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ALS/Paramedic Course > Special Populations > Flashcards

Special Populations Flashcards

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1
Q

An oocyte matures when the anterior pituitary gland releases:

A

Follicle-stimulatig hormone

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2
Q

___ is the hormone that stimulates the maturation of an oocyte

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

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3
Q

___ stimulates the release of the ovum

A

Luteinizing hormone

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4
Q

What is left of the follice after the egg/ovum has been released becomes the ___

A

Corpus luteum

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5
Q

The corpus luteum secretes:

A

Estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin

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6
Q

3 layers of the uterus

A

Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium

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7
Q

On implantation, the egg adheres to the ___

A

Endometrium

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8
Q

Implantation of the blastocyst occurs approximately ___ after fertilization

A

1 week

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9
Q

The formation of placental tissues stimulates the release of ___

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

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10
Q

The ___ carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the unborn baby

A

Umbillical vein

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11
Q

Kidney volume can increase as much as ___% during pregnancy

A

30

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12
Q

Number of live births

A

Parity

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13
Q

Cardiac output may increase by as much as ___% during pregnancy

A

30-50

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14
Q

ECG changes that can occur during pregnancy include:

A

Ectopic beats and SVT

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15
Q

Standard birthing position in the US

A

Lithotomy position

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16
Q

Elevated BP, facial edema, or hyperactive reflexes strongly suggest the presence of ___ in a pregnant woman

A

Preeclampsia

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17
Q

Management for supine hypertensive syndrome involves:

A

Placing the PT in the left lateral recumbent position & treating underlying causes

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18
Q

Uncommon form of heart failure that happens during the last month of pregnancy

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy

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19
Q

DBP greater than ___ places the pregnant PT in an increased risk category

A

110 mmHg

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20
Q

Severe preeclampsia may require administration of ___ to prevent seizures along with emergency antihypertensive meds

A

Magnesium sulfate

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21
Q

Severe preeclapmsia is defined as a SBP greather than ___ mmHg or DBP greater than ___ mmHg

A

160; 110

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22
Q

Seizures that result from severe hypertension in a pregnant woman

A

Ecalmpsia

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23
Q

___ is the recommended treatment for a pregnant PT with seizures, especially when eclampsia is present

A

Magnesium sulfate

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24
Q

___ and ___ are contraindicated for seizures in a pregnant PT due to their ability to cross the placental barrier

A

Diazepam (valium) and phenobarbital

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25
Q

Inability to process carbohydrates during pregnancy

A

Gestational diabetes

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26
Q

The ___ produces hormones designed to support pregnancy until the placenta is fully developed

A

Corpus luteum

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27
Q

In the ___ week after conception, the egg is officially recognized as an embryo

A

3rd

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28
Q

Beginnings of the CNS, CV system, spine, and skeletal anatomy begin to appear during the ___ week after conception

A

3rd

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29
Q

The placenta begins to develop around the ___ week of pregnancy

A

4th

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30
Q

The placenta acts as an early liver for the unborn baby, synthesizing ___ & ___

A

glycogen & cholesterol

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31
Q

THe umbillical ___ carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the baby, while the umbillical ___ carry arteriovenous blood to the placenta

A

vein; arteries

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32
Q

The ___ connects the umbillical vein and the inferior vena cava in the unborn baby

A

ductus venosus

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33
Q

The ___ connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta in an unborn baby

A

ductus arteriosus

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34
Q

The ___ separates the right & left atria of the unborn baby’s heart

A

foramen ovale

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35
Q

By the end of a full-term pregnancy, the uterus has an internal volume of approximately ___

A

5,000 mL

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36
Q

Kidney volume can increase as much as ___ during pregnancy

A

30%

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37
Q

A dark line down the midline of the abdomen that develops during pregnancy in many women

A

linea nigra

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38
Q

Total number of time a woman has been pregnant

A

gravidity

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39
Q

Number of live births a woman has had

A

parity

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40
Q

At term, the uterus normally contains ___ % of the woman’s total circulating blood volume

