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ALS/Paramedic Course > Operations > Flashcards

Operations Flashcards

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1
Q

Federal standards for design & manufacturing of emergency vehicles

A

DOT KKK 1822

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2
Q

EMV type that features a modular body that can be remounted

A

Type 1

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3
Q

EMV type that is based on a standard “van” design

A

Type 2

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4
Q

EMV type that features an integral cab body on a specialty van chassis

A

Type 3

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5
Q

The goals of ___ are to maximize efficiency and reduce response time

A

System Status Management (SSM)

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6
Q

A ___ is declared by a locale or government for the purpose of providing resources to those in need

A

disaster

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7
Q

The ____ was developed to promote more efficient coordination of emergency incidents

A

NIMS

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8
Q

Two important features of the NIMS are ___ and ___

A

standardization & flexibility

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9
Q

When individual units or different organizations make independent decisions about next actions in an MCI

A

Freelancing

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10
Q

One of the organizing principles of the ICS is limiting the ___

A

span of control

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11
Q

Span of control is best described as ___

A

number of resources for which a supervisor is responsible

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12
Q

A ___ incident has a number of casualties not yet located, possibly requiring search & rescue

A

open/uncontained

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13
Q

___ incidents are those in which all patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more

A

Closed/contained

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14
Q

Triage assessment used for PTs greather than 100lbs

A

START triage

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15
Q

Triage method for PTs weighing approximately less than 100 lbs

A

JumpSTART triage

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16
Q

The biggest difference between START and JumpSTART triage is:

A

respiratory rate considerations & presence of spontaneous respiration after 5 rescue breaths if found apneic

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17
Q

The ___ triage method allows for limited rapid interventions on “immediate” patients

A

SALT

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18
Q

The goal of every MCI should be:

A

doing the most good for the most people

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19
Q

“to deliver from danger or confinement”

A

rescue

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20
Q

A ___ is a complex rescue incident involving one or multiple special circumstances that pose dangers to patients and rescuers

A

technical rescue incident (TRI)

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21
Q

The levels of technical rescue training are defined in ___ (2)

A

NFPA 1006, and NFPA 1670

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22
Q

Technical rescue training level that is an introduction to the topic

A

awareness

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23
Q

___ training allows you to assist directly in the rescue operation and take a limited part in rescue incidents

A

Operations

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24
Q

___ training allows for direct involvement in rescue operations

A

Technician

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25
Q

Mnemonic for scene size up at a TRI

A

UCAN

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26
Q

UCAN stands for:

A

Unit, Conditions, Actions, Needs

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27
Q

___ involves freeing patients from the area or objects in which they are trapped

A

disentanglement

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28
Q

Crush syndrome occurs after ___ of compression/entrapment

A

4-6 hours

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29
Q

Crush syndrome is considered a ___ injury

A

hypoperfusion

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30
Q

OSHA document containing competencies for HazMat response

A

HAZWOPER

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31
Q

NFPA level _ ensemble is “gas-tight” and fully contained

A

A

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32
Q

NFPA level _ ensemble provides high-level respiratory & splash protection but with supplied air worn outside

A

B

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33
Q

NFPA level _ ensemble is designed to protect against a known substance

A

C

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34
Q

Cyanide exposure (not caused by smoke inhalation) treatment begins with use of ___

A

amyl nitrite

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35
Q

___ is an expression of fuel/air mixture, expressed as a range

A

flammable range

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36
Q

___ is an expression of the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to ignite in the presence of an ignition source

A

flash point

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37
Q

Concerning Hazmat, Vapor pressure pertains to:

A

any liquids held in any type of enclosed container

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38
Q

Priority treatment for a PT exposed to pesticides who is coughing up copious secretions would include:

A

oral suctioning

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39
Q

If you discover a seemingly ordinary EMS call is actually a HazMat incident, you should:

A

immediately notify dispatch and request appropriate resources

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40
Q

If a PT from a hazmat scene is brought to you emitting a pungent odor and with obvious chemical on their clothing, you should:

A

advise that the PT has not been adequately decontaminated

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41
Q

In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is:

A

a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation

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42
Q

Level of PPE that would most likely be worn during transport of a PT with potential of secondary contamination:

A

level C PPE

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43
Q

The ___ alerts responders to the potential for attack and gives specifics of the current threat, where feasible

A

National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS)

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44
Q

If the ICS has already been established at a scene, upon arrival you should seek out the ___ to receive your assignment

A

medical staging supervisor

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45
Q

5 categories of WMD’s

A

chemical, biologic, radiologic, nuclear, explosive

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46
Q

Chlorine and phosgene are classified as ____ agents

A

Respiratory or choking

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47
Q

WMDs such as Sarin, soman, and Tuban are classified as ___ agents

A

nerve

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48
Q

Hydrogen cyanide and cyanogen chloride are WMDs classified as ___ agents

A

metabolic or blood

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49
Q

Mace, tear gas, pepper spray fall into the ___ class of WMDs

A

irritating agents

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50
Q

___ and ___ are terms used to describe how long an agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates

A

Persistency & volatility

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51
Q

Persistent, or nonvolatile, agents can remain on a surface for long periods, usually longer than:

A

24 hours

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52
Q

The primary route of entry of blister agents (vesicants) is the ___

A

skin

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53
Q

Killer B’s of nerve agents

A

bradycardia
Bronchorrhea
Bronchospasm

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54
Q

SLUDGEM stands for:

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI distress
Emesis
Miosis

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55
Q

Unlike epileptic seizures, seizure associated with nerve agent exposure:

A

Continue until PT death or treatment with nerve agent antidote is initiated

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56
Q

Two examples of Nerve agent antidote kits are

A

DuoDote, Mark 1

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57
Q

A PT with blister-like lesions stating they smelled “garlic” may have been exposed to ___

A

a vesicant/blistering agent

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58
Q

PTs displaying signs of bradycardia, bronchorrhea, and bronchospasm have most likely been exposed to:

A

a chemical nerve agent

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59
Q

Means by which a terrorist will spread a biologic agent

A

dissemination

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60
Q

The most potent toxin is:

A

botulinum

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61
Q

___ is derived from castor beans

A

Ricin

62
Q

___ refers to generally healthy people who seek medical treatment because they are concerned they are exhibiting symptoms

A

worried well

63
Q

___ is the monitoring of PTs presenting to ED’s and alternative care facilities in hopes of early detection of outbreaks

A

Syndrome surveillance

64
Q

Strategically placed facilities for distributinng antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, & other supplies

A

Points of distribution (PODs)

65
Q

The least harmful type of radiation

A

Alpha radiation

66
Q

The fastest moving & most powerful form of radiation

A

Neutron radiation

67
Q

These rays easily penetrate the human body & require several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration

A

Gamma rays

68
Q

Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material

A

radiologic dispersal device (RDD)

69
Q

The act of conducting comprehensive preplanning for all types of disasters

A

all-hazards approach

70
Q

Category 1 hurricanes have wind speeds in the range of:

A

74-95 mph

71
Q

Category 5 hurricanes have wind speeds of:

A

greater than 155 mph

72
Q

The ICS-211 form serves to:

A

track who was mobilized and when/where they were assigned

73
Q

System status management is a concept that was developed by ___ in the year ___

A

Jack Stout; 1983

74
Q

SSM concept; increased demand during certain hours of the day

A

Peak load

75
Q

The process of removing dirt or other visible contaminants from a surface

A

Cleaning

76
Q

A process that removes all microbial contamination

A

Sterilization

77
Q

The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose

A

Disinfection

78
Q

A safe distance maintained between your vehicle and the vehicle in front of you

A

Cushion of safety

79
Q

At a crash scene where you are not first to respond, it is best to park the ambulance ___

A

~100 feet past and on the same side

80
Q

Landing zone size limitations for air transport

A

100’x100’, but no less than 60’x60’

81
Q

Never approach a helicopter from the:

A

Rear

82
Q

Never ___ unless instructed & accompanied by the flight crew

A

Approach the helicopter

83
Q

A ___ is declared when the number of patients & severity of injuries suggest that community resources could be overwhelmed

A

Mass-casualty incident

84
Q

A ___ refers to any situation with more than one patient

A

Multiple-casualty incident

85
Q

Organizational structure of the ICS includes the following: (4, in order from top down)

A

Sections
Branches
Divisions/Groups
Resources

86
Q

___ are often designed to serve as a base of operations or command centers for representatives from every agency involved in a response

A

Emergency operations center

87
Q

ICS command functions include:

A

Public info officer
Safety officer
Liaison officer

88
Q

Large MCI’s require multiagency response and require use of a:

A

Unified command system

89
Q

The ___ section chief has responsibility for coms equipment, facilities, food & water, fuel, lighting,& medical equipment/supplies

A

Logistics

90
Q

The ___ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations

A

Operations

91
Q

The ___ relays information and concerns among command, general staff, & other agencies

A

Liaison officer

92
Q

On arrival at a large scale incident, you should check in with the:

A

Resource unit of the planning section

93
Q

The ___ is in charge of counting & prioritizing patients

A

Triage unit leader

94
Q

A ___ should be assigned when scenes require response by numerous units or agencies

A

Staging area manager

95
Q

The ___ should establish an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation

A

Rehabilitation group leader

96
Q

___ is a type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients

A

Primary triage

97
Q

___ is a type of patient sorting used in the treatment group that involves retriage of the patients

A

Secondary triage

98
Q

Any patient breathing less than __ or greater than __ breaths per minute should be categorized as immediate

A

10; 30

99
Q

START triage focuses on assessing the patient’s:

A

Respirations , perfusion, & mental status

100
Q

When triaging a child, if the respiratory rate is <___ or >___, they should be categorized as immediate

A

15;45

101
Q

In ___ triage, patients who are unable to walk but display purposeful movement or ability to follow commands are given second priority after unresponsive patients

A

SALT

102
Q

SALT stands for:

A

Sort, assess, lifesaving interventions, treatment/transport

103
Q

Rescue situations in which the slope of the ground over which rescuers are working is is <45° is classified as:

A

Low angle rescue

104
Q

As a paramedic, your primary responsibility at a technical rescue scene is:

A

Patient care

105
Q

When arriving at the scene of a technical rescue incident, assess the scene for anything that may be:

A

Immediately dangerous to life and health (ILDH)

106
Q

___ is the method of controlling the flow of motor vehicles to ensure safety and efficient rescue operations

A

Tragic incident management

107
Q

The ___ is an important process to ensure rescuers safety at all emergencies

A

Accountability system

108
Q

The most basic physical support for vehicle stabilization

A

Cribbing

109
Q

A ___ is a structure not intended for continuous occupancy with limited openings

A

Confined space

110
Q

Colorless, toxic, flammable gas produced by anaerobic bacteria

A

Hydrogen sulfide

111
Q

Toxic, corrosive chemical with characteristic pungent smell

A

Ammonia

112
Q

Red-brown gas with sharp, biting odor

A

Nitrogen oxide

113
Q

___stabilizes the sides of an excavation effort during trench rescue

A

Shoring

114
Q

Any water temperature less than ___ will cause hypothermia with prolonged exposure

A

98.6°

115
Q

If in cold water, assume the ___ position

A

HELP
(Heat escape lessening position)

116
Q

A person immersed in water colder than 70°F May benefit from the:

A

Cold protective response

117
Q

Anyone working within ___ FT of water should wear a PFD

A

10

118
Q

___ is the primary treatment of all submersion patients as soon as they are face up

A

Immediate ventilation

119
Q

Define HAZWOPER

A

Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response

120
Q

DOT class 1

A

Explosives

121
Q

DOT class 2

A

Gases

122
Q

DOT class 3

A

Flammable/combustible liquids

123
Q

DOT class 4

A

Flammable solids, dangerous when wet substances; spontaneously combustible substances

124
Q

DOT class 5

A

Oxidizing substances & organic peroxides

125
Q

DOT class 6

A

Toxic or infectious substances

126
Q

DOT class 7

A

Radioactive materials

127
Q

DOT class 8

A

Corrosive substances

128
Q

DOT class 9

A

Miscellaneous hazardous materials/substances

129
Q

___ are Diamond shaped indicators placed on all 4 sides of highway transport vehicles

A

Placards

130
Q

___ are smaller versions of placards placed on boxes/containers

A

Labels

131
Q

A ___ should be carried by the driver of any truck carrying hazmat

A

Bill of lading/freight bill

132
Q

A ___ is carried by the conductor of a train carrying hazmat

A

Waybill

133
Q

___ has the ability to provide responders with technical chemical info to assist emergency responders

A

CHEMTREC

134
Q

A Diamond status sign inside a building during chemicals with a smaller BLUE Diamond inside with a ”4” indicates a hazard to:

A

Health

135
Q

___ is an engineered method to control spilled/released product if the main vessel fails

A

Secondary containment

136
Q

___ are used to hold liquids or grass

A

Cylinders

137
Q

Oval shaped tank pulled by a diesel truck, hills 6,000-10,000 gallons

A

DOT 406

138
Q

Round/horseshoe shaped tanker that holds 6,000-7,000 gallons

A

DOT 407

139
Q

Tanker with reinforcing runs that is used to carry ~6,000 gallons of corrosive

A

DOT 412

140
Q

A ___ effect may be described as reddening of the skin

A

Local

141
Q

When a liquid fuel is heated beyond its flash point, it will ignite without an ignition source at this landmark

A

Ignition temperature

142
Q

Most common/easiest method of decontamination

A

Dilution

143
Q

Process of removing the bulk of contaminants from a person as quickly/completely as possible

A

Emergency decontamination

144
Q

Process used by responders to clean PPE & tools

A

Technical decontamination

145
Q

Chemicals that include both acids and bases

A

Corrosives

146
Q

Substances that dissolve other substances

A

Solvents

147
Q

Substances that interfere with acetylcholinesterase

A

Organophosphates

148
Q

DUMBELS

A

Diarrhea, urination, miosis/muscle weakness, bradycardia/bronchospasm/brochorrhea, emesis, lacrimation, seizures/salivation/sweating

149
Q

Killer B’s

A

Bradycardia
Bronchorrhea
Bronchospasm

150
Q

Any gas that displaced oxygen from the atmosphere

A

Asphyxiant

ALS/Paramedic Course (10 decks)

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