Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What physeal zone does Gaucher’s disease affect?

A

Reserve zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What physeal zone does achondroplasia affect?

A

Proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What physeal zone does MHE affect?

A

Proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What physeal zone is the location of chondrocyte maturation?

A

Hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the physeal zones?

A

Reserve, proliferative, hypertrophic, primary spongiosa, secondary spongiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What physeal zone is responsible for chondrocyte hypertrophy?

A

hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What zone is responsible for chondrocyte maturation?

A

Hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which physeal zone has the highest extracellular matrix production?

A

Proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which physeal zone has a large amount on chondrocyte growth?

A

Hypertrophic zone - specifically the degenerative zone; 5x the growth of chondrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What physeal zone is affected by SCFE?

A

Hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What physeal zone is affected by Rickets?

A

Hypertrophic zone (provisional calcification zone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which physeal zone does enchondromas affect?

A

Hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What physeal zone is affected by mucopolysaccharide disease?

A

hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fractures most commonly occur through which physeal zone?

A

zone of provisional calcification (hypertrophic zone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which zone is affected in a metaphyseal corner fracture?

A

Primary spongiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which zone is affected in renal SCFE?

A

Secondary spongiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the indications for bar resection?

A

<50% of physis affected; >2 cm or >2 years of growth remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Physeal fracture separations most commonly happen through which zone of the physis?

A

Hypertrophic zone; specifically zone of provisional calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the sequence of closure of the distal tibial physis?

A

central, posterior, medial then anterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the weakest part of the growth plate?

A

Hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In children, a diagnosis of osteomyelitis with concomitant deep venous thrombosis (DVT) has a high association with which causative organism?

A

MRSA; other risk factors children >8, CRP >6, need for surgical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In Erb’s palsy, what changes at the shoulder can be expected?

A

internal rotation contracture, glenoid retroversion, posterior shoulder subluxation and humeral head flattening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal/average acetabular index?

A

27.5 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An acetabular index above what degrees is indicative of hip dysplasia?

A

> 35 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What levels are most commonly affected in a pediatric brachial plexus palsy?

A

C5-6 levels (Erb-Duchenne palsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What muscles are most commonly affected in an Erb-Duchenne palsy?

A

Deltoid and biceps (C5), wrist and finger extensors (C6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a normal α angle on pediatric hip US?

A

> 60 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Absent clavicles is found in what genetic disorder?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In DDH, what degree of abduction increases the risk for AVN?

A

> 60 deg of hip abduction increases the rate of AVN; if >60 deg is needed for hip reduction, open reduction should be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the innervation of the rhomboids?

A

dorsal scapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the second most common cause of death in pediatric patients?

A

NAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

[…] injury is the most frequent cause of long term physical morbidity in the child

A

head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are corner fractures?

A

metaphyseal avulsion fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fractures are the […] most common lesion in abused children

A

second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common physical exam finding on NAT?

A

skin lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If NAT is left unreported, there is a […] percent chance of repeat abuse and a […] percent chance of death.

A

30-50%; 5-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In pediatric trauma, […] injuries have highest overall morbidity and mortality

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In pediatric trauma, […] fractures have highest morbidity/mortality among musculoskeletal injuries

A

spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cervical spine trauma injuries are more common in children less than […] years-old

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Occipital cut-out needed in spine board when transporting children less than […] years old

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A child’s blood volume is equal to […] mL/kg

A

75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is systemic vascular resistance higher or lower in children compared to adults?

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Increased serum level of […] heralds onset of HO

A

alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Multiorgan failure occurs […] in hospitalization of pediatric patients

A

early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In clubfoot, the talar neck is […] and […] deviated

A

medially; plantarly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In clubfoot, the navicular and cuboid are displaced […]

A

medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Clubfoot is linked to what gene?

A

PITX1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hypoplasia or absence of what artery is common in clubfoot?

A

anterior tibial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Congenital club foot has a talocalcaneal angle less than […] degrees

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for congenital clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)

A

Ponseti casting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In congenital clubfoot, the extent of medial soft-tissue release correlates […] with long-term function of the foot and patient

A

inversely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A talectomy is only indicated in severe rigid recurrent clubfoot in children with […]

A

arthrogryposis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the goal of serial Ponseti casting?

