Theory Test #4 Flashcards
1) Which one of the following nerve lesions commonly mimics Thoracic Outlet Syndrome? A) Ulnar Nerve Lesion B) Musculocutaneous Nerve Lesion C) Erb’s Palsy D) Axillary Nerve Lesion
A) Ulnar Nerve Lesion
2) Which one of the following sets of conditions may develop due to direct effects of obesity?
A) Cerebral palsy, Colon cancer, Hyperglycemia
B) Lung cancer, Sleep apnea, Hyperlipidemia
C) Osteoporosis, Arteriosclerosis, Depression
D) Osteoarthritis, Hypertension, Diabetes
D) Osteoarthritis, Hypertension, Diabetes
3) Which one of the following signs/symptoms may contraindicate treatment for a person with diabetes? A) Decreased Active ROM B) Increased abdominal pressure C) Vascular insufficiency D) Increased spasticity
C) Vascular insufficiency
4) In which direction does the nucleus pulposus move during spinal flexion? A) Contralateral side B) Ipsilateral side C) Posterior D) Anterior
C) Posterior
5) Which one of the following statements regarding positional tractioning is TRUE?
A) Positional traction is used to apply traction to the C/S spine as a whole
B) Positional traction is used to apply traction to a specific facet
C) The therapist rotates the head away from the side to be tractioned
D) The therapist side bends the head toward the side to be tractioned
B) Positional traction is used to apply traction to a specific facet
6) Which one of the following statements regarding a spinal traction ‘test’ is FALSE?
A) Treat the client in the position that provides the greatest relief of symptoms
B) Traction is indicated when the traction ‘test’ decreases the client’s symptoms
C) A grade II sustained distraction may be used as a traction ‘test’
D) When the traction ‘test’ increases the pain, use a higher grade of traction
D) When the traction ‘test’ increases the pain, use a higher grade of traction
7) A client suffers from a right-sided facet irritation in the lumbar spine. In which one of the following positions would you place a client in to do positional lumbar spine traction? A) Supine with hips extended B) Right side-lying C) Prone with hips extended D) Left side-lying
D) Left side-lying
8) Which one of the following conditions is characterized by the narrowing of the spinal canal? A) Spondylosis B) Spondylolisthesis C) Osteomalacia D) Spinal Stenosis
D) Spinal stenosis
9) Which one of the following conditions is LEAST likely to predispose a person to DDD? A) Structural scoliosis B) Osteoporosis C) Diabetes mellitus D) Spinal ligament sprains
C) Diabetes mellitus
10) Which one of the following sets of findings can be observed when assessing a client with disc degeneration in the lumbar spine?
A) Sudden onset, radiating pain, muscle spasm
B) Hypermobility, crepitus, muscle weakness
C) Gradual onset, decreased mobility, muscle hypertonicity
D) Inflammation, swelling, severe pain
C) Gradual onset, decreased mobility, muscle hypertonicity
11) A client with a herniated disc has a diminished medial hamstring reflex. Which one of the following nerve roots do you suspect is involved? A) L5 B) S2 C) L3 D) S4
A) L5
12) In general, the symptoms of disc herniation decrease in which one of the following time periods? A) 4 weeks B) 1 day C) 2 weeks D) 6 days
D) 6 days
13) Which one of the following statements regarding the RHPA is TRUE?
A) A specific act pertaining to the practice of massage therapy
B) A general act outlining rules of conduct for all health care professionals
C) A general act providing rules and regulation for unregulated practitioners
D) A specific act outlining the rules and consent to treatment for MTs
B) A general act outlining rules of conduct for all health care professionals
14) Which one of the following statements regarding sustained passive extension remedial exercise is FALSE?
A) The final position allows the pelvis to sag
B) Usually is progressed over 5-10 minutes
C) Performed in the prone position with pillows under the abdomen
D) Involves repetitive press-ups into lumbar extension
D) Involves repetitive press-ups into lumbar extension
15) Which one of the following areas is least affected by facet irritation in the cervical spine? A) C3-C4 B) C6-C7 C) C4-C5 D) C5-C6
A) C3-C4
16) Which one of the following special tests would you expect to give relief of symptoms if the client has facet irritation? A) Kemp’s B) Spurling’s C) Jackson’s D) Distraction
D) Distraction
17) Which one of the following hydrotherapy protocols is effective for treating a client with facet irritation in the acute stage?
A) Cold pack on the affected area - 20 minutes
B) Contrast hydro using mild temperatures
C) Cold Hydrotherapy -10 minutes on 10 minutes off
D) Hot hydrotherapy - 20 minutes followed by 30 seconds of a cool wash
C) Cold Hydrotherapy - 10 minutes on 10 minutes off
18) Which one of the following groups of conditions may lead to sensory loss in a dermatomal pattern?
