Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ALS/Paramedic Course > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® Paramedic flashcards NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

High abuse potential but with legitimate medical purpose

A

Schedule 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Examples of schedule 2 drugs

A

Fentanyl, methylfenidate (ritalin), cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Example of schedule 1 drugs

A

Heroin, marijuana, LSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diazepam & lorazepam are schedule ___ drugs

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hydrocodone, ketamine, and APAP w/ codeine are schedule ___ drugs

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Schedule ___ drugs may not be prescribed, dispensed, used, or administered for medical use

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Versed (midazolam), Valium (diazepam), and Ativan (lorazepam), are schedule ___ drugs

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fentanyl and morphine are schedule ___ drugs

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The biological and physiologic effects, and mechanism of action of a medication

A

Pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The action of the body on a medication

A

Pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ medications work by binding a cell receptor site in order to induce a particular response

A

Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ medications work by binding a cell receptor site in order to block a particular action from another chemical

A

Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ability of a medication to bind with a particular receptor site:

A

Affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alpha 1 receptor agonists cause:

A

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Insulin restriction, glucagon secretion, and inhibition of norepinephrine release are the agonist effects of what type of receptors?

A

Alpha 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Agonist effects on ___ receptors causes increased hr, increased myocardial contractility, increased myocardial conduction, and renin secretion for untnory retention

A

Beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Airway smooth muscle relaxation, insulin secretion, uterine relaxation, and arterial dilation are caused by agonist binding of ___ receptors

A

Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Agonist binding of ___ receptors causes vasodilation of mesenteric arteries

A

Dopaminergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Agonist binding of ___ receptors allow ach to stimulate muscle contraction

A

Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Agonist binding of ___ receptor sites in the heart are activated by ach to offset SNS stimulation (decreased hr, contractility, and conduction velocity)

A

Muscurinic-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Agonist binding of ___ receptors produce analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, and other effects

A

Opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Medication concentration required to initiate a cellular response:

A

Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

As a medications potency increases, the ___ decreases

A

Required dose/concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A medications ability to initiate or alter cell activity in a desired manner

A

Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ___ of a medication is lower for medications with a higher potency

A

Threshold Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

___ meds bind with receptor sites to prevent a cellular response by agonist chemicals

A

Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

___ antagonists temporarily bind with receptor sites to displace agonist chemicals

A

Competitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The efficacy of competitive antagonists is directly related to:

A

Its concentration near receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Noncompetitive antagonists work by:

A

Permanently binding receptor sites and preventing action by agonist chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___ drugs effectively lower the efficacy of other agonist chemicals

A

Partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Drugs in pregnancy risk category _ have shown to have little to no risk to the fetus during the first trimester and only remote possibility of fetal harm

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Drugs in Pregnancy risk category __ have either no control study in humans or show an adverse effect that was not confirmed in first trimester studies

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drugs in Pregnancy risk category __ should only be given if the potential benefit justifies the potential fetal risk

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drugs in pregnancy risk category __ show positive evidence of fetal risk i and should only be given in life threatening situations or when safer drugs cannot be used or are ineffective

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Drugs in pregnancy risk category __ have shown evidence of fetal abnormalities or risk or both and risk to the pregnant woman clearly out weighs any benefit

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Representation of the relationship between a medication dose & efficacy:

A

Dose-response curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Formula for ideal weight of a male:

A

Ideal weight (kg) = 50 + (2.3 x pts height in inches above 5 ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Formula for ideal weight of a female

A

Ideal weight (kg) = 45.5 + (2.3 x pts height in inches above 5 ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

% Of RBC’s in the intravascular space

A

Hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Administration of Several smaller doses of a med intended to produce the same clinical effects as a single, larger dose:

A

Cumulative action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Undesired clinical effects caused by a medication that may Cause some degree of harm ordiscomfort:

A

Untoward/adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Adverse effects that are Unexpected, uncommon, or not previously known to occur with a particular Med:

A

Idiosyncratic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Process involving a mechanism that reduces available receptors for a particular med:

A

Down-regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Resistance to a drug in the same class as another to which an individual has had repeated exposure

A

Cross-tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Intolerance caused by repeated doses of a drug within a short time

A

Tachyphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chemicals which cause transient increases in physical mental, or emotional performance:

A

Stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chemicals which reduce CNS & SNS functioning

