Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
High abuse potential but with legitimate medical purpose
A
Schedule 2
2
Q
Examples of schedule 2 drugs
A
Fentanyl, methylfenidate (ritalin), cocaine
3
Q
Example of schedule 1 drugs
A
Heroin, marijuana, LSD
4
Q
Diazepam & lorazepam are schedule ___ drugs
A
4
5
Q
Hydrocodone, ketamine, and APAP w/ codeine are schedule ___ drugs
A
3
6
Q
Schedule ___ drugs may not be prescribed, dispensed, used, or administered for medical use
A
1
7
Q
Versed (midazolam), Valium (diazepam), and Ativan (lorazepam), are schedule ___ drugs
A
4
8
Q
Fentanyl and morphine are schedule ___ drugs
A
2
9
Q
The biological and physiologic effects, and mechanism of action of a medication
A
Pharmacodynamics
10
Q
The action of the body on a medication
A
Pharmacokinetics
11
Q
___ medications work by binding a cell receptor site in order to induce a particular response
A
Agonist
12
Q
___ medications work by binding a cell receptor site in order to block a particular action from another chemical
A
Antagonist
13
Q
Ability of a medication to bind with a particular receptor site:
A
Affinity
14
Q
Alpha 1 receptor agonists cause:
A
Vasoconstriction
15
Q
Insulin restriction, glucagon secretion, and inhibition of norepinephrine release are the agonist effects of what type of receptors?
A
Alpha 2
16
Q
Agonist effects on ___ receptors causes increased hr, increased myocardial contractility, increased myocardial conduction, and renin secretion for untnory retention
A
Beta 1
17
Q
Airway smooth muscle relaxation, insulin secretion, uterine relaxation, and arterial dilation are caused by agonist binding of ___ receptors
A
Beta 2
18
Q
Agonist binding of ___ receptors causes vasodilation of mesenteric arteries
A
Dopaminergic
19
Q
Agonist binding of ___ receptors allow ach to stimulate muscle contraction
A
Nicotinic
20
Q
Agonist binding of ___ receptor sites in the heart are activated by ach to offset SNS stimulation (decreased hr, contractility, and conduction velocity)
A
Muscurinic-2
21
Q
Agonist binding of ___ receptors produce analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, and other effects
A
Opioid
22
Q
Medication concentration required to initiate a cellular response:
A
Potency
23
Q
As a medications potency increases, the ___ decreases
A
Required dose/concentration
24
Q
A medications ability to initiate or alter cell activity in a desired manner
A
Efficacy
25
The ___ of a medication is lower for medications with a higher potency
Threshold Dose
26
___ meds bind with receptor sites to prevent a cellular response by agonist chemicals
Antagonist
27
___ antagonists temporarily bind with receptor sites to displace agonist chemicals
Competitive
28
The efficacy of competitive antagonists is directly related to:
Its concentration near receptor sites
29
Noncompetitive antagonists work by:
Permanently binding receptor sites and preventing action by agonist chemicals
30
___ drugs effectively lower the efficacy of other agonist chemicals
Partial agonist
31
Drugs in pregnancy risk category _ have shown to have little to no risk to the fetus during the first trimester and only remote possibility of fetal harm
A
32
Drugs in Pregnancy risk category __ have either no control study in humans or show an adverse effect that was not confirmed in first trimester studies
B
33
Drugs in Pregnancy risk category __ should only be given if the potential benefit justifies the potential fetal risk
C
34
Drugs in pregnancy risk category __ show positive evidence of fetal risk i and should only be given in life threatening situations or when safer drugs cannot be used or are ineffective
D
35
Drugs in pregnancy risk category __ have shown evidence of fetal abnormalities or risk or both and risk to the pregnant woman clearly out weighs any benefit
X
36
Representation of the relationship between a medication dose & efficacy:
Dose-response curve
37
Formula for ideal weight of a male:
Ideal weight (kg) = 50 + (2.3 x pts height in inches above 5 ft)
38
Formula for ideal weight of a female
Ideal weight (kg) = 45.5 + (2.3 x pts height in inches above 5 ft)
39
% Of RBC’s in the intravascular space
Hematocrit