A) Carpal tunnel syndrome, Sciatic, intercostal neuralgia
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome, disc herniation, disc degeneration
C) Disc herniation, facet syndrome, vertebral fracture
D) Multiple sclerosis, Parkinsonism, Cerebral palsy
C) Disc herniation, Facet syndrome, Vertebral fracture
19) Which one of the following muscles is the least likely place to treat Myofascial trigger points due to a chronic lumbar disc herniation? A) Ilipsoas B) Quadratus Lumborum C) Hamstrings D) Gluteus Maximus
C) Hamstrings
20) Which one of the following faulty postures is most likely to lead to degenerative joint disease in the cervical spine?
A) Hyperlordosis and posterior head carriage
B) Internal rotation of the GH joint
C) Hyperlordosis and anterior head carriage
D) Flat back posture
C) Hyperlordosis and anterior head carriage
21) Which one of the following sets of assessment findings is the most likely to be observed in a client with chronic disc herniation at the L4 nerve root level?
A) Diminished sensation over the posterior thigh, weakness with knee flexion
B) Diminished Achilles’ tendon reflex, weakness with knee extension
C) Weakness with toe stand, loss of sensation over the plantar aspect of the foot
D) Diminished patellar reflex, loss of sensation over the Dorsum of the foot
C) Weakness with toe stand, loss of sensation over the plantar aspect of the foot
22) Which one of the following statements best describes osteoarthritis of the vertebral column?
A) Gradual degeneration of hyaline cartilage
B) Progressive degeneration of intervertebral discs
C) Sequestration of the nucleus pulposus due to trauma
D) Chronic inflammation of spinal connective tissue
A) Gradual degeneration of hyaline cartilage
23) Which one of the following statements regarding osteoarthritis is TRUE?
A) Osteoarthritis occurs most often in the cervical and thoracic spine
B) Left untreated, a joint dislocation is unlikely to lead to osteoarthritis
C) Correcting postural imbalances can reverse osteoarthritis in the later stages
D) Correcting postural imbalances may minimize the occurrence of osteoarthritis
D) Correcting postural imbalances may minimize the occurrence of osteoarthritis
25) Which one of the following statements regarding lumbar spine facet joints is FALSE?
A) Superior facets face posteromedial lay
B) Inferior facets face anterolaterally
C) They are oriented in the transverse plane
D) The shape of the joints limits rotation
C) They are orientated in the transverse plane
26) Which one of the following sets of tests is most likely to be positive in a client with a disc herniation in the lumbar spine? A) Approximation, Yeoman B) Active resisted flexion, Gaenslen C) Straight-Leg Raise, Quadrant D) Active free flexion, Valsalva
D) Active free flexion, Valsalva
28) Which one of the following statements regarding controlled acts is CORRECT?
A) Controlled acts include techniques such as hydrotherapy and trigger point release
B) If a member performs an non-delegated controlled act the fine is $50,000
C) Only certain health professions are permitted to perform controlled acts
D) Controlled acts are described in the Massage Therapy Act
C) Only certain health professions are permitted to perform controlled acts
29) Which one of the following sets of muscles, acting on the inominate, causes counter-nutation of the sacrum? A) Iliopsoas, Rectus Femoris B) Hamstrings, Gluteus Maximus C) Gluteus Medius, Gluteus Minimus D) Rectus Abdominis, Rectus Femoris
B) Hamstrings, Gluteus Maximus
30) Which one of the following muscle’s trigger points does NOT refer pain to the sacroiliac joint? A) Quadratus Lumborum B) Gluteus Maximus C) Latissimus Dorsi D) Multifidi
C) Latissimus Dorsi
31) Which one of the following techniques is appropriate when treating a client with a chronic severe sacroiliac joint sprain, with resistant hypermobility on the left side?
A) Pelvic rocking bilaterally
B) Castor oil pack on the left side
C) Grade III right lateral sacral glides
D) Passive flexion and extension of the left ilium on the sacrum
C) Grade III right lateral sacral glides
32) Point tenderness on palpation one finger breadth lateral to the PSIS is likely due to which one of the following pathologies? A) Gluteus Maximus strain B) Erector spinae strain C) Facet joint irritation D) Disc pathology
A) Gluteus Maximus strain
33) Yeoman’s test stresses which one of the following structures? A) Sciatic nerve B) Sacrotuberous ligament C) Anterior sacroiliac ligaments D) Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
C) Anterior sacroiliac ligaments
34) Trendelenbergs sign may be used to test which one of the following conditions? A) Osteoarthritis B) Sacroiliac sprain C) Lumbar facet irritation D) Gluteus Medius weakness
D) Gluteus Medius weakness
35) Which one of the following ethical rationales supports a strong understanding of pathological conditions?