A

15 -16%

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41
Q

Shunting of blood back into maternal circulation during uterine contraction

A

autotransfusion

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42
Q

RBC count may increase by as much as ___% during pregnancy

A

33%

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43
Q

Cardiac output in a pregnant woman may increase by ___% above pre-pregnancy level

A

30%-50%

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44
Q

Cardiac output reaches it’s maximum at about ___ weeks gestation

A

22

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45
Q

At term, a pregnant woman’s HR will increase by an average of about ___ bpm

A

15-20

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46
Q

SBP & DBP may decrease until approximately ___ weeks gestation

A

24

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47
Q

By 8 weeks gestation, increasing levels of ___ cause the tidal volume to increase by as much as 30%-50% of the non-pregnant level

A

progesterone

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48
Q

Increased joint laxity is due to the release of the hormone ___ during pregnancy

A

relaxin

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49
Q

Hormone which decreases the utilization of insulin by cells during pregnancy

A

progesterone

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50
Q

A woman who has had 2 or more pregnancies:

A

Multigravida

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51
Q

A woman who has had 2 or more deliveries

A

multipara

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52
Q

Irregularly spaced contractions are most likely signs of ___

A

false labor

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53
Q

If the fundus is palpable just above the symphisis pubis, the gestational age is ___

A

12-16 weeks

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54
Q

If the fundus is palpable at the level of the umbillicus, the gestational age is ___

A

20 weeks

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55
Q

Fetal HR less than ___ bpm suggests fetal distress in most pregnancies

A

120

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56
Q

Maternal hypotension translate into:

A

placental hypoperfusion

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57
Q

Early signs of supine hypotensive syndrome

A

Nausea, dizziness, tachycardia, anxiety

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58
Q

PPCM

A

peripartum/postpartum cardiomyopathy

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59
Q

Triad of symptoms associated with preeclampsia

A

Edema (face, ankles, hands),
gradual onset HTN,
Proteinuria

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60
Q

Visual disturbances in a pregnant PT may indicate ___

A

Severe preeclampsia

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61
Q

HELLP stands for:

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

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62
Q

Inability to process carbohydrates during pregnancy

A

Gestational diabetes

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63
Q

If protocols allow, administer ___ for persistent N/V in pregnant patients

A

diphenhydramine or ondansetron

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64
Q

___ is the leading cause of life-threatening infections in newborns during their first week after birth

A

Group B streptococcus

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65
Q

___ is a bloodborne pathogen that can be passed from mother to infant during the birthing process

A

HIV

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66
Q

TORCH stands for:

A 
Toxoplasmosis, 
Other agents
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes
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67
Q

___ refers to infections that occur in neonates because of organisms passing through the placenta from woman to baby

A

TORCH syndrome

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68
Q

Member of the herpes family of viruses that pregnant women are at increased risk of contracting

A

cytomegalovirus

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69
Q

___ occurs naturally in 10-25% of all pregnancies

A

spontaneous aboriton

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70
Q

3 or more consecutive pregnancies that end in miscarriage

A

habitual abortion

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71
Q

An abortion that is attempting to take place, may not always lead to abortion of the baby

A

threatened abortion

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72
Q

Spontaneous abortion that cannot be prevented

A

imminent abortion

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73
Q

When treating a PT experiencing spontaneous abortion, treatment goals should include:

A

maintaining BP and preventing hypovolemia

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74
Q

___ occurs when the uterus becomes infected, often by normal vaginal flora

A

septic abortion

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75
Q

A pregnant woman can lose up to ___% of circulating volume before significant S&S of hypovolemia become apparent

A

40%

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76
Q

Life-threatening condition in which a fertilized ovum becomes implanted somewhere other than the uterus

A

ectopic pregnancy

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77
Q

All female PTs of child-bearing age reporting severe, lower abdominal pain should be considered to be experiencing:

A

ectopic pregnancy

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78
Q

Premature, or incomplete separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

A

abruptio placenta

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79
Q

Abruptio placenta most commonly occurs during the ___ trimester

A

3rd

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80
Q

Tender abdomen, rigid uterus, and sudden, severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back, is indicative of:

A

abruptio placenta

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81
Q

In ___ the placenta is implanted low in the uterus, and partially or fully obscures the cervical canal

A

placenta previa

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82
Q

Leading cause of painless vaginal bleeding in the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

placenta previa

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83
Q

Signs of shock with sudden & severe abdominal pain along with decreased fetal heart tones indicates:

A

abruptio placenta

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84
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding with bright red blood, and normal fetal heart tones & fetal movement indicates:

A

placenta previa

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85
Q

Fluid resucitation in a pregnant PT should continue as indicated, up to ___mL/kg, or until SBP reaches ___ mmHg

A

20; 90mmHg

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86
Q

In pregnancy, a feeling of relief of pressure in the upper abdomen

A

lightening

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87
Q

___ begins with the onset of labor pains

A

The first stage of labor

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88
Q

The first stage of labor lasts until ___

A

the cervix is fully dilated

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89
Q

The second stage of labor begins when:

A

the head of the baby descends and flexes to enter the birth canal

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90
Q

The 3rd stage of labor is the period that involves:

A

separation of the placenta from the uterine wall

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91
Q

Vaginal discharge of blood & mucus that occurs following delivery of a newborn

A

Lochia

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92
Q

Placnetal delivery may be delayed as long as:

A

30 minutes

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93
Q

Magensium sulfate is classified as a(n):

A

electrolyte

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94
Q

Magneseium sulfate acts as a ___ when given during pregnancy

A

CNS depressant

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95
Q

Magnesium sulfate is principally used in pregnancy in the management of ___

A

eclampsia

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96
Q

Mag sulfate is given to treat/prevent ___ in pregnancy/delivery

A

seizures

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97
Q

If mag sulfate administration causes respiratory depression, administer ___ as an antidote to counter the effects

A

calcium gluconate/chloride

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98
Q

Side effects of clacium cholride include:

A

N/V, syncope, bradycardia, & dysrhythmias

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99
Q

Tocolytic and sympathetic agonist

A

Terbutaline

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100
Q

Side effects of terbutaline:

A 
HTN, 
N/V, 
dizziness, 
chest pain, 
dysrhythmias
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101
Q

___ is indicated to treat exclampsia when seizures do not respond to mag sulfate

A

diazepam/Valium

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102
Q

Principle side effects of diazepam (Valium) administration

A

N/V,
respiratory depression,
hypotension

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103
Q

___ is also useful in treating hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Benadryl/Diphenhydramine

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104
Q

Diphenhydramine is classified as an:

A

antihistamine

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105
Q

Side effects of diphenhydramine

A

Drowsiness
Headache
Tachycardia
Hypotension

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106
Q

Side effects of Zofran include potential ___

A

QT segment prolongation

107
Q

Naturally occurring hormone that triggers uterine contractions

A

Oxytocin

108
Q

Preterm labor is that which begins between gestation weeks ___ & ___

A

20 & 37

109
Q

___ means that the entire labor time and birth of the infant occurred in less than 3 hours

A

Precipitous labor & birth

110
Q

The first stool passed by the unborn baby

A

meconium

111
Q

Rare but life threatening condition caused by amniotic fluid and fetal cells entering the woman’s pulmonary & circulatory system via the umbillical veins