40
Administration of Several smaller doses of a med intended to produce the same clinical effects as a single, larger dose:
Cumulative action
41
Undesired clinical effects caused by a medication that may Cause some degree of harm ordiscomfort:
Untoward/adverse effects
42
Adverse effects that are Unexpected, uncommon, or not previously known to occur with a particular Med:
Idiosyncratic reactions
43
Process involving a mechanism that reduces available receptors for a particular med:
Down-regulation
44
Resistance to a drug in the same class as another to which an individual has had repeated exposure
Cross-tolerance
45
Intolerance caused by repeated doses of a drug within a short time
Tachyphylaxis
46
Chemicals which cause transient increases in physical mental, or emotional performance:
Stimulants
47
Chemicals which reduce CNS & SNS functioning
Depressants
48
Abnormal tolerance to therapeutic or adverse effects of a substance due to repeated exposure
Habituation
49
Physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a substance in order to maintain "normal" function:
Dependence
50
Undesirable medication interactions
Medication interference
51
Combination of 2+ medications with similar effects that combine to equal the sum of effects
Summation/addition
52
2 medications with similar effect combine to produce effects greater than the sum of the medications effects
Synergism
53
Enhancement of one medication by another
Potentiation
54
Large quantities of unbound drug due to either reduced body protein, or protein that is saturated with another drug, can cause ___
Toxicity
55
Main plasma protein used in absorbing drug particles
Albumin
56
Percentage of unaltered/unchanged medication that reaches systemic circulation
Bioavailability
57
A drug’s bioavailability is altered by all administration routes except:
IV
58
Drugs administered by IV have ___% bioavailability
100
59
In addition to GI motility, pH, and presence of food/liquid, GI medications are subjected to ___
First pass metabolism
60
GI medications pass from the GI tract into the ___ and then to the ___
Portal vein; liver
61
Alteration of a medication via metabolism within the GI tract before it reaches systemic circulation
First-pass effect
62
Most bio transformation occurs in the ___
Liver
63
Enzyme-based process of altering chemical structure of meds or other chemicals in the liver
Cytochrome p-450 system
64
___ is the amount of time needed in an average Person to metabolize or eliminate 50% of a substance in plasma
Half-life
65
"Ignition switches" in the sympathetic nervous system:
Alpha & beta receptors
66
Beta 1 receptors are found in the:
Heart
67
Beta 2 receptors are located in the:
Lungs
68
All Beta agents have a ___ effect on the heart.
Stimulant
69
Alpha agents trigger ___ in arteries
Vasoconstriction
70
Beta agents trigger ___ in arteries
Vasodilation
71
In the lungs, alpha agents cause:
Minor bronchoconstriction
72
In the lungs, Beta adrenergic agents trigger:
Significant broncodilation
73
Drugs that have alpha or beta sympathetic properties are called:
Sympathomimetics
74
A pure beta agent will cause (systemic):
Increased heart rate, force, automaticity; bronchodilation; arterial vasodilation
75
A pure alpha agent will cause: (systemic)
Slight broncho-constriction, arterial vasoconstriction
76
Norepinephrine is primarily a ___ agent, and will cause ___
Alpha; vasoconstriction
77
Albuterol is a specific ___ agent
Beta-2
78
A beta-2 agent will cause:
Bronchodilation
79
Drugs that act primarily on cardiac beta receptors:
Beta-1 adrenergic agonists
80
Drugs that act primarily on pulmonary beta receptors:
Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
81
Class of drugs that block the action of sympathetic agents:
Sempatholytic/sympathetic blockers
82
Another name for sympatholytic blockers;
Beta blockers
83
Parasympathetic blocker that opposes the vagus nerve to speed up the heart after excessive vagal stimulation/firing has caused bradycardia
Atropine
84
Parasympathetic agent used primarily to induce vasoconstriction & increase bp
Norepinephrine
85
Sympathetic agent having a primary vasoconstrictor effect.
Epinephrine
86
Sympathetic agent used to increase renal perfusion, increase HR & myocardial contractility, and constrict peripheral vessels
Dopamine
87
Sympathetic beta-2 agents that act on the lungs to induce bronchodilation
Albuterol, isoetharine, terbutaline
88
Sympathetic beta-blocker used to slow HR in certain tachydysrhythmias, decrease pain from chronic angina, & depress irritability of the heart
Propranolol
89
Administration of an alpha agonist will result in
Vasoconstriction
90
___ blockers will reduce HR & BP.
Calcium-channel
91
Diltiazem is a drug in the class;
Calcium-channel blocker
92
Furosemide is a___
Diuretic
93
Atorvastatin is a___
Cholesterol synthesis inhibitor
94
Dexamethasone is a___
Corticosteroid
95
Hydrocortisone is a___
Glucocorticoid
96
Acetylcysteine is a ___
Mucolytic agent
97
Aspirin is a ___
Platelet inhibitor
98
Clopidogrel (plavix) is a ____
Platelet inhibitor
99
Sertraline and paroxetine are ____
SSRI’s
100
Ach binds with ___ receptor sites
Nicotinic
101
Neuromuscular blocking agents (agonize/antagonize) Ach
Antagonize
102
Onset/duration time of succinylcholine:
30-60 sec/ 3-8 min
103
Rare, but immediately life-threatening side effect of succinylcholine
Malignant hyperthermia
104
Onset/duration of rocuronium
1-3 min/15-60 min
105
Selective beta-2 agonist used in prehospital for treatment of acute bronchospasm
Albuterol
106
Naturally occurring beta-2 agonists in the body:
Epi/norepi
107
___ antagonizes muscarinic receptors to Cause bronchodilation and decreased mucus production
Ipratropium bromide
108
Chemicals thought to be more potent at causing bronchoconstriction than histamines:
Leukotrienes
109
___ medications specifically target cells in the heart to suppress ectopic foci
Antidisrhythmic
110
Antidysrhythmic meds are classified using;
Vaughan- Williams classification scheme
111
___ is used to treat desthythmias, but not included in VW classification
Adenosine
112
During Cardiac cycle phase __, cardiac cells are at rest
4
113
Na and Ca+ slowly enter the cell during phase __
2
114
Depolarization occurs after/during phase ___ of the cardiac cycle
0
115
During phase ___, sodium ions rapidly enter the cell thru sodium channels in cardiac cells
0
116
___ exits the cardiac cell during phase 1
Potassium
117
Period during which cardiac myocytes are unable to fire or conduct an impulse
Refractory period
118
Class __ antidisrhythmics slow movement of sodium thru ion channels in certain cardiac cells
1
119
___ is a class 1 antidesrhythmic that blocks sodium channels in the purkinje fibers & ventricles
Lidocaine
120
antidysrhythmics Class ___ is composed of beta-adrenergic blocking agents
2
121
Antidysrhythmic Class ___ medications increase the duration of phases 1,2,3 of the cardiac cycle
3
122
Class __ antidysrhythmics are comprised of calcium channel blockers
3
123
Calcium channel blockers slow conduction at the ___
AV node
124
___ causes marked reduction in the cardiac conduction velocity
Adenosine
125
Patients taking alphanadrenergic receptor agonist meds at home are often more prone to ___
Orthostatic hypotension & tachycardia
126
Alpha-blockers generally work to _____
Lower BP & decrease systemic vascular resistance
127
Ach activates receptors in the heart to produce:
Bradycardia & conduction delays
128
Competitive muscarinic receptor agonist
Atropine sulfate
129
___ is used to treat bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation
Atropine
130
Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors suppresses:
Release or norepinephrine
131
First sign of IV occlusion:
Decreasing drip rate or presence of blood in tubing
132
The ___ contains epithelial cells that form a continuous barrier to medication absorption
Urinary tract
133
___ is an anticholinergic drug derived from plant sources
Atropine
134
You should suspect altered medication metabolism in a pt with:
HX of Chronic alcoholism
135
IM administered medications have a bioavailability of:
75-100%
136
Administration of ___ is indicated in eclampsia when seizures do not respond to Mag sulfate
Diazepam (valium)
137
___ can be administered to suppress preterm labor, which may be necessary in case of cord prolapse
Terbutaline
138
___ is useful in treating hyperemesis gravidarium
Diphenhydramine