A) Reduces chances of the client holding out ’false hope’ as they will be well informed about treatment expectations
B) Helps prevent occurrence of counter-transference from therapist to client regarding treatment expectations
C) Maintains distinct boundaries between the client and therapist by ensuring the existence of a power differential
D) Helps prevent occurrence of transference from client to therapist regarding treatment expectations
A) Reduces chances of the client holding out ‘false hope’ as they will be well informed about treatment expectations
36) Which one of the following sequences does NOT follow the correct progression of the stages of gait? A) Heel strike, foot flat, midstance B) Midstance, heel off, toe off C) Heel strike, heel off, toe off D) Foot flat, midstance, heel off
C) Heel strike, heel off, toe off
7) Which one of the following presentations is atypical of the Pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis? A) Inflammation of the synovial membrane B) Erosion of articular surfaces C) Local vasoconstriction D) Pannus formation
C) Local vasoconstriction
39) Ankylosing spondylitis initially affects which one of the following structures A) Small joints of the hands B) Sacroiliac joint C) Thoracic spine D) Hip joints
B) Sacroiliac joint
40) Which one of the following statements regarding ‘frozen shoulder’ is TRUE?
A) Affects more males than females
B) May be due to degenerative joint disease
C) The ‘thawing’ stage corresponds to the sub-acute stage of healing
D) Adhesions are present in the superior aspect of the Glenohumeral joint capsule
B) May be due to degenerative joint disease
41) Which one of the following sets of assessment findings are most likely to be present in a client with adhesive Capsulitis in the late stage of healing?
A) Deltoid muscle atrophy, limited active free rotation
B) Severe pain, loss of sensation along dermatomal pattern
C) Chronic edema, weakness on shoulder adduction
D) Deltoid muscle spasticity, crepitus in the joint
A) Deltoid muscle atrophy, limited active free rotation
42) Which one of the following techniques is indicated when treating a client with an acute ‘Frozen’ shoulder?
A) Full range AF shoulder ROM
B) Axillary lymph node pumping
C) AR exercises for the Biceps Brachii
D) Frictions at the Glenohumeral joint capsule
B) Axillary lymph node pumping
43) In which direction would you glide the humeral head to increase external rotation of the Glenohumeral joint A) Superiorly B) Inferiorly C) Anteriorly D) Posteriorly
C) Anteriorly
44) To give informed consent of the behalf of an incapable client, a person must ____
A) At least 14 years of age, unless they are the clients sibling
B) Willing to assume responsibility of providing consent
C) A family member, no matter what the relation
D) The clients mother, or father
B) Willing to assume responsibility of providing consent
45) Which one of the following myotomes is tested with extension of the big toe? A) L3 B) L4 C) L5 D) S1
C) L5
46) Which one of the following statements regarding deep tendon reflex testing is FALSE?
A) Grade 3 describe exaggerated DTR
B) By testing DTR at Achilles’ tendon therapist is testing segmental level S1
C) DTR testing is unimportant assessment tool with CNS conditions
D) Put the patient in relaxed position and ask him/her to look away from testing
C) DTR testing is unimportant assessment tool with CNS conditions
47) Which one of the following sets of structural classifications describes the talocrural and sub talar joints?
A) Synovial hinge & Synovial plane
B) Synovial hinge & Fibrous syndesmosis
C) Synovial plane & synovial pivot
D) Cartilaginous symphysis and synovial hinge
A) Synovial hinge & Synovial plane
48) Which one of the following sets of tests is MOST LIKELY to be positive in a clients sprain of the deltoid ligament
A) Passive relaxed abduction, active free Eversion
B) Anterior drawer test, talar tilt test
C) Achilles reflex, active free Plantar Flexion
D) Active resisted Dorsiflexion, active free Plantar Flexion
A) Passive relaxed abduction, Active free Eversion
1) Which one of the following protocols is indicated when treating a person with Pectoralis minor syndrome?
A) Hot hydrotherapy to the rhomboids
B) Anterior glide of the humeral head in the Glenoid fossa
C) Active resisted shoulder joint horizontal adduction
D) Cold towels to the Pectoralis minor
B) Anterior glide of the humeral head in the glenoid fossa
2) Which one of the following foods have the highest caloric value? A) Sugar, honey, maple syrup B) Tuna, chicken, ground beef C) Olive oil, butter, peanut oil D) Milk, cheese, ice cream
C) olive oil, butter, peanut oil
3) Which one of the following protocols may be contraindicated in the treatment of a client with advanced diabetes?