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

112
Q

Condition in which there is too much amniotic fluid

A

Hydramnios/polyhydramnios

113
Q

In ___ the head of the baby is larger than the mother’s pelvis

A

cephalopelvic disproportion

114
Q

If 2 chords are coming out of one placenta, the twins are ___

A

identical

115
Q

If there are 2 placentas, the twins are ___

A

freternal

116
Q

Vaginal presentation of a body part other than the baby’s head

A

breech presentation

117
Q

___ occurs after the head has been delivered and the shoulder cannot get past the woman’s symphisis pubis

A

Shoulder distocia

118
Q

In ___, one or both feet dangle down through the vaginal opening

A

footling breech

119
Q

___ may cause Inefficient contraction of the lower segment of the uterine muscles

A

Placenta previa

120
Q

Sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, a-fib, or hypotension in the postpartum state may indicate ___

A

Pulmonary embolism

121
Q

A respiratory rate less than ___ breaths/min is not considered adequate ventilation in a pregnant trauma PT

A

20

122
Q

A normal fetal heart rate is between _____ bpm

A

120-160

123
Q

A fetal heart rate slower than ___bpm means fetal distress

A

120

124
Q

The gestational period normally lasts ___ weeks

A

38

125
Q

___ is the only distinguishing characteristic that can verify a PT is experiencing eclampsia instead of PPCM

A

Proteinuria

126
Q

Gestational hypertension may be an early sign of ___

A

Preeclampsia

127
Q

Signs & symptoms of preeclampsia

A

Face & extremity edema; gradual onset HTN; proteinuria

128
Q

Visual disturbances as well as elevated BP may suggest the presence of ___ in a pregnant PT

A

Severe preeclampsia

129
Q

Painfully itchy hands and feet during pregnancy are the most common symptom of ___

A

Cholestasis

130
Q

In a pregnant PT, sporadic contracions, first-trimester bleeding, and menstrual-like cramps are indicative of:

A

threatened abortion

131
Q

A pregnant woman who feels a strong urge to move her bowels is in the ___ stage of labor

A

2nd

132
Q

Rapid series of events that occur to enable a newborn to breath

A

Fetal transition

133
Q

APGAR stands for:

A 
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimmace
Activity
Respiratory effort
134
Q

A pulse rate less than ___ in a newborn indicates the need for resucitation

A

100

135
Q

Cyanosis of the extremities

A

Acrocyanosis

136
Q

An OPA should be insterted into a neonate/infant’s airway using this modifier:

A

Do not rotate the OPA

137
Q

Artificial ventilation of the newborn is indated in these 3 scenarios:

A

Apnea
Pulse rate < 100 bpm
Persistant central cyanosis despite 100% oxygenation

138
Q

Typical tidal volume of a newborn

A

3-6 mL/kg

139
Q

Ventilation rate for a newborn

A

40-60 breaths/min

140
Q

Chest compressions are indicated in a newborn if the pulse rate remains at:

A

less than 60 bpm

141
Q

___ is indicated in a neonate after 60 seconds of CPR if the pulse rate remains less than 60 bpm

A

Epinephrine

142
Q

If neonatal bradycardia persists after adequate ventillation, chest compression, and volume expansion, suspect:

A

metabolic acidosis

143
Q

A bolus of normal saline for a newborn should equal a volume of:

A

10 mL/kg

144
Q

___ is more common in postterm babies

A

meconium staining

145
Q

Abnormal opening in the diaphragm

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

146
Q

Right-shifted heart sounds, decreased left side breath sounds, and a sunken-in abdomen, is likely indicative of:

A

diaphragmatic hernia

147
Q

___ is the single most common risk factor of respiratory distress and cyanosis in the neonate

A

prematurity

148
Q

Newborns delivered before ___ weeks gestation are considered premature

A

37

149
Q

Newborns weighing less than ___ lbs are considered low birth weight.

A

5.5

150
Q

Premature newborns are at greater risk for respiratory distress owing to ___

A

surfactant deficiency

151
Q

Type of neonatal seizure characterized by eye deviations, blinking, chewing, episodes of high BP, and apnea, more common in premature infants

A

Subtle seizures

152
Q

Persistant posturing of one limb, the neck, or the trunk with horizontal eye deviation is characteristic of what type of neonatal seizure?

