Operations Flashcards
1
Q
Federal standards for design & manufacturing of emergency vehicles
A
DOT KKK 1822
2
Q
EMV type that features a modular body that can be remounted
A
Type 1
3
Q
EMV type that is based on a standard “van” design
A
Type 2
4
Q
EMV type that features an integral cab body on a specialty van chassis
A
Type 3
5
Q
The goals of ___ are to maximize efficiency and reduce response time
A
System Status Management (SSM)
6
Q
A ___ is declared by a locale or government for the purpose of providing resources to those in need
A
disaster
7
Q
The ____ was developed to promote more efficient coordination of emergency incidents
A
NIMS
8
Q
Two important features of the NIMS are ___ and ___
A
standardization & flexibility
9
Q
When individual units or different organizations make independent decisions about next actions in an MCI
A
Freelancing
10
Q
One of the organizing principles of the ICS is limiting the ___
A
span of control
11
Q
Span of control is best described as ___
A
number of resources for which a supervisor is responsible
12
Q
A ___ incident has a number of casualties not yet located, possibly requiring search & rescue
A
open/uncontained
13
Q
___ incidents are those in which all patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more
A
Closed/contained
14
Q
Triage assessment used for PTs greather than 100lbs
A
START triage
15
Q
Triage method for PTs weighing approximately less than 100 lbs
A
JumpSTART triage
16
Q
The biggest difference between START and JumpSTART triage is:
A
respiratory rate considerations & presence of spontaneous respiration after 5 rescue breaths if found apneic
17
Q
The ___ triage method allows for limited rapid interventions on “immediate” patients
A
SALT
18
Q
The goal of every MCI should be:
A
doing the most good for the most people
19
Q
“to deliver from danger or confinement”
A
rescue
20
Q
A ___ is a complex rescue incident involving one or multiple special circumstances that pose dangers to patients and rescuers
A
technical rescue incident (TRI)
21
Q
The levels of technical rescue training are defined in ___ (2)
A
NFPA 1006, and NFPA 1670
22
Q
Technical rescue training level that is an introduction to the topic
A
awareness
23
Q
___ training allows you to assist directly in the rescue operation and take a limited part in rescue incidents
A
Operations
24
Q
___ training allows for direct involvement in rescue operations
A
Technician
25
Mnemonic for scene size up at a TRI
UCAN
26
UCAN stands for:
Unit, Conditions, Actions, Needs
27
___ involves freeing patients from the area or objects in which they are trapped
disentanglement
28
Crush syndrome occurs after ___ of compression/entrapment
4-6 hours
29
Crush syndrome is considered a ___ injury
hypoperfusion
30
OSHA document containing competencies for HazMat response
HAZWOPER
31
NFPA level _ ensemble is "gas-tight" and fully contained
A
32
NFPA level _ ensemble provides high-level respiratory & splash protection but with supplied air worn outside
B
33
NFPA level _ ensemble is designed to protect against a known substance
C
34
Cyanide exposure (not caused by smoke inhalation) treatment begins with use of ___
amyl nitrite
35
___ is an expression of fuel/air mixture, expressed as a range
flammable range
36
___ is an expression of the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to ignite in the presence of an ignition source
flash point
37
Concerning Hazmat, Vapor pressure pertains to:
any liquids held in any type of enclosed container
38
Priority treatment for a PT exposed to pesticides who is coughing up copious secretions would include:
oral suctioning
39
If you discover a seemingly ordinary EMS call is actually a HazMat incident, you should:
immediately notify dispatch and request appropriate resources
40
If a PT from a hazmat scene is brought to you emitting a pungent odor and with obvious chemical on their clothing, you should:
advise that the PT has not been adequately decontaminated
41
In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is:
a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation
42
Level of PPE that would most likely be worn during transport of a PT with potential of secondary contamination:
level C PPE
43
The ___ alerts responders to the potential for attack and gives specifics of the current threat, where feasible
National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS)
44
If the ICS has already been established at a scene, upon arrival you should seek out the ___ to receive your assignment
medical staging supervisor
45
5 categories of WMD's
chemical, biologic, radiologic, nuclear, explosive
46
Chlorine and phosgene are classified as ____ agents
Respiratory or choking
47
WMDs such as Sarin, soman, and Tuban are classified as ___ agents