A) Deep pressure and heat due to peripheral edema and vascular insufficiency
B) Prone position due to the increased pressure in the abdominal cavity
C) Active resisted movements due to increased possibility of a spastic reaction
D) High grade spinal traction due to increased possibility of vertebral arch fracture
A) Deep pressure and heat due to peripheral edema and vascular insufficiency
4) In which direction does the nucleus pulposes move during spinal extension? A) Ipsilateral side B) Contralateral side C) Anterior D) Posterior
C) Anterior
5) Which one of the following statements regarding traction techniques is FALSE?
A) All traction techniques are contraindicated in case of spinal hypermobility
B) The effects of spinal traction include pain reduction and muscle relaxation
C) Traction techniques are indicated for meniscoid and disco genie conditions
D) When applying traction, test force begins at grade II
A) All traction techniques are contraindicated in case of spinal hypermobility
6) Which one of the following sets of findings may be observed with the application of spinal traction techniques?
A) Decreased pain, increased pain, hypomobility
B) Inflammation, contracture, muscle spasm
C) Hypermobility, trigger points, adhesions
D) Crepitus, increased pain, Paresthesia
A) Decreased pain, increased pain, hypomobility
7) To isolate the right C5-C6 joint for treatment, which one of the following cervical spine traction techniques is most effective?
A) Place the head and neck in flexion, left side bending and right rotation
B) Place the head and neck in extension, left side bending and right rotation
C) Grasp the C3 spinous process and apply a grade II traction force superiorly
D) Grasp the occiput, extend the head and neck, applying a grade I traction force
A) Place the head and neck in flexion, left side bending and right rotation
8) Which one of the following statements describes ‘spondylolithesis’?
A) A narrowing of the spinal canal
B) Fixation, or stiffness of a vertebral joint
C) A gradual loss of articular cartilage in the spine
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
9) Which one of the following statements regarding degenerative disc disease is FALSE?
A) DDD may lead to joint instability and possibly disc herniation
B) Annular tears in the nucleus pulposes may lead to localized pain
C) Chronic facet irritation may progress to degenerative disc disease
D) Chronic or repetitive faulty biomechanics and posture may lead to DDD
B) Annular tears in the nucleus pulposes may lead to localized pain
When you suspect a disc herniation, which one of the following tests would you perform FIRST to confirm your suspicion? A) Straight leg raise B) Well leg raise C) Valsalva test D) Kemp’s
C) Valsalva
Which one of the following treatment techniques is effective for treating a client with mild cervical disc herniation? A) Cervical traction B) Full cervical ROM C) Repetitive AF cervical flexion D) Hydrocollator on posterior neck
A) Cervical traction
Which one of the following activities causes the greatest increase in pressure on L/S IVD’s when the person is standing?
A) Lifting a weight with the back bent and the knees straight
B) Lifting a weight with the back straight and the knees bent
C) Side bending
D) Coughing
A) Lifting a weight with the back bent and the knees straight
Which one of the following is the common sign and symptom of the facet joint irritation?
A) Possible referred pain
B) Deep, achy diffused pain
C) Generally no palpable inflammation
D) Adhesion/contracture local to the injury site
A) Possible referred pain
Which one of the following tests relieves symptoms of facet irritation? A) Kemp’s B) Jacksons C) Spurling’s D) Distraction
D) Distraction
A client complains of pain in the cervical spine which you suspect is due to a facet irritation accompanied by inflammation. Which one of the following techniques is indicated to reduce the client’s symptoms?
A) Grade I oscillating posterior to anterior unilateral vertebral pressure
B) Grade III oscillating posterior to anterior unilateral vertebral pressure
C) Grade II sustained transverse vertebral pressure
D) Grade III sustained transverse vertebral pressure
A) Grade I oscillating posterior to anterior unilateral vertebral pressure
Which one of the following areas has the greatest degree of joint capsule laxity A) C2-C3 B) C4-C5 C) C6-C7 D) C1-C2
B) C4-C5
You are unlikely to treat MTPs due to a chronic cervical disc herniation in which of the following muscles A) Levator Scapula B) SCM C) Platysma D) Suboccipitals
C) Platysma
Which one of the following ROM findings is often seen in a client during the later stages of degenerative joint disease in the cervical spine?
A) Sidebending and rotation are equally limited
B) Flexion is more restricted than extension
C) A capsular pattern of restriction is not present
D) Sidebending and rotation are less restricted than extension
A) Sidebending and rotation are equally limited
Which one of the following techniques is NOT indicated for treating a client who has a chronic lumbar disc herniation
A) Hot hydrotherapy onsite and surrounding tissue
B) Strengthening exercises to help support the spine
C) Positional traction for hypermobile segments
D) Stretching protocols for the Iliopsoas and quadriceps
C) Positional traction for hypermobile segments
Which one of the following conditions is due to chronic degeneration of articular cartilage A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Osteoarthritis C) Spondylosis D) Ankylosis spondylitis
B) Osteoarthritis
A 65 year old male has low-grade achy pain of insidious onset in the low back. Which condition is the most likely the source of the clients pain? A) Sacroiliac joint sprain B) L/S osteoarthritis C) Disc herniation D) Erector spinae muscle spasm
B) L/S osteoarthritis
What is a long-term aim for treating a client with osteoarthritis in the later stages?
A) Optimize biomechanics of the affected joints
B) Increase local circulation to the affected joints
C) Mobilize affected joints using grade III PJM
D) Reduce surrounding Myofascial trigger points
A) Optimize biomechanics of the affected joints
Which statement about the L5/S1 junction is FALSE?
A) Orientation of the facets allows primarily for rotation
B) The angle between L5 and S1 is known as the lumbosacral angle
C) The Iliolumbar ligaments help stabilize the lumbosacral joint
D) The L5/S1 junction is commonly dysfunctional
A) Orientation of the facets allows primarily for rotation
Which is the capsular pattern of restriction for the lumbar and cervical spines?
A) Rotation is greater than lateral flexion
B) Forward flexion is greater than extension
C) Lateral flexion and rotation are equally limited
D) Lateral flexion is greater than rotation
C) Lateral flexion and rotation are equally limited
What does the MTA define?
A) What constitutes controlled acts
B) Standards for obtaining informed consent
C) Composition of Massage Therapy College Councils
D) The legislative hierarchy governing massage therapists
D) The legislative hierarchy governing massage therapists
A client experiences pain at the right sacroiliac joint during PF lumbar spine flexion and right hip internal rotation. Palpation reveals point tenderness one finger-breadth medial to the right PSIS. Which one of the following structures is likely damaged? A) Sciatic nerve B) Piriformis muscle C) Anterior sacroiliac ligaments D) Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
D) Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
Which one of the following techniques is contraindicated for treating a client with a severe chronic sacroiliac joint sprain, with resultant hypermobility on the left side
A) Grade III joint mobilizations for the left SIJ
B) Pelvic rock
C) Stretches for right Iliopsoas
D) Strenghtening exercises for the intrinsic muscles of the right foot
A) Grade III joint mobilizations for the left SIJ
A client is experiencing pain in the mid-buttock region, ipsilateral hip and sacroiliac joint. AR external rotation of the hip recreates the clients symptoms. The sacral apex pressure test is negative. Which one of the following conditions is your client likely suffering from?
A) Sacroiliac joint hypomobility
B) Piriformis trigger point
C) Osteoarthritis in the sacroiliac joint
D) Degenerative disc disease of L5/S1
B) Piriformis trigger point
During assessment you observe that a clients left ASIS is higher than the right, and the left PSIS is lower than the right. This indicates that the client may have which one of the following conditions? A) Bilateral anterior pelvic tilt B) Right posteriorly rotated innominate C) Left posteriorly rotated innominate D) Hyperlordosis
C) Left posteriorly rotated innominate
Which one of the following does NOT test for a nerve root lesion? A) Jackson’s compression B) Patrick-Fabre C) Gaenslens D) Straight leg raise
B) Patrick-Fabre
Which one of the following muscle groups positions the lower limb for the heel strike phase of gait?
A) Hip extensors, knee flexors, ankle dorsiflexors
B) Hip flexors, knee extensors, ankle dorsiflexors
C) Hip flexors, knee flexors, ankle plantarflexors
D) Hip extensors, hip adductors, ankle dorsiflexors
B) Hip flexors, knee extensors, ankle dorsiflexors
Which one of the following joints is least likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis A) Sacroiliac B) DIPs C) Small joints of the feet D) PIPs
A) Sacroiliac
Which one of the following deformities is NOT generally seen in clients with RA? A) Ulnar drift B) Swan neck C) Boutonnière D) Waiter’s tip
D) Waiter’s tip
Ankylosing spondylitis usually affects which one of the following structures first? A) Sacroiliac B) Shoulder C) Knee D) hip
A) Sacroiliac
High one of the following sequences describes the capsular pattern of the Glenohumeral joint? A) Internal rotation, adduction B) Abduction, Adduction C) Flexion, extension D) External rotation, abduction
D) External rotation, abduction
Which one of the following signs/symptoms is indicative of the freezing stage of adhesive Capsulitis A) No pain but severe joint restriction B) Nocturnal (night) pain C) Reverse scapulothoracic rhythm D) Capsular pattern of restriction
B) Nocturnal (night) pain
To increase the ROM of a Glenohumeral joint affected by a “frozen” shoulder, frictions are applied at the \_\_\_\_\_ aspect of the joint capsule A) Superior B) Lateral C) Inferior D) Medial
C) Inferior
To increase elevation of the clavicle and allow for full abduction of the arm, the therapist performs \_\_\_\_\_ glide at the \_\_\_\_\_ joint A) Inferior/Sternoclavicular B) Inferior/Acromioclavicular C) Superior/Acromioclavicular D) Superior/Sternoclavicular
B) Inferior/Acromioclavicular
Which one of the following reflexes tests the L4 spinal cord segment? A) Patellar B) Biceps brachii C) Achilles D) Tibialis Anterior
A) Patellar
Which one of the following is a primary movement occurring at the subtalar joint? A) Abduction B) Eversion C) Supination D) Pronation
B) Eversion
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the facet joints in the spine?
A) Resist torsion and shear of the vertebrae
B) Permit gliding movements between adjacent vertebrae
C) Some weight bearing in the cervical and lumbar regions
D) Maintain an open-packed position of the spine
D) Maintain an open-packed position of the spine
The SP of S2 in is line with this landmark
PSIS
This may occur during spinal tractioning
Increased pain
An anterior pelvic tilt causes a(n)______ lumbrosacral Angle
Increased
Test in which the neck is Ipsilateral rotated and the shoulder is extended
Adson’s Maneuver
Chronic facet joint irritation can exhibit this pattern of restriction
Capsular
When you flex the spine, the nucleus pulposes moves in this direction
Posterior
An MTP in this muscle mimics piriformis syndrome
Gluteus Medius
The position your client should be in when performing lumbar spine positional traction
Sidelying
Anemia may be due to a decrease in this
Protein
DDD may lead to this
Disc Herniation
Bilateral edema is usually caused by this
Systemic disease
A ligament that travels from the sacrum, coccyx, and PSIS to the Ischial Tuberosity
Sacrotuberous
The most severe stage of disc herniation
Sequestration
In a client with severe disc herniation, we do not _____ the muscle gaurding
Eliminate
A positive in this test indicates weak hip abductors in the weight bearing leg
Trendelenbergs
The direction you rotate the C/S in relation to the affected side when performing positional tractioning
Ipsilaterally
Cold, pallor, and bluish coloured skin is an indication of this
Vasomotor impairment
This lumbar movement will cause pain in a client with a posterior disc herniation
Flexion
The macromolecule that amino acids are associated with
Protein
A specific act that outlines the rules for Massage Therapists
MTA
- Massage Therapy Act
This may develop as a direct effect of obesity
Hypertension
Arises from the medial and lateral root of C5-T1
Median Nerve
This condition characterized by a degeneration of cartilage in the vertebral column
Osteoarthritis
A narrowing of the spinal canal
Stenosis
Manual traction of the \_\_\_\_ cervical facets requires that the neck be positioned in \_\_\_\_\_ A) Upper, Extension B) Lower, Flexion C) Upper, Flexion D) Lower, Extension
B) Lower, Flexion
Which definition describes ‘spondylolithesis’
A) A narrowing of the spinal canal
B) Fixation, or stiffness of a vertebral joint
C) A gradual loss of articular cartilage in the spine
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
Where a disc protrudes lateral to the nerve root, the client can \_\_\_\_ to relive the pain A) Lean contralaterally B) Lean ipsilaterally C) Extend the spine D) Flex the spine
A) Lean contralaterally
Which set of factors is most likely to contribute to the development of osteoarthritis in the lumbar spine?
A) Hyperkyphosis, flexion activities, frequent pregnancies
B) Hyperlordosis, Excessive weight, high impact activities
C) Diabetes, Hypertension, diet low in calcium and protein
D) Scoliosis, Sedentary lifestyle, weakness of postural muscles
B) Hyperlordosis, Excessive weight, high impact activities
Which statement about the SIJ is TRUE?
A) A healthy SIJ is completely immobile
B) There are no ligaments supporting the SIJ
C) The SIJ does not move while a person is walking
D) No muscles directly cause physiologic movement of the SIJ
D) No muscles directly cause physiologic movement of the SIJ
A client with severe Ankylosing spondylitis may present with which posture? A) Barrel chest B) Scoliotic curve C) Hyperkyphosis D) Anterior pelvic tilt
C) Hyperkyphosis
Which position gives a client maximal pain relief from a right C5-C6 facet irritation?