A

Focal tonic seizure

153
Q

___ seizure activity often involves flexion of the arms of the newborn

A

Focal myoclonic seizure

154
Q

One cause of neonatal seizures that has 2 major peaks of incidence, the first being 2-3 days after delivery, is caused by:

A

hypocalcemia

155
Q

In full-term or preterm newborns, hypoglycemia is a BGL of less than ___

A

45 mg/dL

156
Q

BGL in a healthy newborn during the first 1-2 hours may be as low as ___

A

30 mg/dL

157
Q

Limpness or floppiness of a newborn

A

hypotonia

158
Q

Feeding intolerance and abdominal distension in conjunction with vomiting in the first 1-2 days after birth may indicate ___ or ___

A

intestinal atresia or intestinal stenosis

159
Q

Type of maternally-used drugs that most commonly cause vomiting in newborns

A

barbiturates

160
Q

The signle most common cause of seizures in term and preterm newborns

A

Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy

161
Q

Average normal body temp of a newborn at birth

A

99.5 F or 37.5 C

162
Q

A thermogenic tissue unique to the newborn

A

Brown fat

163
Q

___ is the primary source of heat production in the newborn

A

nonshivering thermogenesis

164
Q

Abnormalities of the heart during development

A

congenital heart defect

165
Q

In ____, oxygenated blood is shunted from the left side of the heart to the right side

A

noncyanotic congenital heart diseases

166
Q

An abnormal opening in the septum separating the atria

A

atrial septal defect

167
Q

Atrial septal defect is caused by failure of the ___ to close after birth

A

foramen ovale

168
Q

Narrowing of a section of the aorta

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

169
Q

Damage to the pulmonic valve, resulting in decreased blood flow to the lungs

A

pulmonary stenosis

170
Q

In ___ the pulmonary artery and aorta are combined into one vessel

A

truncus arteriosus

171
Q

In ___ the patient lacks the tricuspid valve

A

tricuspid atresia

172
Q

Complete underdevelopment of the left side of the heart

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

173
Q

Combination of Ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta

A

Tetrology of Fallot

174
Q

Bradycardia in a neonate is considered a rate less than:

A

100 bpm

175
Q

Increased work of breathing to maintain oxygenation/ventilation

A

Respiratory distress

176
Q

partial or complete occlusion of the glottic opening due to swollen glottic tissues

A

epiglottitis

177
Q

Acute, bacterial infection of the subglottic area of the upper airway, complicated by thick, pus-filled secretions

A

bacterial tracheitis

178
Q

The most common chronic illness of childhood

A

Asthma

179
Q

Common & contagious virus that causes bronchiolitis & pneumonia in children

A

RSV/Respiratory syncytial virus

180
Q

RSV is spread via:

A

droplets & contaminated surfaces

181
Q

Inflammation of the bronchioles

A

Bronchiolitis

182
Q

An infant with a first time wheezing episode occurring in late fall or winter is likely experiencing:

A

bronchiolitis

183
Q

Infants up to age 1 yr should be intubated with an ET tube size ___

A

3.5mm

184
Q

Children ages 1-2 should be intubated with a size ___ ET tube

A

4mm

185
Q

Cuffed ET tube size Formula for children older than 2

A

3.5+(age / 4)

186
Q

A ___ laryngoscope blade is used to directly lift the epiglottis to view the chords

A

Miller/straight

187
Q

Typical blood volume in pediatrics

A

70 mL/kg

188
Q

Decreased vascular tone resulting in vasodilation & third spacing of fluids

A

Distributive shock

189
Q

First line treatment of pediatric PTs in distributive shock

A

fluid resuscitation

190
Q

When fluid resuscitation fails to resolve persistent hypotension in a septic PT, consider:

A

vasopressors

191
Q

In children, bradydysrhythmias most often occur secondary to ___

A

hypoxia

192
Q

For a stable PT in SVT , consider treating with ___

A

vagal maneuvers

193
Q

SVT that persists in a stable PT despite vagal maneuvers should be treated with ___