nerve
48
Hydrogen cyanide and cyanogen chloride are WMDs classified as ___ agents
metabolic or blood
49
Mace, tear gas, pepper spray fall into the ___ class of WMDs
irritating agents
50
___ and ___ are terms used to describe how long an agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates
Persistency & volatility
51
Persistent, or nonvolatile, agents can remain on a surface for long periods, usually longer than:
24 hours
52
The primary route of entry of blister agents (vesicants) is the ___
skin
53
Killer B's of nerve agents
bradycardia
Bronchorrhea
Bronchospasm
54
SLUDGEM stands for:
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI distress
Emesis
Miosis
55
Unlike epileptic seizures, seizure associated with nerve agent exposure:
Continue until PT death or treatment with nerve agent antidote is initiated
56
Two examples of Nerve agent antidote kits are
DuoDote, Mark 1
57
A PT with blister-like lesions stating they smelled "garlic" may have been exposed to ___
a vesicant/blistering agent
58
PTs displaying signs of bradycardia, bronchorrhea, and bronchospasm have most likely been exposed to:
a chemical nerve agent
59
Means by which a terrorist will spread a biologic agent
dissemination
60
The most potent toxin is:
botulinum
61
___ is derived from castor beans
Ricin
62
___ refers to generally healthy people who seek medical treatment because they are concerned they are exhibiting symptoms
worried well
63
___ is the monitoring of PTs presenting to ED's and alternative care facilities in hopes of early detection of outbreaks
Syndrome surveillance
64
Strategically placed facilities for distributinng antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, & other supplies
Points of distribution (PODs)
65
The least harmful type of radiation
Alpha radiation
66
The fastest moving & most powerful form of radiation
Neutron radiation
67
These rays easily penetrate the human body & require several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration
Gamma rays
68
Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material
radiologic dispersal device (RDD)
69
The act of conducting comprehensive preplanning for all types of disasters
all-hazards approach
70
Category 1 hurricanes have wind speeds in the range of:
74-95 mph
71
Category 5 hurricanes have wind speeds of:
greater than 155 mph
72
The ICS-211 form serves to:
track who was mobilized and when/where they were assigned
73
System status management is a concept that was developed by ___ in the year ___
Jack Stout; 1983
74
SSM concept; increased demand during certain hours of the day
Peak load
75
The process of removing dirt or other visible contaminants from a surface
Cleaning
76
A process that removes all microbial contamination
Sterilization
77
The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose
Disinfection
78
A safe distance maintained between your vehicle and the vehicle in front of you
Cushion of safety
79
At a crash scene where you are not first to respond, it is best to park the ambulance ___
~100 feet past and on the same side
80
Landing zone size limitations for air transport
100’x100’, but no less than 60’x60’
81
Never approach a helicopter from the:
Rear
82
Never ___ unless instructed & accompanied by the flight crew
Approach the helicopter
83
A ___ is declared when the number of patients & severity of injuries suggest that community resources could be overwhelmed
Mass-casualty incident
84
A ___ refers to any situation with more than one patient
Multiple-casualty incident
85
Organizational structure of the ICS includes the following: (4, in order from top down)
Sections
Branches
Divisions/Groups
Resources
86
___ are often designed to serve as a base of operations or command centers for representatives from every agency involved in a response
Emergency operations center
87
ICS command functions include:
Public info officer
Safety officer
Liaison officer
88
Large MCI’s require multiagency response and require use of a:
Unified command system
89
The ___ section chief has responsibility for coms equipment, facilities, food & water, fuel, lighting,& medical equipment/supplies
Logistics
90
The ___ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations
Operations
91
The ___ relays information and concerns among command, general staff, & other agencies
Liaison officer
92
On arrival at a large scale incident, you should check in with the:
Resource unit of the planning section
93
The ___ is in charge of counting & prioritizing patients
Triage unit leader
94
A ___ should be assigned when scenes require response by numerous units or agencies
Staging area manager
95
The ___ should establish an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation
Rehabilitation group leader
96
___ is a type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients
Primary triage
97
___ is a type of patient sorting used in the treatment group that involves retriage of the patients
Secondary triage
98
Any patient breathing less than __ or greater than __ breaths per minute should be categorized as immediate
10; 30
99
START triage focuses on assessing the patient’s:
Respirations , perfusion, & mental status
100
When triaging a child, if the respiratory rate is <___ or >___, they should be categorized as immediate
15;45
101
In ___ triage, patients who are unable to walk but display purposeful movement or ability to follow commands are given second priority after unresponsive patients
SALT
102
SALT stands for:
Sort, assess, lifesaving interventions, treatment/transport
103
Rescue situations in which the slope of the ground over which rescuers are working is is <45° is classified as:
Low angle rescue
104
As a paramedic, your primary responsibility at a technical rescue scene is:
Patient care
105
When arriving at the scene of a technical rescue incident, assess the scene for anything that may be:
Immediately dangerous to life and health (ILDH)
106
___ is the method of controlling the flow of motor vehicles to ensure safety and efficient rescue operations
Tragic incident management
107
The ___ is an important process to ensure rescuers safety at all emergencies
Accountability system
108
The most basic physical support for vehicle stabilization
Cribbing
109
A ___ is a structure not intended for continuous occupancy with limited openings
Confined space
110
Colorless, toxic, flammable gas produced by anaerobic bacteria
Hydrogen sulfide
111
Toxic, corrosive chemical with characteristic pungent smell
Ammonia
112
Red-brown gas with sharp, biting odor
Nitrogen oxide
113
___stabilizes the sides of an excavation effort during trench rescue
Shoring
114
Any water temperature less than ___ will cause hypothermia with prolonged exposure
98.6°
115
If in cold water, assume the ___ position
HELP
(Heat escape lessening position)
116
A person immersed in water colder than 70°F May benefit from the:
Cold protective response
117
Anyone working within ___ FT of water should wear a PFD
10
118
___ is the primary treatment of all submersion patients as soon as they are face up
Immediate ventilation
119
Define HAZWOPER
Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response
120
DOT class 1
Explosives
121
DOT class 2
Gases
122
DOT class 3
Flammable/combustible liquids
123
DOT class 4
Flammable solids, dangerous when wet substances; spontaneously combustible substances
124
DOT class 5
Oxidizing substances & organic peroxides
125
DOT class 6
Toxic or infectious substances
126
DOT class 7
Radioactive materials
127
DOT class 8
Corrosive substances
128
DOT class 9
Miscellaneous hazardous materials/substances
129
___ are Diamond shaped indicators placed on all 4 sides of highway transport vehicles
Placards
130
___ are smaller versions of placards placed on boxes/containers
Labels
131
A ___ should be carried by the driver of any truck carrying hazmat
Bill of lading/freight bill
132
A ___ is carried by the conductor of a train carrying hazmat
Waybill
133
___ has the ability to provide responders with technical chemical info to assist emergency responders
CHEMTREC
134
A Diamond status sign inside a building during chemicals with a smaller BLUE Diamond inside with a ”4” indicates a hazard to:
Health
135
___ is an engineered method to control spilled/released product if the main vessel fails
Secondary containment
136
___ are used to hold liquids or grass
Cylinders
137
Oval shaped tank pulled by a diesel truck, hills 6,000-10,000 gallons
DOT 406
138
Round/horseshoe shaped tanker that holds 6,000-7,000 gallons
DOT 407
139
Tanker with reinforcing runs that is used to carry ~6,000 gallons of corrosive
DOT 412
140
A ___ effect may be described as reddening of the skin
Local
141
When a liquid fuel is heated beyond its flash point, it will ignite without an ignition source at this landmark
Ignition temperature
142
Most common/easiest method of decontamination
Dilution
143
Process of removing the bulk of contaminants from a person as quickly/completely as possible
Emergency decontamination
144
Process used by responders to clean PPE & tools
Technical decontamination
145
Chemicals that include both acids and bases
Corrosives
146
Substances that dissolve other substances
Solvents
147
Substances that interfere with acetylcholinesterase
Organophosphates
148
DUMBELS
Diarrhea, urination, miosis/muscle weakness, bradycardia/bronchospasm/brochorrhea, emesis, lacrimation, seizures/salivation/sweating
149
Killer B’s
Bradycardia
Bronchorrhea
Bronchospasm
150
Any gas that displaced oxygen from the atmosphere
Asphyxiant