A

Depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Abnormal tolerance to therapeutic or adverse effects of a substance due to repeated exposure

A

Habituation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a substance in order to maintain “normal” function:

A

Dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Undesirable medication interactions

A

Medication interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Combination of 2+ medications with similar effects that combine to equal the sum of effects

A

Summation/addition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

2 medications with similar effect combine to produce effects greater than the sum of the medications effects

A

Synergism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Enhancement of one medication by another

A

Potentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Large quantities of unbound drug due to either reduced body protein, or protein that is saturated with another drug, can cause ___

A

Toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Main plasma protein used in absorbing drug particles

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Percentage of unaltered/unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation

A

Bioavailability

57
Q

A drug’s bioavailability is altered by all administration routes except:

A

IV

58
Q

Drugs administered by IV have ___% bioavailability

A

100

59
Q

In addition to GI motility, pH, and presence of food/liquid, GI medications are subjected to ___

A

First pass metabolism

60
Q

GI medications pass from the GI tract into the ___ and then to the ___

A

Portal vein; liver

61
Q

Alteration of a medication via metabolism within the GI tract before it reaches systemic circulation

A

First-pass effect

62
Q

Most bio transformation occurs in the ___

A

Liver

63
Q

Enzyme-based process of altering chemical structure of meds or other chemicals in the liver

A

Cytochrome p-450 system

64
Q

___ is the amount of time needed in an average Person to metabolize or eliminate 50% of a substance in plasma

A

Half-life

65
Q

“Ignition switches” in the sympathetic nervous system:

A

Alpha & beta receptors

66
Q

Beta 1 receptors are found in the:

A

Heart

67
Q

Beta 2 receptors are located in the:

A

Lungs

68
Q

All Beta agents have a ___ effect on the heart.

A

Stimulant

69
Q

Alpha agents trigger ___ in arteries

A

Vasoconstriction

70
Q

Beta agents trigger ___ in arteries

A

Vasodilation

71
Q

In the lungs, alpha agents cause:

A

Minor bronchoconstriction

72
Q

In the lungs, Beta adrenergic agents trigger:

A

Significant broncodilation

73
Q

Drugs that have alpha or beta sympathetic properties are called:

A

Sympathomimetics

74
Q

A pure beta agent will cause (systemic):

A

Increased heart rate, force, automaticity; bronchodilation; arterial vasodilation

75
Q

A pure alpha agent will cause: (systemic)

A

Slight broncho-constriction, arterial vasoconstriction

76
Q

Norepinephrine is primarily a ___ agent, and will cause ___

A

Alpha; vasoconstriction

77
Q

Albuterol is a specific ___ agent

A

Beta-2

78
Q

A beta-2 agent will cause:

A

Bronchodilation

79
Q

Drugs that act primarily on cardiac beta receptors:

A

Beta-1 adrenergic agonists

80
Q

Drugs that act primarily on pulmonary beta receptors:

A

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists

81
Q

Class of drugs that block the action of sympathetic agents:

A

Sempatholytic/sympathetic blockers

82
Q

Another name for sympatholytic blockers;

A

Beta blockers

83
Q

Parasympathetic blocker that opposes the vagus nerve to speed up the heart after excessive vagal stimulation/firing has caused bradycardia

A

Atropine

84
Q

Parasympathetic agent used primarily to induce vasoconstriction & increase bp

A

Norepinephrine

85
Q

Sympathetic agent having a primary vasoconstrictor effect.

A

Epinephrine

86
Q

Sympathetic agent used to increase renal perfusion, increase HR & myocardial contractility, and constrict peripheral vessels

A

Dopamine

87
Q

Sympathetic beta-2 agents that act on the lungs to induce bronchodilation

A

Albuterol, isoetharine, terbutaline

88
Q

Sympathetic beta-blocker used to slow HR in certain tachydysrhythmias, decrease pain from chronic angina, & depress irritability of the heart

A

Propranolol

89
Q

Administration of an alpha agonist will result in

A

Vasoconstriction

90
Q

___ blockers will reduce HR & BP.

A

Calcium-channel

91
Q

Diltiazem is a drug in the class;

