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ALS/Paramedic Course > Trauma & MOI > Flashcards

Trauma & MOI Flashcards

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1
Q

Relationship between venous return and cardiac output

A

Frank-Starling mechanism/Starling law of the heart

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2
Q

In the context of shock, calcium channel blockers interfere with ___

A

Vasoconstriction

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3
Q

___ interfere with normal sympathetic response and prevent the heart from pumping harder or faster, which can alter the body’s response to shock

A

Beta blockers

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4
Q

Anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium that leads to the development of gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

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5
Q

Dead tissue caused by interruption or cessation of blood supply

A

Gangrene

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6
Q

2 types of gangrene

A

Wet & dry

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7
Q

Consensus formula for burn patient fluid resuscitation

A

2-4 mL x body weight (kg) x TBSA burned

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8
Q

“How many dimes make a dollar” tests function of the ___ in a head trauma patient

A

Parietal lobe

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9
Q

Speech is processed in the ___ lobe

A

Temporal

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10
Q

“Seeing stars” or flashes of light upon head trauma indicates possible injury to the ___ lobe

A

Occipital

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11
Q

Rapidly touching finger to thumb (or any rapid, repetitive motion) tests for dysfunction of the ___

A

Cerebellum

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12
Q

TBI patients requiring assisted ventilation should be ventilated to maintain an ETCO2 of:

A

35-40 mmHg

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13
Q

Hyperventilation causes cerebral ___

A

Vasoconstriction

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14
Q

Patients presenting with S&S of cerebral herniation should be ventilated to maintain en ETCO2 of:

A

30-35 mmHg

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15
Q

A pt with a crushing injury should be administered ___ prior to removing the crushing object.

A

High flow O2 & albuterol neb

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16
Q

If a crushing syndrome PT shows signs of EKG changes consistent with hyperkalemia, administer ___ to stabilize the myocardium

A

Calcium

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17
Q

___ is an increase in core body temperature due to inadequate thermolysis

A

Heat illness

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18
Q

A PT with dry, hot, possibly sweaty skin, and absent muscle cramping, may be experiencing:

A

Heat stroke

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19
Q

Muscle cramps paired with pale, cool, moist skin and mild confusion should be considered evidence of:

A

Heat exhaustion

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20
Q

3 factors contributing to heat cramps

A

Salt depletion, dehydration, muscle fatigue

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21
Q

___ is contraindicated in PTs with confirmed exercise associated hyponatremia

A

Administration of hypotonic/isotonic fluids or LR

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22
Q

Destruction of muscle tissue leading to release of K+ and myoglobin

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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23
Q

Emergency diagnosis of heat stroke typically depends on findings of:

A

Elevated CBT & AMS

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24
Q

A burn produced by touching a hot object

A

Contact burn

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25
Q

A form of necrosis that results from the transformation of tissue into a liquid viscous mass (pus)

A

Liquefaction necrosis

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26
Q

Surrounding structures & accessories of an organ

A

Adnexa

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27
Q

Le Fort III fracture that involves a fracture of all of the midfacial bones, which separates the entire midface from the cranium

A

Craniofacial disjunction

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28
Q

Principle mass of a tooth, made up of material much denser than bone

A

Dentin

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29
Q

Paralysis of gaze or lack of coordination between movements of the two eyes

A

Dysconjugate gaze

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30
Q

misalignment of the teeth

A

malocclusion

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31
Q

Inflammation of the mediastinum

A

Mediastinitis

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32
Q

3rd cranial nerve; innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper eyelids

A

Occulomotor nerve

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33
Q

movement of both eyes in unison

A

sympathetic eye movement

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34
Q

Joint between the posterior condyle and the temporal bone

A

temperomandibular joint

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35
Q

Traumatic separation of the trachea from the larynx

A

tracheal transection

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36
Q

Clinical course that usually begins within hours of exposure to radiation

A

acute radiation syndrome

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37
Q

Cell death typically caused by ischemia or infarction

A

coagulation necrosis

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38
Q

Formula used to calculate infusion of LR based on body weight

A

Consensus formula

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39
Q

Surgical cut through a burn to minimize effects of compartment syndrome

A

escharotomy

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40
Q

“Burn shock”

A

hypovolemic shock

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41
Q

Detailed version of the “rule of 9’s” chart that accounts for growth

A

Lund-Browder chart

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42
Q

above the glottic opening

A

supraglottic

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43
Q

Reddened area surrounding a full thickness burn

A

zone of coagulation

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44
Q

area least effected by a thermal burn injury where there is increased blood flow

A

zone of hyperemia

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45
Q

Area surrounding the zone of coagulation that has decreased blood flow and inflammation; may undergo necrosis

A

zone of stasis

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46
Q

connective tissue within the cavity of a tooth

A

pulp

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47
Q

Condition that occurs with flexion injuries or fractures, resulting in displacement of bonny fractures into the anterior portion of the spinal cord

A

anterior cord syndrome

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48
Q

Symptoms of anterior cord syndrome

A

paralysis below the level of insult; loss of pain, temperature, and touch perception

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49
Q

compensatory physiologic response that occurs in an effort to shunt blood to the brain; manifests clinically as HTN

A

Autoregulation

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50
Q

The brain’s ability to regulate the diameter of vessels in the brain in response to a wide range of MAPs

A

autoregulation

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51
Q

Irregular pattern, rate, and depth of respirations with intermittent periods of apnea; results from increased ICP

A

biot respirations

52
Q

area of the brain between the spinal cord and cerebrum

A

brainstem

53
Q

Condition associate with penetrating trauma; characterized baby hemisection of the cord and complete damage to all spinal tracts on the effected side

A

Brown-Séquard syndrome

54
Q

Deep, rapid respirations similar to Kussmaul but without the acetone breath odor; commonly seen after brainstem injury

A

Central neurogenic hyperventilation

55
Q

area of the brain involved in fine and gross muscle coordination

A

cerebellum

56
Q

Brain injury caused by jarring, does not cause structural damage or permanent neuromuscular impairment

A

cerebral concussion

57
Q

focal brain injury in which brain tissue is bruised and damaged in a defined area

A

cerebral contusion

58
Q

largest portion of the cerebrum

A

cerebral cortex

59
Q

Pressure inside cerebral arteries

A

cerebral perfusion pressure

60
Q

gradually increasing rate and depth of respirations followed by a gradual decrease with intermittent period of apnea

A

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

61
Q

HTN, bradycardia, and irregular respirations associated with increased ICP

A

Cushing triad

62
Q

Abnormal posture of the limbs presenting with extension & rotation of the arms and pointing of the toes

A

decerebrate posturing

63
Q

Posturing that indicates increased ICP

A

Decerebrate posturing

64
Q

Posturing that indicates decreased ICP

A

decorticate posturing

65
Q

Area of skin supplied by a specific sensory spinal nerve

A

dermatome

66
Q

Potentially life-threatening injury that presents clinically with massive, uninhibited, uncompensated cardiovasular response

A

autonomic dysreflexia/hyperreflexia

67
Q

A PT with SBP >200 and DBP > 130, with cool, pale extremities is likely experiencing:

A

autonomic dysreflexia syndrome

68
Q

Spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormalities can occur in children because:

A

their vertebrae lie flatter on top of each other

69
Q

___ is an increae in MAP to maintain cerebral blood flow

A

autoregulation

70
Q

___ involved stretching, shearing, or tearing of the neuronal extensions

A

diffuse axonal injury

71
Q

A PT with possible SCI should be given what kind of medication to prevent secondary injury caused by movement caused by acute agitation

A

short-acting, reversible sedative

72
Q

The ___ spinal nerve tract carries information regarding pain and temperature

A

lateral spinothalamic

73
Q

As the body ages, the intervertebral discs:

A

lose water content and become thinner

74
Q

PTs with diaphragmatic breathing without intercostal muscle use has mostl likely experienced a spinal injury above the level of:

A

T2

75
Q

Crescent shaped fold that divides the cerebrum into left and right hemispheres

A

falx cerebelli

76
Q

Type of skull fracture most common following high-energy direct trauma to a small surface are with a blunt object

A

depressed fracture

77
Q

Type of intracranial hemorrhage most likely to be cause by a penetrating head injury:

A

intracerebral hematoma

78
Q

First step in any neurological assessment

A

Determining the PTs level of consciousness

79
Q

Portion of the brainstem responsible for maintenance of consciousness

A

reticular activating system

80
Q

___ is observed when the toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot

A

positive Babinski reflex

81
Q

The ___ lobe controls the body’s ability to perceive limb movement

A

parietal

82
Q

A subdural hematoma is classified as acute if clinical signs & symptoms develop:

A

within 48 hours following the injury

83
Q

Subdural hematoma is classified as subacute when signs & symptoms develop:

A

between 2-14 days following injury

84
Q

___ is characterized by motor function loss on the same side, and below the level of cord injury

A

Brown-Séquard syndrome

85
Q

Needle thoracentesis should be performed in this location:

A

Superior to the 3rd rib in the intercostal space at the midclavicular line

86
Q

Immediate treatment for an open pneumothorax involves:

A

converting it to a closed pneumothrax (chest seal)

87
Q

Suspect a pericardial tamponade when a PT has hypotension, JVD, and:

A

normal breath sounds

88
Q

Traumatic injuries to the aorta are MOST commonly the result of:

A

shearing forces

89
Q

___ is a result of chest wall impact during the critical period of cardiac repolarization

A

Commotio Cordis

90
Q

Becuase the diaphragm is protected by the liver, most diaphragmatic injuries occur on the ___ side

A

left

91
Q

A massive hemothorax is characterized by:

A

more than 1,500 mL of blood within the pleural space

92
Q

PTs with suspected tracheal tear should be managed with what airway technique?

A

The least invasive possible

93
Q

In a pericardial tamponade, blood collects between the ___ and ___

A

visceral and parietal pericardium

94
Q

Generalized abdominal pain following rupture of a hollow organ would be most suggestive of:

A

diffue peritoneal contamination

95
Q

Anatomically, the abdominal cavity extends from the:

A

diaphragm to the pelvis

96
Q

Membranous tissue that acts as the attachment point for various abdominal organs

A

messentary

97
Q

Fractures of the lower rib cage should make you MOST suspicious of injuries to the:

A

liver or spleen

98
Q

Most abdominal injuries involve:

A

blunt trauma

99
Q

When bloos is released into the peritoneal cavity, nonspecific signs such as ___ may occur

A

tachycardia & hypotension

100
Q

Fournier gangrene is a potential complication associated with:

A

scrotal lacerations

101
Q

Immediate pain from the heel to the calf and a sudden inability for plantar flexion is MOST indicative of:

A

Achille tendon rupture

102
Q

Typically the first complaint in a PT who is developing compartment syndrome:

A

Disproportionate pain

103
Q

6 P’s of musculoskeletal injury assessment:

A

Pain, Pallor, Parasthesias, paralysis, pulselessness, Pressure

104
Q

“Silver Fork” fracture

A

Colles fracture

105
Q

Bilateral closed femur fractures can result in internal blood loss of up to: ___ mL

A

3,000

106
Q

___ fracture occurs at an angle across the bone and is typically caused by direct or twisting force

A

Oblique

107
Q

Pain and tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox is a classic finding in fractures of the ___ bone

A

scaphoid

108
Q

___ fractures are generally caused by low-energy trauma an are typically not associated with deformity

A

Nondisplaced

109
Q

Blood loss in a unilateral closed femur fracture may exceed ___ before enough pressure develops to tampnade the bleeding

A

1,000 mL

110
Q

Wrist drop following a midshaft humeral fracture should raise suspicion of ___

A

radial nerve injury

111
Q

Bleeding disorder in which clotting does not occur or occurs insufficiently

A

Hemophilia

112
Q

Trauma triad of death

A

Hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis

113
Q

Black and blue mark caused by disruption to the small vessels in the dermis

A

Ecchymosis

114
Q

Collection of blood beneath the skin

A

Hematoma

115
Q

___ occurs because of prolonged compressive forces that impaired muscle metabolism

A

Crush syndrome

116
Q

Injury resulting from a piercing object

A

Puncture wound

117
Q

Avulsion involving the complete or partial loss of a body part

A

Amputation

118
Q

Normal ICP range

A

5-15 mmHg

119
Q

Normal MAP range

A

85-95 mmHg

120
Q

Normal CPP range , determined by normal MAP and ICP

A

70-90 mmHg

121
Q

Excessive fluid in the pericardial sac

A

Cardiac tamponade

122
Q

Classic combination of physical findings in 10-40% of patients with cardiac tamponade

A

Beck’s triad

123
Q

Signs include muffled heart tones, hypotension, and JVD

A

Beck’s triad

124
Q

Hypotension and distended neck veins in the presence of normal lung sounds indicates:

A

Cardiac tamponade

125
Q

Hypotension and distended neck veins in the presence of absent or diminished lung sounds indicate:

A

Pneumothorax

126
Q

Pathologic condition characterized by restricted cardiac contraction, falling CO, and shock

A

Cardiac tamponade

ALS/Paramedic Course (10 decks)

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