A

rotate foot laterally around a fixed talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot), heel cord tenotomy needed in at least […] percent of children.

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for clubfoot deformity recurrence?

A

FAO noncompliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

FAO use following Ponseti clubfoot correction is full-time for […] months and then at night/naps for […] years.

A

3 months; 2-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Following Ponseti casting for clubfoot, an AFO is used to hold the foot in […] degrees of external rotation

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tibialis anteriror tendon transfer to lateral cuneiform is indicated in clubfoot in a patient that demonstrates […] during gait.

A

supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Clubfoot relapse under the age of 2 is treated with […].

A

Repeat casting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dynamic supination of clubfoot is seen in what phase of gait?

A

Swing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Rockerbotton deformity following clubfoot correction occurs from what mistake?

A

correction of equinus before full correction of hind foot varus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In rockerbottom deformity following clubfoot correction, dorsiflexion occurs through the […]-foot.

A

mid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tarsal Coalition is a common congenital condition caused byfailure of […]

A

embryonic (mesenchymal) segmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the most common tarsal coalition?

A

Calcaneonavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Subtalar joint will normally rotate 10 degrees […] during stance phase, in the presence of tarsal coalition, […] rotation does not occur

A

internally; internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of tarsal coalition?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In tarsal coalition, pain distal to medial malleolus or medial foot suggests […] coalition.

A

talocalcaneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the initial treatment for tarsal coalition?

A

walking cast x 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In congenital vertical talus, neonates present with a rigid […] deformity

A

flatfoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In congenital vertical talus, the navicular dislocates […]

A

dorsolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In congenital vertical talus, which muscles are displaced and function as dorsiflexors rather than plantarflexors?

A

Tibialis posterior tendon and peroneus longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

On physical exam of congenital vertical talus, there is fixed hindfoot […], rigid midfoot […], and forefoot [… and …].

A

equinovalgus, dorsiflexion, dorsiflexion and abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In congenital vertical talus, the forefoot abduction and dorsiflexion is due to contractures of which muscles?

A

EDL, EHL and tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Before ossification of navicular at age 3, the […] is used as a proxy for the navicular on radiographic evaluation

A

first metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In congenital vertical talus, the talocalcaneal angle on an AP radiograph will be greater than […] degrees

A

40; (20-40 degrees is normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What radiograph is diagnostic of congenital vertical talus?

A

forced plantar flexion lateral radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Beyond foot radiographs, what additional imaging should be obtained in congenital vertical talus, and why?

A

MRI; rule out neurologic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Serial manipulation and casting of congenital vertical talus is indicated preoperatively to stretch the […] soft-tissue structures

A

dorsolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In the surgical release and talonavicular reduction for congenital vertical talus, which muscle is concomitantly transferred to the talar neck?

A

tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

LLD leads to osteoarthritis of the hip due to decreased coverage of femoral head on […] side.

A

long leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The leg grows […] mm/year, with most of that coming from the […] joint.

A

23; knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The proximal femur grows […] mm/year.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The distal femur grows […] mm/year.

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The proximal tibia grows […] mm/year.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The distal tibia grows […] mm/year.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Shoe lift for treatment of LLD is indicated for less than […] projected LLD at maturity.

A

2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Shortening of the long limb is indicated in LLD when the projected LLD is […] at maturity.

A

2-5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Limb lengthening of the short size is indicated in LLD when the projected LLD is […] at maturity.

A

Greater than 5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the indications for a physeal bar excision?

A

bony bride involves less than 50% of the physis and at least 2 years of growth left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In distraction osteogenesis, distraction begins after […] days, and distracts […] mm/day.

A

5-7; 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Lengthening along the anatomical axis of the femur leads to […] MAD

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Shortening along the anatomical axis of the femur leads to […] MAD

A

medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the most common risk factor for cerebral palsy?

A

Prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Brain MRI of a patient with CP most commonly demonstrates […].

A

periventricular leukomalacia (PVL) white matter lesions most frequent (56%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the MOA of botox (botulinum toxin A)

A

competitive inhibitor of presynaptic cholinergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Botox is a […] inhibitor of presynaptic cholinergic receptors.

A

competitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the characteristics of baclofen withdrawal?