A

adenosine

194
Q

For an unstable PT in SVT, ___ is recommended

A

synchronized cardioversion

195
Q

If wide complex tachycardia is suspected in a stable PT, consider ___ to distinguish it from SVT

A

adenosine

196
Q

If wide complex VT persists despite treatment with Adenosine, ___ is the medication of choice

A

Amiodarone

197
Q

Electricity dosage for sync-cardioversion in a pediatric PT

A

0.5-1 joule/kg

198
Q

Condition resulting from impaired circulation & absorption of CSF

A

Hydrocephalus

199
Q

A PT who suffered a head trauma who presents several hours later with delayed rapid deterioration is most likely experiencing the effects of:

A

epidural hematoma

200
Q

Children rely on ___ to maintain adequate cardiac output

A

Pulse rate

201
Q

In pediatrics, Tachycardia usually suggests ___ whereas bradycardia is suggestive of ___

A

Shock; hypoxia

202
Q

The ___ & ___ are more likely to be injured in children due to “handlebar” injuries

A

Duodenum & pancreas

203
Q

The pediatric assessment triangle consists of:

A

Appearance
Work of breathing
Circulation to the skin

204
Q

Most out of hospital pediatric cardiopulmonary arrests are the result of:

A

Respiratory failure

205
Q

___ is primarily a cognitive disorder that appears during childhood

A

Intellectual disability

206
Q

Inability of sound to travel from the outer ear through to the inner ear

A

conductive hearing loss

207
Q

Hearing loss caused by problems with the uptake of sound through the tiny hairs within the ear and subsequent conduction of nerve impulses

A

sensorineural hearing loss

208
Q

Inability to interpret sounds, particularly speech, when background noise is present

A

central auditory processing disorder

209
Q

Condition characterized by normal function of ear structures without corresponding stimulation of auditory centers in the brain

A

auditory neuropathy

210
Q

You should suspect ___ in PTs who experience a sudden onset of unilateral eye or peri orbital pain with visual changes

A

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

211
Q

___ is a failure of neurotransmission between the nervous system and muscles of the face & throat that cause impaired speech

A

Dysarthria

212
Q

Neurologic impairment of the brain that inconsistently activates muscles needed to form words or sounds

A

Apraxia

213
Q

Life threatening condition of paralysis patients, caused by a stress within the body that triggers a release of catecholamines from the ANS that causes vasodilation above the level of a previous spinal cord injury.

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

214
Q

Increased sensitivity that may cause a PT to interpret touch as pain

A

Hyperesthesia

215
Q

Nonprogressive neurologic disorder that results from injury to brain tissue during brain development

A

Cerebral palsy

216
Q

When cerebral palsy effects all four limbs, it is known as:

A

spastic tetraplegia

217
Q

Newborns who present with meconium or odd-smelling/-appearing stool should be suspected of having:

A

Cystic fibrosis

218
Q

Severe, incurable degenerative disorder in which the myelin sheath of certain nerve fibers is attacked by the body’s immune system

A

Multiple sclerosis

219
Q

Category of incurable genetic diseases that cause a slow, progressive degeneration of muscle fibers

A

Muscular dystrophy

220
Q

Following delivery of a neonate, small spinal cord openings should be treated by:

A

covering with a moist, sterile dressing

221
Q

The gestational period usually lasts ___ weeks

A

38

222
Q

The 2nd stage of labor begins when ___

A

the fetus’ head enters the birth canal

223
Q

Initial resuscitation efforts for a neonate should include providing ___% oxygen

A

21 (room air)

224
Q

O2 monitor placement for a neonate showing signs of hypoxia/poor respiratory effort/apnea

A

pre ductal (right ear lobe, right hand)

225
Q

For a neonate with a pulse rate < 60bpm:

A

initiate chest compressions in addition to PPV

226
Q

FOr a neonate with a pulse rate < 100bpm:

A

Initiate assisted ventilation with a BVM (PPV)

227
Q

Condition characterized by dyspnea and wheezing seen in children younger than 2:

A

bronchiolitis

228
Q

Spectrum of lung conditions found in premature infants who required long periods of high-concentration oxygen & ventilator support post delivery

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

229
Q

Catheter inserted into the superior vena cava to permit monitoring of central venous pressure & sampling for chemical analysis

A

Central venous catheter

230
Q

type of seizure characterized by alteration of consciousness with or without complex focal motor activity

A

complex partial seizure

231
Q

Inadequate production of cortisol & aldosterone by the adrenal gland

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

232
Q

Common disease of infancy/childhood characterized by stridor, hoarseness, & barking cough; caused by upper airway obstruction

A

Croup

233
Q

Tube inserted directly into the PT’s stomach through the skin to provide nutrition

A

gastrostomy tube

234
Q

seizures manifested in a way that indicates involvement of both cerebral hemispheres

A

generalized seizures

235
Q

Abnormal buildup of CSF in the ventricles of the brain, can be acquired or congenital

A

hydrocephalus

236
Q

Unusual thickening of the heart muscle wall, requiring the heart to pump harder to eject blood from LV

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

237
Q

Group of congenital conditions that cause either accumulation of toxins or disorders of energy metabolism in neonates; characterized by failure to thrive or poor feeding

A

inborn errors of metabolism

238
Q

Condition that occurs when there is a twisting of the bowel around its mesenteric attachment to the abdominal wall

A

malrotation with volvulus

239
Q

Common congenital malformation of the small intestine, presents with painless rectal bleeding

A

Meckel diverticulum

240
Q

Inflammation of the myocardium

A

myocarditits

241
Q

Where cartilage is transformed into new bone through calcification

A

ossification center

242
Q

Seizure type that involves only one part of the brain

A

partial seizure

243
Q

Small, non-blanching spots on the skin

A

Petechiae

244
Q

hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter

A

pyloric stenosis

245
Q

Virus that causes pneumonia & bronchiolitis; may affect upper and lower respiratory tracts

A

RSV/respiratory syncytial virus

246
Q

Congenital narrowing/blockage of the nasal airway by membranous or bony tissue

A

Choanal atresia

247
Q

Neonate injury resulting from stretching of cervical nerve roots during delivery of the newborn’s head

A

Erb palsy

248
Q

Septal opening of the heart that closes after birth

A

foramen ovale

249
Q

Injury of childbirth affecting spinal nerves C8 to T1

A

Klumpke paralysis

250
Q

Congenital anomaly in which the small intestine is found predominantly on the right side of the abdomen

A

malrotation

251
Q

Seizure activity that involves more than one site in the cerebrum

A

multifocal seizure

252
Q

Decreased volume of amniotic fluid during pregnancy

A

Oligohydramnios

253
Q

Failure of the ductus arteriosus to transition to the ligamentum arteriosum

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

254
Q

Delayed transition from fetal to neonatal circulation causes:

A

persistent pulmonary hypertension

255
Q

Overabundance/overproduction of RBCs, WBC,s & platelets

A

polycythemia

256
Q

Too much amniotic fluid

A

polyhydramnios

257
Q

Disease of the eye that effects premature infants, can lead to blindness

A

retinopathy of prematurity

258
Q

Rare congenital defect in which the pulmonary veins connect to the right atrium

A

total anomalous pulmonary venous return

259
Q

Defect in which the great vessels are reversed

A

transposition of the great arteries

260
Q

Defect in which the pulmonary artery & aorta are combined

A

truncus arteriosus

261
Q

Term for an oocyte once it has fertilized and multiplies

A

blastocyst

262
Q

Persistent nausea & vomiting during pregnancy

A

hyperemesis gravidarium

263
Q

Situation in which the fetus has died during the first 20 weeks of gestation, but remains in utero

A

missed abortion

ALS/Paramedic Course (10 decks)

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