Recon Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major criteria from MSIS?

A

Sinus tract to prosthesis, or positive isolated pathogen on two separate cultures

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2
Q

An MSIS score greater than what indicates a prosthetic joint infection?

A

> /= 6

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3
Q

Catastrophic failure is most commonly seen in what total joint arthroplasty?

A

Total knee arthroplasty (less common in THA and TSA)

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4
Q

Sliding wear is most pronounced in what type of total knee design?

A

Cruciate retaining with flat PE insert

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5
Q

In TKA, a tight […] gap hastens sliding wear effect on the polyethylene insert

A

flexion

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6
Q

In TKA, a PE thickness of less than […] mm is associated with catastrophic PE failure

A

8

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7
Q

[…] alignment of knee associated with catastrophic PE failure

A

Varus

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8
Q

What is the most common form of polyethylene sterilization?

A

Gamma radiation

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9
Q

Cross-linked polyethylene improves resistance to what two types of wear?

A

Adhesive and abrasive wear

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10
Q

Oxidized polyethylene leads to early failure due to what three characteristics?

A
  1. Subsurface delamination
  2. Pitting
  3. Fatigue strength/cracking
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11
Q

What mechanical properties decrease with cross-linked polyethylene?

A

Ductility and fatigue resistance

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12
Q

What packing elements are used to obtain cross-linked polyethylene?

A

Argon and nitrogen

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13
Q

What is the most effective means of removing free radicals from polyethylene?

A

Thermal stabilization / remelting

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14
Q

What are the two methods used to removal free radicals from polyethylene?

A

Thermal stabilization (remelting) and annealing

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15
Q

What method changes the polyethylene from its partial crystalline state to its amorphous state?

A

Thermal stabilization / remelting

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16
Q

What is a disadvantage of thermal stabilization/remelting of polyethylene?

A

Reduces mechanic properties

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17
Q

What method of removal of free radicals from polyethylene maintains the mechanical properties of the polyethylene?

A

Annealing

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18
Q

Which method of free radical removal from polyethylene occurs above the polyethylene melting point?

A

Thermal stabilization / remelting

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19
Q

Which method of free radical removal from polyethylene occurs below the PE melting point?

A

Annealing

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20
Q

Which method of free radical removal from polyethylene is less effective and why?

A

Annealing; process occurs below the PE melting point

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21
Q

Which method of removal of free radicals from polyethylene leaves the PE more susceptible to oxidative stress and why?

A

Annealing; process occurs below the PE melting point

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22
Q

Irradiation of polyethylene in […] or […] minimizes oxidation

A

An inert gas or vacuum

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23
Q

Calcium steerage additive to polyethylene leads to […] defects in PE

A

Fusion

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24
Q

What is the best PE fabrication process?

A

Direct compression molding / net shape

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25
Q

Use of direct compression molding of PE results in less [… …] formation and propagation compared to ram bar extrusion

A

Fatigue crack

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26
Q

What is the incidence of PJI in a primary TKA?

A

1-2%

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27
Q

What is the incidence of PJI in a primary THA?

A

0.3-1.3%

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28
Q

What is the incidence of PJI in a revision TKA?

A

5-6%

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29
Q

What is the incidence of PJI in a revision THA?

A

3-4%

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30
Q

DMARDs should be stopped […] weeks prior to TJA

A

4-6 weeks

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31
Q

In TJA, systemic antibiotics should be administer within […] to incision, and greater than […] prior to tourniquet.

A

30 minutes; 10 minutes

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32
Q

[…] airflow systems can help prevent PJI

A

Vertical laminar

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33
Q

What organism is most commonly associated with acute THA PJIs?

A

S aureus

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34
Q

Acute PJI occurs within [..] weeks of surgery

A

3-6

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35
Q

Bioflim created by all bacteria forms on implant within […] weeks

A

4

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36
Q

Biofilm is composed of […] percent cells and […] percent glycocalyx

A

15%; 85%

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37
Q

In PJI, […] allows biofilm to adhere to prosthesis and seal off infection to protect bacteria from host immune system?

A

Glycocalyx

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38
Q

[…] refers to the concentration of bacteria needed in order to shift the colony’s focus away from replication and toward biofilm production

A

quorum

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39
Q

Prosthetic explanation is indicated with infection greater than […] weeks due to biofilm

A

4

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40
Q

What is the most common organism in chronic THA PJIs?

A

S epidermidis

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41
Q

On a bone scan, Tc-99m detects […]

A

Inflammation

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42
Q

On a bone scan, what substance is used to detect leukocytes?

A

In-111 (indium)

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43
Q

A CRP above 10 mg/L or D-dimer above 860 ng/mL is how many points on the MSIS criteria for PJI?

A

2 points

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44
Q

On the MSIS criteria, an elevated ESR is how many points?

A

1 point

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45
Q

A synovial WBC above […] is 3 points on the MSIS criteria

A

3,000 cells

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46
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific marker forPJI?

A

Αlpha defensin

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47
Q

Elevated synovial PMNs above […] percent is 2 points on the MSIS PJI criteria

A

80%

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48
Q

An elevated synovial CRP above […] is 1 point on the MSIS PJI criteria

A

1 point

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49
Q

CRP peaks […] days after surgery and returns to normal at […] days

A

2-3 days; 21 days

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50
Q

An ESR peaks […] days after surgery and returns to normal at […] days

A

5-7 days; 90 days

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51
Q

WBC greater than […] and PMN percentage greater than […] on synovial aspiration of a MoM hip is suggestive of infection

A

WBC above 4350 and PMN above 85%

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52
Q

When assessing for PJI, one should wait […] weeks for repeat aspiration after completing antibiotics

A

2 weeks

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53
Q

Αlpha- defensin is a peptide released by […]

A

Neutrophils

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54
Q

A DAIR procedure can be indicated if the initial TJA was completed […] weeks prior

A

3-4

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55
Q

A DAIR procedure can be indicated if the onset of symptoms to treatment is within […] hours

A

48-72 hours

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56
Q

When performing a two-stage replacement arthroplasty for PJI, delayed reimplantation greater than […] weeks has a 70-90 percent success rate

A

6

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57
Q

The use of static antibiotic spacers in PJIs are indicated with:

A
  1. flap coverage
  2. ligamentous instability
  3. extensive bone loss
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58
Q

Compared to static antibiotic spacers, articulating spacers have […] functional outcomes and […] rate of infection recurrence

A

equivalent; equivalent

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59
Q

For antibiotic spacers, each 40 g bag of cement should have […] g of vancomycin and […] g of tobramycin added

A

3 grams of vanco; 4 grams of cobra

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60
Q

Antibiotic spacer elution is dependent on what three characteristics?

A
  1. antibiotic concentration
  2. surface area (beads increase area)
  3. cement porosity
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61
Q

When making an antibiotic spacer, adding vancomycin powder after cement powder + liquid monomer mixed for […] results in greater elution

A

30 seconds

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62
Q

In PJI, there is a poorer prognosis for two-stage revision for […] organisms

A

methicillin-resistant

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63
Q

Is there a higher rate of hip OA amongst males or females?

A

Females

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64
Q

In hip OA, articular cartilage water content is […]

A

increased

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65
Q

In hip osteoarthritis, what enzymes are responsible for cartilage matrix digestion?

A

matrix metalloproteases (MMPs)

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66
Q

What is stromelysin?

A

matrix metalloprotease; responsible for cartilage matrix digestion in hip OA

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67
Q

What inflammatory cytokines are secreted by synoviocytes and increase MMP synthesis?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a

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68
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of hip OA?

A

non-mendelian

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69
Q

On the histology of hip OA, there is cartilage destruction with […] of subchondral bone

A

eburnation

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70
Q

A walking stick decreases the hip joint reaction forces on the affected hip when placed in the […] upper extremity

A

contralateral

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71
Q

Hip arthroscopy is not recommended for Tönnis grade […] radiographic arthrosis due to high rate of conversion to hip arthroplasty

A

2

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72
Q

According to the most recent literature, WBC greater than […] and PMN percentage greater than […] should be considered suggestive of infection in a TKA.

A

1100 cells/mm3 and 64 percent PMNs

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73
Q

The process of irradiation of polyethylene causes […] which leads to cross-linking and increased […] resistance

A

free radical formation; wear

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74
Q

A surgical site infection (SSI) with an implant in place is defined as an infection related to the surgery that occurs within […] of the index procedure.

A

one year

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75
Q

According to the AAOS Guidelines for the diagnosis of hip and knee periprosthetic joint infections (PJI), there is a […] recommendation for performing a joint aspiration in patients with an abnormal ESR and/or CRP.

A

STRONG

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76
Q

A BMI great than […] increases risk of postoperative joint infection.

A

40

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77
Q

An albumin less than […] indicates malnutrition and increases risk of postoperative joint infection

A

<3.5 g/dL

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78
Q

Retention of a Foley catheter for long than […] increased the risk of postoperative joint infection

A

1 day

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79
Q

The gene that confers methicillin resistance in MRSA is […]

A

mecA

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80
Q

Compared to a cruciate retaining knee prosthesis, an anterior stabilized prosthesis has what effect on the contact area and what effect on the stability in PCL deficient knees?

A

increased contact area (due to increased conformity) and increased stability

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81
Q

In hip osteonecrosis, bilateral hips are involved […] percent of the time

A

80

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82
Q

In idiopathic avascular necrosis of the hip […] is the final common idiopathic pathway

A

intravascular coagulation

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83
Q

AVN due to trauma is due to injury to the […]

A

femoral head blood supply

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84
Q

If reduced within 6 hours, the rate of AVN in a traumatic hip dislocation is […] percent

A

2-10

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85
Q

Presence of […] on MRI is predicitve of worsening pain and future progression of hip AVN

A

bone marrow edema

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86
Q

Bisphosphonates are indicated in the treatment during what stage of hip AVN?

A

indicated for precollapse AVN (Ficat stages 0-II)

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87
Q

Vascularized free-fibula graft for the treatment of hip AVN is less predictable in patients greater than […] years old

A

40

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88
Q

THA in young patients with osteonecrosis, there is a higher rate of […] wear of the polyethylene liner and a higher rate of […] than compared to older patients who have THA for osteoarthritis

A

linear; osteolysis

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89
Q

Risk of femoral head collapse with osteonecrosis is based on the […] angle

A

modified Kerboul combined necrotic

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90
Q

A combined necrotic angle of less than […] degrees on the modified Kerboul combined necrotic is classified as low risk of femoral head collapse

A

190

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91
Q

A combined necrotic angle between […] degrees on the modified Kerboul combined necrotic is classified as moderate risk of femoral head collapse

A

190-240

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92
Q

A combined necrotic angle of greater than […] degrees on the modified Kerboul combined necrotic is classified as high risk of femoral head collapse

A

240 degrees

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93
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to hip resurfacing?

A

Poor femoral head or neck bone stock (eg cystic changes in head)

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94
Q

Coxa […] is a relative contraindication to hip resurfacing due to increased risk for FNF

A

vara

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95
Q

Compared to THA, the stability of hip resurfacing is better, equivocal, or worse?

A

better

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96
Q

Compared to THA, hip resurfacing have […] restoration of hip biomechanics with […] risk of limb length discrepancy

A

improved; lower

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97
Q

Hip resurfacing has better outcomes when used in young, larger males with excellent bone stock treated for […]

A

osteoarthritis than for dysplasia or osteonecrosis

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98
Q

What is the most common early (within 3 years) complication of hip resurfacing?

A

Femoral neck fracture

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99
Q

What is the most common cause for revision in acute post-operative period (20 weeks) following a hip resurfacing?

A

femoral neck fracture

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100
Q

The incidence of heterotypic ossification in hip resurfacing is […] than a THA.

A

higher; due to larger exposeure

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101
Q

Most cases of metallosis in hip resurfacing is related to […] of the implant

A

edge loading

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102
Q

The dislocation risk of hip resurfacing is […] than convention THA

A

lower

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103
Q

Dual mobility liners have a unique risk of liner […] in the acetabular cup.

A

malseating

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104
Q

In press-fit femoral stem, […] provide initial stability

A

compression hoop stresses

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105
Q

In the setting of THA, intra-operative fractures are more likely to occur when using which femoral stem type and through which approach?

A

press-fit through a lateral approach

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106
Q

Titanium is […] stiff than cobalt-chrome or stainless steel stems

A

less

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107
Q

Cemented titanium stems leads to […] corrosion

A

crevice

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108
Q

MoM debris particles are […] than those of MoP

A

smaller (but more numerous)

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109
Q

In metal-on-metal-related delayed type hypersensitivity, the EFFECTOR cell is […], while the most common/participating cell is the […].

A

T-cell; Macrophage

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110
Q

What hypersensitivity reaction is seen with MoM hips?

A

Type IV - delayed type hypersensitivity

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111
Q

Delayed Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by what cell?

A

T - cell

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112
Q

What is the most participatory cell in the delayed Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Macrophages (have been activated by T - cells)

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113
Q

In THA, what bearing surface has the best wear properties of all bearing surfaces?

A

ceramic on ceramic

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114
Q

[…] a crescent shaped line on a ceramic femoral head caused by contact between the femoral head and rim of the cup during partial subluxation

A

Stripe wear

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115
Q

Which bearing surface in THA is standard of care?

A

ceramic on polyethylene

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116
Q

MoM pseudotumor is also known as?

A

aseptic lymphocyte-dominant vasculitis-associated lesion

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117
Q

What is the incidence of pseudo tumor in MoM THA?

A

10-15%

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118
Q

A high acetabulum inclination angle greater than […] degrees is a risk factor for developing MoM pseudotumor.

A

55 degrees

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119
Q

What is the predominant cell type in MoM pseudotumor?

A

lymphocytes

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120
Q

In MoM hips, serum metal ion concentration highest at […] months following index surgery

A

12-24

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121
Q

In MoM hips, serum values great than […] is generally an indication for advanced imaging with MRI

A

7 parts per billion (ppb, or ug/L)

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122
Q

In THA revisions, […] transfer can be used to reconstruct deficient abductor mechanism

A

gluteus maximus

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123
Q

14-20 percent of revision THAs performed due to a MoM pseudotumor require a 2nd operation within […] years

A

5

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124
Q

What is the most likely cause of a pseudotumor in a well-positioned total hip arthroplasty?

A

Fretting and corrosion reaction from the taper

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125
Q

[…] approach to the hip has decreased dislocation rate when compared to posterior approach in numerous studies

A

direct anterior (Smith-Peterson)

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126
Q

With a direct anterior approach to the hip there is no difference in gait biomechanics at […] months compared to other approaches

A

3

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127
Q

When performing a direct anterior approach, the […] retractor can result in femoral nerve injury

A

anterior

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128
Q

In the approach for a THA, intraoperative fracture rate thought to be higher with what approach?

A

direct anterior (Smith-Peterson)

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129
Q

Which THA approach violates the abductor muscles and results in a post-operative limp?

A

Anterolateral approach and direct lateral approach

130
Q

What is the inter-muscular interval for an anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip?

A

tensor fascia lata and gluteus medius

131
Q

Which approach for a THA utilizes the interval between tensor fascia lata and gluteus medius?

A

Anterolateral approach (Watson-Jones)

132
Q

Which approach for a THA splits gluteus medius and vastus lateralis?

A

Direct lateral approach (Hardinge)

133
Q

Which approach for a THA has a higher rate of heterotopic ossification?

A

Direct lateral approach (Hardinge)

134
Q

In the setting of THA, an extended trochanteric osteotomy requires which type of stem?

A

Diaphyseal engaging

135
Q

In THA, adding a skirt […] the head-neck ratio

136
Q

[…] head-neck ratios allow greater arc range of motion prior to impingement

A

Larger (ie a larger femoral head)

137
Q

In THA, what is the definition of jump distance?

A

amount of translation prior to dislocation

138
Q

In THA, increasing neck shaft angle (more valgus) compared to native anatomy can […] leg length and […] offset

A

increase; decrease

139
Q

In THA, decreasing neck-shaft angle (more varus) compared to native anatomy can […] leg length and […] offset

A

decrease; increase

140
Q

Medialization of the acetabular cup […] the moment arm of the abductors and […] the joint reactive force.

A

increases; decreases

141
Q

The recommendations are femoral component anteversion of […] degrees

142
Q

The recommendations are acetabulum anteversion of […] degrees

143
Q

The recommendations are acetabulum abduction of […] degrees

144
Q

In a THA, the recommended combined version is what?

A

37 degrees of anteversion

145
Q

What is the definition of offset in regards to THA?

A

the perpendicular distance from the center of rotation of the femoral head to the axis of the femur

146
Q

In THA, increased offset leads to […] impingement

147
Q

In THA, increased offset leads to […] joint reactive forces

148
Q

In THA, decreasing neck-shaft angle leads to […] offset

149
Q

Underreaming by […] can increased the risk for intraoperative acetabulum fractures.

150
Q

If an intraoperative acetabulum fracture occurs and the posterior column is compromised, […] is most stable construct

A

ORIF + revision

151
Q

What is the treatment for intra-operative periprosthetic longitudinal calcar split?

A

stem removal, cables, reinsertion (can ignore if fully coated porous stem was used)

152
Q

In the setting of intra-operative periprosthetic femur fracture, what is the treatment for a cortical diaphyseal perforation?

A

Fully porous coated stem(bypass by 2 cortical diameters)

153
Q

In the setting of THA, cementless prosthesis tend to fracture in the first […] months

154
Q

Early postoperative periprosthetic femur fractures are likely caused by stress risers during […] and […]

A

reaming and broaching

155
Q

In early postoperative periprosthetic femur fractures, […] stems cause proximal fractures

A

wedge-fit tapered designed

156
Q

In early postoperative periprosthetic femur fractures, […] stems tend to cause a distal split in the femoral shaft

A

cylindrical fully porous-coated

157
Q

Cementless femoral prostheses tend to fracture […] in the post operative period; whereas cemented femoral prostheses tend to fracture […]

A

early (first 6 months); late (5 years out)

158
Q

Vancouver A2 fractures with less than […] of displacement can be treated non-operatively with partial weight bearing

159
Q

70 percent of prosthetic hip dislocations occur within […] post-operatively

A

first month

160
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for prosthetic hip dislocation?

A

prior hip surgery

161
Q

A BMI less than […] or a BMI greater than […] increases the risk for a prosthetic hip dislocation

162
Q

Which bearings surfaces increase the risk for prosthetic hip dislocation?

A

Metal on poly, or metal on metal

163
Q

Do cemented or uncemented hip components have an increased risk for prosthetic hip dislocation?

164
Q

In a posterior approach to the hip, what can decrease the risk of a prosthetic hip dislocation?

A

repair of the capsule and external rotators

165
Q

Ideal positioning of acetabular component is […] degrees of abduction and […] degrees anteversion

166
Q

Utilization of a lateralized acetabular liner increases […]

A

femoral offset

167
Q

Utilization of a lateral acetabular liner […] femoral offset

168
Q

What is the most common cause for medical malpractice litigation following THA?

A

Sciatic nerve palsy

169
Q

The sciatic nerve is closest to the acetabulum at the level of the […]

170
Q

Which gender is at greater risk for sciatic motor nerve palsy with a THA?

171
Q

What four patient factors increase the risk for a sciatic motor nerve palsy?

A

female gender, DDH, pre-existing lumbar stenosis, post-traumatic arthritis

172
Q

What five surgical factors increase the risk for a sciatic motor nerve palsy?

A

revision surgery, limb lengthening, surgeon self-rated procedure as difficult, operative time, cementless femoral fixation

173
Q

In a THA sciatic nerve palsy, […] percent recover full strength after complete palsy

174
Q

What type of corrosion is caused by an electrochemical transfer of electrons between dissimilar metals?

175
Q

What type of corrosion is due to relative micromotion between two materials causing wear?

176
Q

[…] corrosion is a physicochemical interaction between a metal and environment leading to altered mechanical properties

177
Q

Which metal is most prone to crevice corrosion?

A

stainless steel

178
Q

In trunnionosis, which metal ion is more elevated?

A

Cobalt is more elevated than chromium

179
Q

A ratio of at least […] encountered when caused by head-neck junction trunnionosis, whereas a ratio of […] is suggestive of metal-on-metal implant wear

180
Q

In THA, volumetric wear is directly proportional to the […] of the femoral head

A

radius squared

181
Q

Type I Paprosky

A

Minimal deformity, intact rim

182
Q

What is the definition of Type IIA Paprosky?

A

Superior medial bone lysis with intact superior rim

183
Q

What is the definition of Type IIB Paprosky?

A

Absent superior rim, superolateral migration

184
Q

What is the definition of Type IIC Paprosky?

A

Localized destruction of medial wall

185
Q

What is the definition of Type IIIA Paprosky?

A

Bone loss from 10am-2pm around rim, superolateral cup migration

186
Q

What is the definition of Type IIIB Paprosky?

A

Bone loss from 9am-5pm around rim, superomedial cup migration

187
Q

In the setting of THA, thigh pain is suggestive of a problem with […]

A

the femoral component

188
Q

In the setting of THA, get up and go pain is pathognomonic for […]

A

component loosening

189
Q

In the setting of THA, night pain is suggestive of […]

190
Q

Femoral stems most commonly subside in […]-version

A

retroversion

191
Q

What imaging study can be helpful to determine relationship to neurovascular structures with Paprosky IIIB defects?

192
Q

What is the most common complication after impaction bone grafting in a revision THA?

A

stem subsidence

193
Q

In revision acetabulum, in order to use a porous-coated hemisphere cup or jumbo secured with screws, at least […] percent of bone stock needs to be present to support cup

194
Q

In revision hip arthroplasty, a reconstruction cage with structural bone allograft is indicated when less than […] of the rim remains or less than […] percent of bone stock is present.

195
Q

In revision THA, when there is pelvic discontinuity, what is the acetabulum component used for treatment?

A

custom triflange cup

196
Q

What is the most common complication following isolated hip liner exchange?

A

hip instability

197
Q

Osteolysis represents a […] response to wear debris

A

histiocytic

199
Q

In volumetric wear in THA, […] is the most important factor in predicting particles generated

200
Q

In THA, polyethylene linear wear rates greater than […] have been associated with osteolysis and subsequent component loosening

A

0.1 mm/year

201
Q

Highly cross-linked UHMWPE generates […] wear particles and is […] resistant to wear

A

smaller; more

202
Q

Highly cross-linked UHMWPE has […] mechanical properties compared to conventional non-highly cross-linked UHMWPE

203
Q

Polyethylene thickness of less than […] increases the wear in THA

204
Q

Patients younger than […] increase the risk for PE wear in THA

205
Q

Wear rates of PE in THA is increased in what gender?

206
Q

Femoral head size between […] mm in diameter does not influence wear rates of UHMWPE

207
Q

[…] bearings have the lowest wear rates of any bearing combination

208
Q

metal-on-metal produces […] wear particles and […] wear rates compared to metal-on-polyethylene bearings

A

smaller; lower

209
Q

Notch sensitivity is seen on what bearing surface in THA?

210
Q

Metal-on-metal serum ion levels are greater with cup abduction angle greater than […] degrees and […] component size

A

55; smaller

211
Q

[…] urine level is a marker for bone turnover and is elevated in osteolysis

A

N-telopeptide

212
Q

N-telopeptide urine level is a marker for […] and is elevated in osteolysis

A

bone turnover

213
Q

Which muscles can be transferred in an abductor deficiency?

A

anterior gluteus maximus; TFL

214
Q

Which patient population(s) have increased failure rates with cemented TKA?

A

obese/morbidly obese, and young active males

215
Q

Patch porous coating press fit TKA have been associated with an increased incidence of […]

A

metaphyseal osteolysis

216
Q

The primary mechanism of wear in polyethylene acetabular components is […] and […].

A

adhesion; abrasion

217
Q

The major modes of polyethylene wear in knees are […] and […]

A

delamination; fatigue cracking

218
Q

In periprosthetic acetabulum fractures, pelvic discontinuity (eg Praposky Type IIIB) should be treated with what acetabular construct?

A

cup-cage construct

219
Q

Femoral revision with a […] stem is the preferred method in the treatment of Paprosky type-IIIB femoral defects (<4 cm of diaphyseal bone available for distal fixation)

A

modular fluted tapered

220
Q

In the setting of pelvic discontinuity with severe acetabular bone loss, revision to a […] would be the treatment choice

A

custom triflange cup

221
Q

Paprosky […] is defined as pelvic discontinuity with severe acetabular bone loss and superomedial cup migration.

222
Q

The presence of a pseudotumor is associated with increased […] wear of both the acetabulum and the femoral components.

223
Q

The articular cartilage in knee osteoarthritis has […] water content and […] proteoglycans

A

increased; decreased

224
Q

Osteophyte formation in knee osteoarthritis is mediated by what signaling molecule?

A

Indian Hedgehog

225
Q

knee osteophytes form through the pathologic activation of […] ossification

A

endochondral

226
Q

What is aggrecanase-1 (ADAMTS-4)?

A

matrix metalloproteases (MMPs)/proteolytic enzyme

227
Q

An imbalance between MMPs and […] has been demonstrated in OA tissues

A

Tissue-inhibitors of MMPs (TIMPs)

228
Q

In knee OA, there is often an increased […] moment to the limb during gait

229
Q

Weight loss programs are recommended for patients with symptomatic knee OA and a BMI greater than […]

230
Q

In younger patients with medial unicompartmental OA, a […]-producing HTO can be performed.

231
Q

cruciate retaining vs. crucitate sacrificing implants show […] difference in outcomes

232
Q

Compared to a TKA, UKA have […] blood loss

233
Q

Compared to a TKA, UKA have […] recovery

234
Q

Compared to a TKA, UKA have […] rates of PJI or wound complication

235
Q

Compared to a TKA, UKA […] post-operative pain leading to[…] hospital stays

A

less; shorter

236
Q

A fixed varus deformity greater than […] degrees is a contraindication to UKA.

237
Q

A fixed valgus deformity greater than […] degrees is a contraindication for UKA

238
Q

Restricted ROM with a ROM arc of less than […] degrees is a contraindication to UKA.

239
Q

A flexion contracture greater than […] degrees is a contraindication to UKA.

A

5-10 degrees

240
Q

Inflammatory arthritis is a contraindication to what knee arthroplasty procedure?

241
Q

What is the most common cause of early failure (5 years) of a UKA?

A

Aseptic loosening

242
Q

What percentage of patients experience aseptic loosening of a UKA within five years?

A

25-45 percent

243
Q

What two patient factors increase the risk of a tibial stress fracture in a UKA?

A

Patient activity and weight

244
Q

Is the 10-year survivorship of UKA higher with fixed- or mobile-bearing?

A

higher in mobile bearing

245
Q

In mobile-bearing UKA clinical results with 15-year survivorship reported at […] percent

246
Q

Lateral UKA compartment arthroplasties have […] results to medial

A

equivalent

247
Q

Revision rates of UKA are[…] than total knee revision rates

248
Q

What is the definition of femoral rollback?

A

the posterior translation the femur with progressive flexion

249
Q

What ligaments control femoral follback in the native knee?

A

ACL and PCL

250
Q

In a CR TKA, what ligament promotes femoral rollback?

251
Q

What paradoxical motion is observed in a CR TKA?

A

anterior translation of femur in first 40 degrees of flexion

252
Q

In a PS TKA, what promotes femoral rollback?

A

tibial post engaging with femoral cam

253
Q

What is the disadvantage of modular TKA?

A

increased osteolysis and backside polyethylene wear

254
Q

There is […] rates of osteolysis in modular TKA components compared to non-modular components.

255
Q

[…] cement has longer working time

A

high viscosity

256
Q

Cementless TKA have […] operative times and […] cost of implants compared to cemented TKA

A

decreased; increased

257
Q

Who is the ideal candidate for cementless TKA?

A

younger, active, and obese patients with good bone quality

258
Q

What patient’s are contra-indicated from a cementless TKA?

A

eldery with osteoporotic bone; irritated bone; inflammatory arthritis

259
Q

A cruciate-retaining TKA depends on an intact PCL to provide stability in […]

260
Q

In order to use a CR TKA, the valgus deformity must be less than […] degrees and varus deformity less than […] degrees

261
Q

In a CR-TKA, a tight PCL may cause accelerated […] wear

A

polyethylene

262
Q

In a CR-TKA, a loose or ruptured PCL may lead to […] and […]

A

flexion instability; subluxation

263
Q

Resection of the PCL increases the […] gap in relationship to the […] gap

A

flexion; extension

264
Q

What type of TKA design should be considered in a prior patellectomy?

265
Q

In a PS-TKA, a cam-jump can occur with a loose […] gap

266
Q

Patients with hyperextension instability need what type of knee design prosthesis?

A

Hinged TKA

267
Q

In a mobile-bearing TKA design, bearing spin out can occur with a loose […] gap

268
Q

All-polyethylene base plate TKA have […] costs and […] rates of osteolysis

A

decreased; decreased

269
Q

In comparing all-polyethylene base plates with metal tray, studies show […] functional outcomes with […] cost

A

equivalent; decreased

270
Q

UKA are contraindicated in obese patients weighing greater than […] kg.

271
Q

Osteoarthritis and formation of osteophytes are felt to be mediated by the differentiation of quiescent […] through the Indian hedgehog signaling pathway.

A

chondrocytes

272
Q

In osteoarthritis, there is […] permeability of water into cartilage

273
Q

In TKA, correction of […] and […] contracture deformity has highest risk of peroneal nerve palsy

A

valgus and flexion

274
Q

In the setting of TKA, coronal plane deformities great than […] degrees cannot be corrected by intra-articular bone cuts and soft-tissue balancing alone and require an extra-articular osteotomy

275
Q

The most important variable in proper patellar tracking is preservation of a normal […].

276
Q

What are the absolute indications for patella resurfacing?

A
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • patella maltracking
  • PF arthritis is main indication for TKA
277
Q

There is [..] anterior knee pain with patella resurfacing

278
Q

There is […] revision rates with patella resurfacing

279
Q

There is […] revision rates with patella resurfacing

280
Q

[…] and[…] given immediately before TKA reduce postoperative pain

A

NSAIDs and opioids

281
Q

Is regional or general anesthesia preferred for post-op pain management in TKA?

A

regional (spinal/epidural)

282
Q

Selective COX-2 inhibitors inhibit the transformation of […] to […]

A

arachidonic acid to prostaglandins

283
Q

What is the MOA of gabapentin/pregabalin?

A

reduce hyper-excitability of voltage dependent Ca2+ channels in activated neurons

284
Q

What degree of knee flexion is needed for the swing phase of gait?

285
Q

What degree of knee flexion is needed for ADLs?

286
Q

What degree of knee flexion is needed for stairs?

287
Q

What degree of knee flexion is needed to rise from a chair?

288
Q

In the setting of TKA stiffness, treatment is manipulation under anesthesia for flexion under […] degrees within first […] weeks of surgery.

289
Q

In the setting of TKA stiffness, treatment of arthroscopic lysis of adhesions is indicated for flexion less than […] degrees after […] weeks.

290
Q

What is the most important risk factor for post op TKA stiffness?

A

poor preoperative ROM

291
Q

Age younger than […] years is a risk factor for post of TKA stiffness.

292
Q

In a valgus knee, an isolated release of the popliteus may be utilized to preferentially increase the […] gap.

A

lateral flexion space

293
Q

In a valgus TKA, when the knee is found to be tight in flexion, release of the […] may be performed to increase the lateral flexion gap preferentially.

A

popliteus tendon

294
Q

Recessing or releasing the PCL will increased the […] gap

295
Q

The posterior condylar axis is normally […] rotated to the transepicondylar axis.

A

3 degrees internally

296
Q

Moving the femoral component anterior […] the flexion gap.

297
Q

What is the most common intraoperative fracture in a TKA?

A

Medial femoral condyle

298
Q

What is a Su Type I femur fracture?

A

Fracture is proximal to the femoral component

299
Q

What is a Su Type II femur fracture?

A

Fracture at proximal extent of femoral component and extends proximally

300
Q

What is a Su Type III femur fracture?

A

Any part of the fracture line is distal to the upper edge of anterior flange of the femoral component

301
Q

In retrograde IMN of a TKA, femoral component may cause starting point to be more […] than normal and lead to […] at the fracture site

A

posterior; hyperextension

302
Q

In treating a periprosthetic distal femur fracture, a condylar buttress plate (non locked) does not resist […] collapse

303
Q

In periprosthetic distal femur fractures, there is an increased risk of […] in plating via extensile lateral approach compared with submuscular approach

304
Q

In plating periprosthetic distal femur fractures, there is an increased risk of […] with minimally-invasive approach/MIPO

305
Q

Compared to ORIF, a DFR has […] in major complications and […] reoperation rate

A

no difference; no difference

306
Q

What is the most common reason for revision TKA?

307
Q

What is the most common cause for early revision TKA?

308
Q

What is the most common cause for late revision TKA?

A

aseptic loosening

309
Q

What is the SECOND most common cause for revision TKA?

A

Aseptic loosening

310
Q

Which component is more commonly loose in aseptic loosening of a TKA?

311
Q

Is osteolytic wear more common in cemented or uncemeted TKA?

A

uncemented

312
Q

PCL attenuation in CR TKA can lead to what type of instability?

A

Flexion instability

313
Q

A femoral component placed in […] can lead to flexion instability in a TKA.

A

hyper-extension

314
Q

In the setting of TKA, tibial joint line should be […] cm above head of fibula

315
Q

In a revision TKA, a cavitary lesion less than […] can be filled with cement.

316
Q

In a revision TKA, a metaphysical sleeve is not useful for […] defects

A

uncontained

317
Q

In revision TKA, trabecular metal cones can be used for […] defects

A

uncontained

318
Q

In the setting of revision TKA, unconfined defects should be treated with which type of implant?

A

trabecular metal cones

319
Q

In the setting of revision TKA wiht multiple prior scars/incision, the most […] incision should be used.

320
Q

In the setting of revision TKA, incisional negative pressure wound therapy associated with […] rate of wound complications

321
Q

The use of adductor canal blocks results in […] postoperative ambulation compared to femoral nerve blocks