A

severe fevers, hyperkalemia, and elevated CPK levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In cerebral palsy, tendon transfers in the upper extremity show the best improvement in function in patients with […] motor control

A

voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the two absolute contra-indications to selective dorsal rhizotomy in patient’s with CP?

A

athetoid CP & nonambulatory patients with spastic quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the most reliable predictor for ability to walk in a patient with cp?

A

independent sitting by age 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What muscle most commonly causes a dynamic deformity in the swing phase of gait following Ponseti casting?

A

Tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In a patient with club foot, a dynamic swing phase supination deformity may develop as a result of medial overpull of the […] tendon.

A

anterior tibialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In a patient with club foot, a dynamic swing phase […] deformity may develop as a result of medial overpull of the anterior tibialis tendon.

A

supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Incomplete reduction of the navicular onto the talar head results in changing the anterior tibialis muscle from predominately a strong […] to a strong […] force.

A

dorsiflexing; supinating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In treatment of excessive supination occuring during the swing phase of gait following Ponseti casting, the tibialis anterior tendon is transferred where?

A

Lateral cuneiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A dorsal bunion can form after treatment of clubfoot due to overpowering of which muscles and weakness of?

A

overpowering: FHB, Abductor hallucis, tib ant; weakness of peroneus longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Congenital vertical talus has a high association with what congenital diseases?

A

Neuromuscular or chromosomal abberations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A talocalcaneal coalition is a coalition between the calcaneus and what portion of the talus?

A

Talar dome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Pediatric lateral condyle fractures are most commonly Salter-Harris […] fracture patterns

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Lateral condyle fractures extending into the trochlear are […] stable

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In lateral condyle fractures, lateral ecchymosis implies a tear in the aponeurosis of the […] and signals an unstable fracture

A

brachioradialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

[…] oblique view most accurately shows lateral condyle fracture displacement

A

internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the indications for treating lateral condyle fractures in a long arm cast?

A

less than 2 mm displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Lateral condyle fractures with […] of displacement and have intact articular cartilage and can be treated with CRPP

A

2-4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Lateral condyle fractures with […] of displacement, and/or joint incongruity are treated with open reduction and internal fixation

A

greater than 4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the most common complication following lateral condyle fractures?

A

Stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cubitus valgus after lateral condyle fracture is due to […]

A

lateral physeal arrest, or more commonly a nonunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Tardy ulnar nerve palsy following lateral condyle fracture is due to what elbow deformity?

A

Cubitus valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In lateral condyle fractures, lateral periosteal realignment can prevent […] from occurring.

A

lateral overgrowth/prominence (ie spurring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the most common neuropraxia in pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures?

A

AIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the second most common neuropraxia in pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures?

A

Radial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the last ossification center of the elbow to fuse?

A

Medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, medial comminution can lead to […] deformity

A

gunstock/cubitus varus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Deviation of Baumann angle by greater than […] degrees indicates coronal plane deformity and should not be accepted

A

5-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture with ecchymosis, dimpling/puckering antecubital fossa indicates proximal fragment buttonholed through […]

A

brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, pins should be inserted with elbow in […] for extension-type injury and elbow in […] for flexion-type injury

A

flexion; extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, 3 lateral pins is biomechanically stronger in […] and […] than 2-pin constructs.

A

bending; torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, crossed pins are biomechanically strongest to […] stress.

A

torsional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, crossed pins have a […] percent risk of ulnar nerve injury.

A

3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, medial cross pin placed with the elbow in hyperflexion […] the risk for iatrogenic ulnar nerve injury.

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, there is an increased risk of infection in age less than […] years.

A

4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, cubitus valgus deformity is caused by what?

A

Fracture malunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, cubitus varus is caused by what?

A

Fracture malunion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

In pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, […] comminution increases the risk for cubits […] deformity.

A

Medial; varus

135
Q

Volkmann ischemic contracture following casting for pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures is due to increase in […] forearm compartment pressures

A

deep volar

136
Q

Following pinning for pediatric supracondylar humerus fractures, the pins should be removed at […] post op

137
Q

Cubitus varus following a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture can be associated with […] instability.

A

posterolateral

138
Q

Pediatric medial epicondylar elbow fractures are associated with elbow dislocations in approximately […] percent of cases

139
Q

Displacement of medial epicondyle fractures can be seen on […] oblique views of the elbow

140
Q

Distal humerus axial view may best demonstrate the degree of displacement of […] pediatric elbow fractures

A

distal humerus axial view

141
Q

Radiographic nonunion (or fibrous union) of pediatric medial epicondylar fractures are often […]

A

asymptomatic

142
Q

Non-operative treatment of pediatric medial epicondylar fractures demonstrate […] rate of osseous union rate compared to surgically treated patients.

143
Q

The […] nerve is at risk with bicortical screw fixation in the treatment of pediatric medial epicondyle fracture.

144
Q

[…] elbow fractures are the most common fractures patterns associated with elbow dislocations in a child.

A

Medial epicondyle

145
Q

For pediatric flexion-type supracondylar injuries, pinning should be performed with the elbow in […].

146
Q

The mechanism of pediatric radial head/neck fractures is usually associated with a […] and […] loading injury of the elbow.

A

valgus; extension

147
Q

Radial head fuses with radial shaft between ages of […] years

148
Q

Pediatric radial/head neck fractures can be treated with immobilization alone if there is less than […] degrees of angulation

149
Q

Pediatric radial/head neck fractures can be treated with closed reduction if there is greater than […] degrees of angulation

150
Q

Pediatric radial/head neck fractures can be treated with with closed percutaneous reduction if there is greater than […] of residual angulation following closed reduction, greater than […] mm of translation, or less than […] degrees of pronosupination.

A

30; 3-4; 45

151
Q

Is loss of pronation or supination more common following a pediatric radial head/neck fracture?

A

loss of pronation

152
Q

When performing open reduction of a radial head/neck fracture through an anterolateral approach, the forearm should be kept in […] to decrease risk of injury to the PIN.

153
Q

Age greater than […] years of age portends for worse outcomes in pediatric radial head/neck fractures.

154
Q

The distal radial physis contributes to […] percent growth of the radius

155
Q

The distal radial physis contributes to […] percent growth of the entire upper extremity

156
Q

The distal radial physis grows at about […] mm/year

157
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture?

A

Ulnar shaft fracture with radiocapitellar dislocation

158
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

distal third radius fracture with DRUJ injury

159
Q

Do pediatric pelvic fractures have higher or lower rates of hemorrhage compared to adults?

160
Q

In pediatric pelvic fractures, there is a high rate (>50%) of associated […] and […] injury.

A

CNS and abdominal visceral injury

161
Q

The pelvis undergoes […] ossification with […] primary ossification centers.

A

endochondral; three

162
Q

The acetabulum has […] secondary ossification centers.

163
Q

The ossification center “os acetabuli” forms the […]

A

anterior wall

164
Q

The ossification center “acetabular epiphysis” forms the […]

A

superior wall

165
Q

The secondary ossification center of ischium forms the […]

A

posterior wall

166
Q

plain radiographs will miss approximately […] percent of all pediatric pelvic fractures

167
Q

Pediatric pelvic avulsion injuries with less than […] of displacement can be treated with PWB.

168
Q

Pediatric iliac wing fractures with less than […] of displacement can be treated with PWB.

169
Q

Open reduction internal fixation of pediatric acetabulum fractures is indicated when there is greater than […] of displacement.

170
Q

In pediatric pelvic/acetabular fractures, increased width acetabular wall with lateral displacement of the femoral head suggests […].

A

premature closure of triradiate

171
Q

Age less then […] is a risk factor for pre-mature closure of the triradiate cartilage in pediatric pelvic injuries.

172
Q

Unstable pediatric pelvis fractures with vertical displacement of the hemipelvis greater than […] is a risk factor for LLD.

173
Q

In pediatric radial head/neck fractures, residual angulation of greater than […] after closed reduction attempt is an indication for percutaneous reduction and pinning.

A

30 degrees

174
Q

In Spica casting for pediatric femoral shaft fractures, the cast is molded into […] and […] to counteract muscle forces

A

recurvatum; valgus

175
Q

Spica casting is contraindicated in femoral shaft fractures with greater than […] of shortening.

176
Q

The goal of reduction with Spica casting for femoral shaft fractures is less than […] of coronal plane deformity, and less than […] of sagittal plane deformity.

A

10 degrees; 20 degrees

177
Q

Proximal tibial traction can cause […] deformity in femoral shaft fractures due to damage to the tibial tubercle apophysis

A

recurvatum

178
Q

Flexi nail size is determined by multiplying the width of the isthmus of femoral canal by […]

179
Q

For retrograde flexi nails, the starting point is […] proximal to the distal physis

180
Q

The goal of Flexi nails is […] percent canal fill

181
Q

The most common complication of Flexi nails is […]

A

pain at the insertion site near the knee

182
Q

Coxa […] deformity can be seen following a greater trochanter antegrade nailing for pediatric femur fractures.

183
Q

The most common complication of patients with a femur fracture under the age of 10 is […]

A

overgrowth

184
Q

Age less than […] increases the risk for femur overgrowth following a femur fracture

185
Q

Femoral overgrowth following a pediatric femur fracture typically occurs within […] years of injury

186
Q

In pediatric tibial tubercle fractures, the […] artery can be lacerated and cause compartment syndrome.

A

recurrent anterior tibial

187
Q

What deformity can be seen following tibial tubercle fractures?

A

recurvatum

188
Q

A Tillaux fracture is a SH type […] fracture

189
Q

A triplane ankle fracture is a SH type […] fracture

190
Q

The distal tibia accounts for […] percent of overall tibial growth

191
Q

The distal tibia physis grows at a rate of […] mm/year

192
Q

What ankle ligament attaches from the Chaput tubercle to the Wagstaffe tubercle?

193
Q

What syndesmotic ligament attaches to the Volkmann’s tubercle?

194
Q

Acceptable reduction for distal tibia physeal fractures is less than […] of displacement

195
Q

Which pediatric ankle fractures have the highest rate of growth disturbance?

A

medial malleolus SH IV fractures

196
Q

Osteomyelitis in the pediatric population is most often the result of […] seeding of bacteria to the metaphyseal region of bone.

A

hematogenous

197
Q

What is the most common organism of pediatric osteomyelitis?

198
Q

Panton-Valentine leukocidin cytotoxin is seen in what organism?

199
Q

What is the most common organism of neonatal osteomyelitis?

A

Group B strep

200
Q

Septic arthritis from osteomyelitis can affect large joints except for which large joint?

201
Q

What is a sequestrum?

A

necrotic bone; usually seen in chronic osteomyelitis

202
Q

A […] is the necrotic bone which has become walled off from its blood supply and can present as a nidus for chronic osteomyelitis

A

sequestrum

203
Q

The […] is a layer of new bone growth outside existing bone seen in osteomyelitis

A

involucrum

204
Q

What is the MOA of vancomycin?

A

binding to the D-Ala D-Ala moiety in bacterial cell walls

205
Q

Coagulase + bacteria can cause DVTs in children by activation of […] and […] clot formation

A

thrombin and fibrin

206
Q

Which joints have intra-articular metaphyses?

A

hip, shoulder, elbow, ankle

207
Q

What antibiotic modality is used for treatment of N gonorrhea hip septic arthritis?

A

Large dose penicillin

208
Q

What is the most common organism in pediatric hip septic arthritis followingvaricella infection?

A

Group A beta-hemolytic strep

209
Q

Kingella is best isolated on what agar?

A

blood agar

210
Q

CRP greater than […] in combination with refusal to bear weight yields a 74% probability of septic arthritis

A

> 2.0 (mg/dl)

211
Q

What is the most sensitive finding for septic arthritis?

212
Q

What are the four Kocher criteria?

A

ESR >40, fever, WBC >12,000, inability to bear weight

213
Q

Probability of septic arthritis may be as high as […] when all four Kocher criteria above are present

214
Q

There is a […] percent incidence of septic arthritis when 3/4 Kocher criteria are met.

215
Q

The Kocher criteria are only sensitive for diagnosing pediatric septic arthritis of the […] joint.

216
Q

In pediatric hip septic arthritis, age less than […] is a poor prognostic indicator.

217
Q

In pediatric hip septic arthritis, delay in treatment greater than […] is a poor prognostic indicator.

218
Q

Which brachial plexus injury is frequently associated with a preganglionic injury and Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Lower (Klumpke’s Palsy)

219
Q

Microsurgical nerve grafting for brachial plexopathy is indicated when there is lack of antigravity […] function between 3-9 months of age, and the injury is […]-ganglionic.

A

biceps; postganglionic

220
Q

Nerve transfer or neurotization for brachial plexopathy is indicated when there is lack of antigravity […] function between 3-9 months of age, and the injury is […]-ganglionic.

A

biceps; preganglionic (nerve root avulsion)

221
Q

A latissamus/teres major transfer can be done in brachial plexopathy with persistent internal rotation contracture or external rotation weakness […] glenohumeral dysplasia

222
Q

Serial nighttime extension splinting can be performed when the elbow flexion contracture is less than […] degrees

223
Q

Serial elbow casting can be performed when the elbow flexion contracture is greater than […] degrees

224
Q

Muscle force is preportional to […] area of the muscle

A

cross-sectional

225
Q

Muscle amplitude is proportional to the […] of the muscle

226
Q

What tendon transfer can be performed to help with wrist drop in brachial plexopathy?

A

Pronator teres to ECRB

227
Q

What tendon transfer can be performed to help with finger extension in brachial plexus injury?

A

FCR or FCU to EDC 2-5

228
Q

What tendon transfer can be performed to help with thumb abduction in brachial plexus injury?

A

EIP to abductor pollicis brevis

229
Q

In obstetric brachial plexopathy, […] percent of cases will resolve without intervention and may take up to […] years.

A

90 percent; 2 years

230
Q

In obstetric brachial plexopathy, return of […] is associated with recovery in vast majority

A

elbow flexion (biceps) by three months

231
Q

Lack of […] function by […] months is a poor prognostic indicator in obstetric brachial plexopathy.

232
Q

In obstetric brachial plexopathy, lack of rhomboid function or elevated hemidiaphram is an indicator for […]ganglion injury.

233
Q

In Blount’s disease, there is excessive medial pressure that produces […] of the medial proximal tibial physis and epiphysis

A

osteochondrosis

234
Q

Genu varum (bowed legs) is normal in children less than […] years

235
Q

Peak genu valgum (knocked knees) occurs at […] years of age

236
Q

In infantile Blount’s the proximal medial tibia physis, produces genu varus, flexion, internal rotation, AND may have compensatory distal femoral […]

237
Q

In adolescent Blount’s the proximal tibia physis is involved, AND may have distal femoral […] and distal tibia […]

A

VARUS; valgus

238
Q

A proximal tibia metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (Drennan) of greater than […] is considered abnormal

A

16 degrees

239
Q

In infantile Blount’s, bracing can be used if in early stages and patient is less than […] years

240
Q

If successful, improvement with bracing for Blount’s should occur within […]

241
Q

Proximal tibia/fibula valgus osteotomy for Blount’s is more successful if performed before age […]

242
Q

A proximal tibia/fibula valgus osteotomy for Blount’s is performed […] of the tibia tubercle

A

below the level

243
Q

The goal of a proximal tibia/fibula valgus osteotomy for Blount’s is overcorrect into […] degrees of valgus

244
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for NF-1?

A

Autosomal dominant

245
Q

What chromosome is affected by NF-1?

246
Q

The NF-1 gene codes for what protein?

A

Neurofibromin

247
Q

Neurofibromin […] regulates Ras signaling pathway

A

negatively

248
Q

In NF-1, there is […] Ras activity

249
Q

NF-1 affects the Ras-dependent MAPK activity which is essential for […] function and survival

A

osteoclast

250
Q

In NF-1 there is […] bowing of the tibia.

A

anterolateral

251
Q

Inoperable neurofibromas in NF-1 may be treated with […]

A

selumetinib

252
Q

Neurofibromas can undergo malignant transformation to […]

A

neurofibrosarcoma

253
Q

What is the most common site of skeletal involvement in NF-1?

254
Q

Scoliosis is associated with what type of neurofibromatosis?

A

NF-1 (NOT NF-2)

255
Q

Penciling of […] ribs in NF-1 scoliosis is a poor prognostic finding and associated with rapid curve progression

256
Q

In NF-1 scoliosis, an MRI is obtained to identify […] and […]

A

dural ectasia; dumbbell lesion

257
Q

Posteromedial tibia bowing is associated with what foot deformity?

A

calcaneovalgus

258
Q

Anteromedial tibia bowing is associated with what?

A

fibular hemimelia

259
Q

What are the indications for treating anterolateral tibia bowing in NF-1 with bracing?

A

no psuedoarthrosis or fracture

260
Q

When treating anterolateral bowing in NF-1 with IMN, the nail should be extended to the […] if age is less than 4

261
Q

The incidence of hip subluxation by age […] is higher in more severe forms of cerebral palsy

262
Q

In cerebral palsy, strong tone in hip […] and […] lead to scissoring and predisposes to hip subluxation and dislocation

A

adductor; flexors

263
Q

A Reimer’s index of less than […] percent with a hip abduction anlge of less than 45 deg with partial uncovering of the femoral head is considered a hip at risk

264
Q

A Reimer’s index greater than […] percent with disrupted Shenton’s line is considered hip subluxation

265
Q

In Spastic hip dysplasia seen in cerebral palsy, the acetabular deficiency is usually […]

A

posterosuperior

266
Q

In DDH, the acetabular deficiency is usually […]

A

anterior or anterolateral

267
Q

In cerebral palsy hip dysplasia, abduction bracing alone does not reduce dislocations and may cause […] deformity

268
Q

In cerebral palsy hip dysplasia, a proximal femoral osteotomy with shelf-producing (Dega) osteotomy and soft-tissue release is indicated in children older than […] or a Reimer’s index greater than […]

A

60 degrees

269
Q

In cerebral palsy hip dysplasia, soft tissue procedures with bracing is indicated in children less than age […] with a Reimer’s index between […] percent

270
Q

Goal of hip adductor and psoas release in cerebral palsy hip conditions is to achieve greater than […] degrees of hip abduction

271
Q

When performing adductor tenotomies in a patient with cerebral palsy, begin with tenotomy of the […], sequentially release […] and […] as needed

A

adductor longus, gracilis, adductor brevis

272
Q

When performing a psoas release in a patient with cerebral palsy, in non-ambulatory patients, the tendon is released at […]

A

the level of insertion

273
Q

When performing a psoas release in a patient with cerebral palsy, in ambulatory patients, the tendon is released at […]

A

pelvic brim in the myotendonous junction

274
Q

What nerve is at risk when releasing adductor brevis?

A

obturator nerve

275
Q

Abduction contracture may occur with neurectomy of […] nerve during adductor releases

A

anterior branch of obturator

276
Q

Is DDH more common in males or females?

277
Q

Is DDH more common on the left or right hip?

278
Q

Repetitive hip subluxation of the femoral head leads to the formation of a ridge of thickened articular cartilage called the […]

279
Q

In DDH, chronic hip dislocation leads to […] femoral anteversion

280
Q

In DDH, chronic hip dislocation leads to […] acetabular anteversion

281
Q

What foot deformity is associated with DDH?

A

metatarsus adducts

282
Q

Barlow and Ortolani are rarely positive after […] age because of soft-tissue contractures that form around the hip

283
Q

The most sensitive test for DDH from 3 months to one year is limited hip […]

284
Q

Radiographs become primary imaging modality for DDH at […] mo ,after the femoral head begins to ossify

285
Q

Femoral head ossification should be […] to Hilgenreiner’s line

286
Q

Femoral head ossification should be […] to Perkin’s line

287
Q

Acetabular index should be less than […] degrees in patients older than 6 months

288
Q

AAP recommends an US study at age […] in patients who are considered high risk (family history or breech presentation) despite normal exam

289
Q

A normal α angle on hip US is greater than […] degrees

290
Q

A normal beta angle on hip US is less than […] degrees

291
Q

An α angle less than […] degrees on hip US is indicative of subluxation and treatment with Pavlik harness

292
Q

A beta angle greater than […] degrees on hip US is indicative of subluxation and treatment with Pavlik harness

293
Q

What are the contraindications to Pavlik harness for the treatment of DDH?

A

spina bifida, teratologic hip, spasticity

294
Q

What are the indications for treating DDH with Pavlik harness?