A) Full Extension of the cervical spine
B) Full left rotation of the cervical spine
C) Forward flexion, Lateral Flexion to the right, rotation to the right
D) Forward flexion, Lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
D) Forward flexion, Lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
Addressing which muscle is most effective when treating a client with adhesive Capsulitis A) Deltoid B) Subscapularis C) Trapezius D) Pectoralis major
B) Subscapularis
Which statement about traction techniques is FALSE?
A) All traction techniques are contraindicated in cases of spinal hypermobility
B) The effects of spinal traction include pain reduction and muscle relaxation
C) Traction techniques are indicated for meniscoid and disco genie conditions
D) When applying traction, test force begins at grade II
D) When applying traction, test force begins at grade II
When treating clients with degenerative disc disease what is the main focus of the treatment A) Decrease inflammation B) Address faulty posture C) remove muscle gaurding D) Increase spinal mobility
B) Address faulty posture
Which treatment technique is effective for treating a client with mild subacute cervical disc herniation? A) Cervical traction B) Full cervical ROM C) Repetitive AF cervical flexion D) Hydrocollator on posterior neck
A) Cervical traction
Which one of the following movements occurs during hip flexion? A) Sacrum and ilium rotate anteriorly B) Sacrum rotates posteriorly C) Ilium rotates posteriorly D) Femur drops anteriorly
C) Ilium rotates posteriorly
Which statement about lumbar movements and corresponding sacroiliac joint movements is true?
A) L/S flexion shortens the posterior SIJ ligaments
B) L/S extension lengthens the Iliolumbar ligament
C) Hip extension stretches the posterior SIJ ligaments
D) Hip abduction approximates the ipsilateral SIJ
D) Hip abduction approximates the ipsilateral SIJ
Which statement about the testing of myotomes is TRUE?
A) There is no need to compare bilaterally
B) To test the S1 myotome, resist Ankle Eversion
C) Resisted contraction must be held for a minimum of 3 seconds
D) A muscle strength grade of 2/5 indicates good muscle strength
B) To test the S1 myotome, resist Ankle Eversion
Performing a deep tendon reflex test on the patellar tendon assesses which nerve root? A) L5-S1 B) L4-L5 C) S1-S2 D) L3-L4
D) L3-L4
Which set of tests is most likely to be positive in a client with anterior talofibular sprain?
A) Anterior drawer, posterior drawer
B) Plantar flexion, Active free inversion
C) Talar tilt, active resisted Plantar Flexion
D) Active free Plantar Flexion, passive relaxed Eversion
B) Plantar flexion, Active free inversion
Which one of the following statements regarding intervertebral discs is true?
A) The disc forms the strongest joint between vertebrae
B) The nucleus increases its water binding capacity as we age
C) The discs of the cervical spine are smaller than those of the thoracic spine
D) The fibres of the concentric layers of the annulus are parallel to one another
A) The disc forms the strongest joint between vertebrae
The SP of S2 in is line with this landmark
PSIS
This may occur during spinal tractioning
Increased pain
An anterior pelvic tilt causes a(n)______ lumbrosacral Angle
Increased
Test in which the neck is Ipsilateral rotated and the shoulder is extended
Adson’s Maneuver
Chronic facet joint irritation can exhibit this pattern of restriction
Capsular
When you flex the spine, the nucleus pulposes moves in this direction
Posterior
An MTP in this muscle mimics piriformis syndrome
Gluteus Medius
The position your client should be in when performing lumbar spine positional traction
Sidelying
Anemia may be due to a decrease in this
Protein
DDD may lead to this
Disc Herniation
Bilateral edema is usually caused by this
Systemic disease
A ligament that travels from the sacrum, coccyx, and PSIS to the Ischial Tuberosity
Sacrotuberous
The most severe stage of disc herniation
Sequestration
In a client with severe disc herniation, we do not _____ the muscle gaurding
Eliminate
A positive in this test indicates weak hip abductors in the weight bearing leg
Trendelenbergs
The direction you rotate the C/S in relation to the affected side when performing positional tractioning
Ipsilaterally
Cold, pallor, and bluish coloured skin is an indication of this
Vasomotor impairment
This lumbar movement will cause pain in a client with a posterior disc herniation
Flexion
The macromolecule that amino acids are associated with
Protein
A specific act that outlines the rules for Massage Therapists
MTA
- Massage Therapy Act
This may develop as a direct effect of obesity
Hypertension
Arises from the medial and lateral root of C5-T1
Median Nerve
This condition characterized by a degeneration of cartilage in the vertebral column
Osteoarthritis
A narrowing of the spinal canal
Stenosis
Manual traction of the \_\_\_\_ cervical facets requires that the neck be positioned in \_\_\_\_\_ A) Upper, Extension B) Lower, Flexion C) Upper, Flexion D) Lower, Extension
B) Lower, Flexion
Which definition describes ‘spondylolithesis’
A) A narrowing of the spinal canal
B) Fixation, or stiffness of a vertebral joint
C) A gradual loss of articular cartilage in the spine
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
D) Forward slippage of one vertebrae on the one below
Where a disc protrudes lateral to the nerve root, the client can \_\_\_\_ to relive the pain A) Lean contralaterally B) Lean ipsilaterally C) Extend the spine D) Flex the spine
A) Lean contralaterally
Which set of factors is most likely to contribute to the development of osteoarthritis in the lumbar spine?
A) Hyperkyphosis, flexion activities, frequent pregnancies
B) Hyperlordosis, Excessive weight, high impact activities
C) Diabetes, Hypertension, diet low in calcium and protein
D) Scoliosis, Sedentary lifestyle, weakness of postural muscles
B) Hyperlordosis, Excessive weight, high impact activities
Which statement about the SIJ is TRUE?
A) A healthy SIJ is completely immobile
B) There are no ligaments supporting the SIJ
C) The SIJ does not move while a person is walking
D) No muscles directly cause physiologic movement of the SIJ
D) No muscles directly cause physiologic movement of the SIJ
A client with severe Ankylosing spondylitis may present with which posture? A) Barrel chest B) Scoliotic curve C) Hyperkyphosis D) Anterior pelvic tilt
C) Hyperkyphosis
Which position gives a client maximal pain relief from a right C5-C6 facet irritation?
A) Full Extension of the cervical spine
B) Full left rotation of the cervical spine
C) Forward flexion, Lateral Flexion to the right, rotation to the right
D) Forward flexion, Lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
D) Forward flexion, Lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
Addressing which muscle is most effective when treating a client with adhesive Capsulitis A) Deltoid B) Subscapularis C) Trapezius D) Pectoralis major
B) Subscapularis
Which statement about traction techniques is FALSE?
A) All traction techniques are contraindicated in cases of spinal hypermobility
B) The effects of spinal traction include pain reduction and muscle relaxation
C) Traction techniques are indicated for meniscoid and disco genie conditions
D) When applying traction, test force begins at grade II
D) When applying traction, test force begins at grade II
When treating clients with degenerative disc disease what is the main focus of the treatment A) Decrease inflammation B) Address faulty posture C) remove muscle gaurding D) Increase spinal mobility
B) Address faulty posture
Which treatment technique is effective for treating a client with mild subacute cervical disc herniation? A) Cervical traction B) Full cervical ROM C) Repetitive AF cervical flexion D) Hydrocollator on posterior neck
A) Cervical traction
Which one of the following movements occurs during hip flexion? A) Sacrum and ilium rotate anteriorly B) Sacrum rotates posteriorly C) Ilium rotates posteriorly D) Femur drops anteriorly
C) Ilium rotates posteriorly
Which statement about lumbar movements and corresponding sacroiliac joint movements is true?
A) L/S flexion shortens the posterior SIJ ligaments
B) L/S extension lengthens the Iliolumbar ligament
C) Hip extension stretches the posterior SIJ ligaments
D) Hip abduction approximates the ipsilateral SIJ
D) Hip abduction approximates the ipsilateral SIJ
Which statement about the testing of myotomes is TRUE?
A) There is no need to compare bilaterally
B) To test the S1 myotome, resist Ankle Eversion
C) Resisted contraction must be held for a minimum of 3 seconds
D) A muscle strength grade of 2/5 indicates good muscle strength
B) To test the S1 myotome, resist Ankle Eversion
Performing a deep tendon reflex test on the patellar tendon assesses which nerve root? A) L5-S1 B) L4-L5 C) S1-S2 D) L3-L4
D) L3-L4
Which set of tests is most likely to be positive in a client with anterior talofibular sprain?
A) Anterior drawer, posterior drawer
B) Plantar flexion, Active free inversion
C) Talar tilt, active resisted Plantar Flexion
D) Active free Plantar Flexion, passive relaxed Eversion
B) Plantar flexion, Active free inversion
Which one of the following statements regarding intervertebral discs is true?
A) The disc forms the strongest joint between vertebrae
B) The nucleus increases its water binding capacity as we age
C) The discs of the cervical spine are smaller than those of the thoracic spine
D) The fibres of the concentric layers of the annulus are parallel to one another
A) The disc forms the strongest joint between vertebrae
