissue sarcoma is associated with a […] percent risk of wound complications.

147
Q

Following resection of soft tissue sarcoma, the most common location for recurrence of low grade STS is […]

148
Q

What is the most common mistake in treatment of soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Unplanned excision

149
Q

What is the most common location for PVNS?

A

Anterior knee (patellofemoral compartment)

150
Q

PVNS is caused by over expression of […] gene

151
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of PVNS?

A

Diagnostic arthroscopy

152
Q

What is the MOA pexidartinib?

A

CSF-1 receptor antagonist

153
Q

What medication can be used for PVNS?

A

Pexidartinib

155
Q

Translocation t(X;18) is seen in what tumor?

A

Synovial sarcoma

156
Q

What is the translocation mutation fusion protein seen in synovial sarcoma?

157
Q

What is the most common sarcoma of the foot?

A

Synovial sarcoma

158
Q

What chromosomal translocation is observed in synovial sarcoma?

159
Q

Which fusion protein observed in synovial sarcoma has a better survival prognosis?

160
Q

What type of biopsy should be performed for synovial sarcoma?

A

Core need or incision (not FNA)

161
Q

What is the treatment for synovial sarcoma?

A

Wide resection + radiotherapy

162
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for synovial sarcoma?

A

SYT-SSX fusion protein type

163
Q

Extra-abdominal desmoid tumors are 100% positive for what genetic receptor?

A

Estrogen receptor beta

164
Q

What is the most common type of liposarcoma?

A

Myxoid liposarcoma

165
Q

Is myxoid liposarcoma low, intermediate, or high grade?

A

Intermediate

166
Q

What additional CT imaging is used for staging in myxoid liposarcoma?

A

CT CAP with contrast

167
Q

Immature lipoblasts (signet ring type cells) are seen in what type of tumor?

A

Liposarcoma

168
Q

What is the treatment for atypical lipomatous tumors?

A

Marginal resection without radiotherapy

169
Q

Myxoid chondrosarcoma is associated with what translocation?

170
Q

Clear cell sarcoma is associated with which translocation?

172
Q

Bone cells are derived from undifferentiated […] cells

A

Mesenchymal

173
Q

Osteoclasts originate from […] cells

A

Myeloid hematopoietic cells

174
Q

[…] are site of bone resorption where ruffled borer meets bone surface.

A

Howship’s lacunae

175
Q

Which osseous cell secretes tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase?

A

Osteoclast

176
Q

What is the major proteolytic enzyme that digests organic matrix at the ruffled border?

A

Cathepsin K

177
Q

Which sequence of extracellular bone proteins directly allows binding to integrins?

A

Arg-Gly-Asp (RGD)

178
Q

Does calcitonin activate or inhibit osteoclasts?

179
Q

Which somite layer becomes the vertebral bodies and annulus fibrosus?

A

Sclerotome

180
Q

Which embryonic structure forms the spinal cord?

A

Neural tube

181
Q

Which embryonic structure forms the anterior vertebral bodies and nucleus pulposus?

182
Q

The nucleus pulposus is formed by what embryonic structure?

183
Q

The annulus fibrosus is formed by what embryonic structure?

A

Sclerotome