A

less than 6 months old; reducible hip

295
Q

Pavlik harness should be discontinued if hip is not reduced by […] weeks to prevent Pavlik disease

296
Q

AVN due to treatment with Pavlik harness is due to impingement of the […] branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery

A

posterosuperior retinacular

297
Q

AVN due to treatment with Pavlik harness is seen when hip abduction is greater than […] degrees

298
Q

If Pavlik harness fails in DDH, consider converting to […] with weekly ultrasounds for an addition 3-4 weeks before considering further intervention

A

semi-rigid abduction brace

299
Q

When performing closed reduction and spica casting for DDH, must obtain concentric reduction with less than […] mm of contrast pooling medial to femoral head and no interposition of the limbus

300
Q

Following closed reduction and casting for DDH, an arthrogram with a medial dye pool greater than […] mm is associated with poor outcomes and AVN

301
Q

What is the inter muscular plane for a Ludloff approach to the hip?

A

medial approach; performed between the pectineus and adductor longus and brevis

302
Q

What is the plane for the Weinstein approach to the hip?

A

anteromedial approach; between NV bundle and pectineus

303
Q

What is the plane for the Ferguson approach to the hip?

A

superficially between the adductor longus and gracilis; deep between the adductor brevis and adductor magnus

304
Q

Which pelvic osteotomy is favored in neuromuscular dislocations (CP) and patients with posterior acetabular deficiency?

305
Q

Acetabular […]-version and femoral […]-version are risk factors for SCFE

A

retro; retro

306
Q

Elevation of which hormone level has been shown to increase the risk of SCFE (4.9x increased odds)

307
Q

In a SCFE, the metaphysistranslates […] and […] rotates

A

anterior; externally

308
Q

In a SCFE, the […] translates anterior and externally rotates

A

metaphysis

309
Q

Histology sections of a SCFE reveal […] between the columns in the hypertrophic zone

A

granulation tissue

310
Q

What is the most common etiology of nonidiopathic SCFE?

A

hypothyroidism

311
Q

In a SCFE, an endocrine work up is indicated if the child is less than […] years old

312
Q

In a SCFE, an endocrine work up is indicated if the child is less than […] percentile for weight

313
Q

What genetic syndrome is associated with SCFE?

A

Down syndrome

314
Q

Normal proximal femur anteversion is […] degrees

315
Q

At the hip joint, the […] femoral circumflex contributes to anterior arterial ring

316
Q

Main blood supply to the femoral head in adolescents and adults is the […] epiphyseal artery which is derived from the […] femoral circumflex artery

A

lateral; medial

317
Q

What is the difference between a stable and unstable SCFE on exam?

A

ability to bear weight

318
Q

The risk of osteonecrosis in a stable SCFE is less than […] percent.

319
Q

The risk of osteonecrosis in an unstable SCFE is between […] percent

320
Q

An acute SCFE has symptoms for less than […]

321
Q

What is the Southwick Slip Angle?

A

epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle

322
Q

In a SCFE, the Drehmann sign, obligatory […] rotation during passive flexion of hip can be noted on exam.

323
Q

In a SCFE, there is loss of hip […] rotation, […], and […] on ROM exam.

A

internal rotation, abduction, flexion

324
Q

What is the metaphyseal blanch sign of Steel seen in SCFE?

A

overlapping of the metaphysis and posteriorly displaced epiphysis

325
Q

If a patient with a SCFE is <10 years old, pre-pubertal or has short stature or weight below 50th percentile for age, which labs should be ordered?

A

Free T4, TSH, BUN, Cr

326
Q

Multiple screws in the treatment of a SCFE increased the risk of what long-term complication?

A

osteonecrosis

327
Q

In screw fixation for a SCFE, the starting point should […]l to intertrochanteric line to reduce the risk of impingement.

328
Q

In screw fixation of a SCFE, less than […] threads engaged in epiphysis increases risk of progression of slip.

329
Q

In a surgical hip dislocation using the Ganz technique, the interval is between the […] and […]

A

gluteus maximus and gluteus medius

330
Q

What is the greatest predictor of osteonecrosis following a SCFE?

A

unstable slip

331
Q

Hardware placement in […] femoral neck has the greatest risk of disrupting the vascular supply and thus osteonecrosis following SCFE fixation

A

posterosuperior

332
Q

In SCFE fixation, pin placement into the […] quadrant of the femoral head has the highest rate of joint penetration

A

anterosuperior

333
Q

Labral tearing following fixation of a SCFE is increased with placement of the screw […] and […] placement

A

anterior; medial