A

Calcium-channel blocker

92
Q

Furosemide is a___

A

Diuretic

93
Q

Atorvastatin is a___

A

Cholesterol synthesis inhibitor

94
Q

Dexamethasone is a___

A

Corticosteroid

95
Q

Hydrocortisone is a___

A

Glucocorticoid

96
Q

Acetylcysteine is a ___

A

Mucolytic agent

97
Q

Aspirin is a ___

A

Platelet inhibitor

98
Q

Clopidogrel (plavix) is a ____

A

Platelet inhibitor

99
Q

Sertraline and paroxetine are ____

A

SSRI’s

100
Q

Ach binds with ___ receptor sites

A

Nicotinic

101
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents (agonize/antagonize) Ach

A

Antagonize

102
Q

Onset/duration time of succinylcholine:

A

30-60 sec/ 3-8 min

103
Q

Rare, but immediately life-threatening side effect of succinylcholine

A

Malignant hyperthermia

104
Q

Onset/duration of rocuronium

A

1-3 min/15-60 min

105
Q

Selective beta-2 agonist used in prehospital for treatment of acute bronchospasm

A

Albuterol

106
Q

Naturally occurring beta-2 agonists in the body:

A

Epi/norepi

107
Q

___ antagonizes muscarinic receptors to Cause bronchodilation and decreased mucus production

A

Ipratropium bromide

108
Q

Chemicals thought to be more potent at causing bronchoconstriction than histamines:

A

Leukotrienes

109
Q

___ medications specifically target cells in the heart to suppress ectopic foci

A

Antidisrhythmic

110
Q

Antidysrhythmic meds are classified using;

A

Vaughan- Williams classification scheme

111
Q

___ is used to treat desthythmias, but not included in VW classification

A

Adenosine

112
Q

During Cardiac cycle phase __, cardiac cells are at rest

A

4

113
Q

Na and Ca+ slowly enter the cell during phase __

A

2

114
Q

Depolarization occurs after/during phase ___ of the cardiac cycle

A

0

115
Q

During phase ___, sodium ions rapidly enter the cell thru sodium channels in cardiac cells

A

0

116
Q

___ exits the cardiac cell during phase 1

A

Potassium

117
Q

Period during which cardiac myocytes are unable to fire or conduct an impulse

A

Refractory period

118
Q

Class __ antidisrhythmics slow movement of sodium thru ion channels in certain cardiac cells

A

1

119
Q

___ is a class 1 antidesrhythmic that blocks sodium channels in the purkinje fibers & ventricles

A

Lidocaine

120
Q

antidysrhythmics Class ___ is composed of beta-adrenergic blocking agents

A

2

121
Q

Antidysrhythmic Class ___ medications increase the duration of phases 1,2,3 of the cardiac cycle

A

3

122
Q

Class __ antidysrhythmics are comprised of calcium channel blockers

A

3

123
Q

Calcium channel blockers slow conduction at the ___

A

AV node

124
Q

___ causes marked reduction in the cardiac conduction velocity

A

Adenosine

125
Q

Patients taking alphanadrenergic receptor agonist meds at home are often more prone to ___

A

Orthostatic hypotension & tachycardia

126
Q

Alpha-blockers generally work to _____

A

Lower BP & decrease systemic vascular resistance

127
Q

Ach activates receptors in the heart to produce:

A

Bradycardia & conduction delays

128
Q

Competitive muscarinic receptor agonist

A

Atropine sulfate

129
Q

___ is used to treat bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation

A

Atropine

130
Q

Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors suppresses:

A

Release or norepinephrine

131
Q

First sign of IV occlusion:

A

Decreasing drip rate or presence of blood in tubing

132
Q

The ___ contains epithelial cells that form a continuous barrier to medication absorption

A

Urinary tract

133
Q

___ is an anticholinergic drug derived from plant sources

A

Atropine

134
Q

You should suspect altered medication metabolism in a pt with:

A

HX of Chronic alcoholism

135
Q

IM administered medications have a bioavailability of:

A

75-100%

136
Q

Administration of ___ is indicated in eclampsia when seizures do not respond to Mag sulfate

A

Diazepam (valium)

137
Q

___ can be administered to suppress preterm labor, which may be necessary in case of cord prolapse

A

Terbutaline

138
Q

___ is useful in treating hyperemesis gravidarium

A

Diphenhydramine

ALS/Paramedic Course (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions