Theory Test #1 Flashcards

1
Q
1) Which upper limb tension test involves Elbow Flexion & Forearm Supination?
A) Ulnar
B) Radial
C) Median
D) Musculocutaneous
A

A) Ulnar

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2
Q
2) Which one of the following treatment techniques is indicated when treating a client manifesting with spasticity?
A) Deep painful techniques
B) PR ROM throughout treatment
C) Vigorous stimulating techniques
D) Light hacking to the spastic tissue
A

B) PR ROM throughout treatment

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3
Q
3) Which client self-care modality are you least likely to recommend?
A) Active Free ROM
B) Active resisted ROM
C) Passive tractioning
D) Isometric strengthening
A

C) Passive tractioning

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4
Q

4) Which statement about palpation is FALSE?
A) It is a valuable tool for assessing the physiological state of body tissue
B) It facilitates identification of tissue manifestations and pathological conditions
C) It is an accurate description of the state of body tissues and structures
D) It enables MT’s to assess what they are feeling through hand contact

A

C) It is an accurate description of the state of body tissues and structures

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5
Q

5) A client presents with right shoulder pain, which is aggravated during cross-country skiing. The pain has intensified over the past month and is affecting daily activities, including lifting her child. Assessment reveals:
- Right shoulder is lower and has greater muscle bulk than the left
- Pain at the end of PR ROM for right shoulder Extension
- Pain with AR right shoulder Flexion
- Palpable heat and tenderness over the right anterior shoulder
Which protocol is C.I’d for treating this client?
A) Warm hydrotherapy over the right shoulder to decrease Hypertonicity
B) Gentle PR ROM for the right shoulder to maintain mobility
C) Petrissage to surrounding muscles to decrease Hypertonicity
D) Cold hydrotherapy over the right shoulder to decrease inflammation

A

A) Warm hydrotherapy over the right shoulder to decrease hypertonicity

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6
Q

6) Which statement regarding congential torticollis is TRUE?
A) It is associated with few structural changes
B) Structural changes prevent improved function
C) Structural changes mean that massage therapy will be ineffective
D) Massage therapy can improve function despite structural changes

A

D) Massage therapy can improve function despite structural changes

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7
Q
7) In which direction would you glide the lunate to increase wrist Extension?
A) Posterior
B) Anterior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
A

B) Anterior

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8
Q
8) Which symptoms of Parkinson’s diesease usually manifests first?
A) Shuffling gait
B) Resting tremors
C) Contractures
D) Drooling
A

B) Resting tremors

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9
Q
9) Which action is weakened, but not completely lost, with a common fibular nerve transaction?
A) Hallucis Extension
B) Ankle Dorsiflexion
C) Ankle Eversion
D) Ankle Inversion
A

D) Ankle Inversion

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10
Q

10) which statement about the treatment of dislocations is FALSE?
A) During the acute stage of healing, focus on proximal lymphatic drainage
B) During the acute stage of healing, avoid heavy hydrotherapy over the joint
C) During the sub-acute stage of healing, focus on scar tissue realignment
D) During the chronic stage of healing, restore full ROM before strengthening affected muscles

A

D) During the chronic stage of healing, restore full ROM before strengthening affected muscles

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11
Q

11) Which aim of treatment is applicable when treating a client with acquired torticollis?
A) Reduce muscle spasms before stretching affected muscles
B) Focus on stretching connective tissue structures
C) Lengthen contractured tissues immediately
D) Apply hot hydrotherapy to reduce spasms

A

A) Reduce muscle spasms before stretching affected muscles

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12
Q
12) In which phase of gait is the ankle Dorsiflexed to 90 Degrees?
A) Mid swing
B) Toe off
C) Heel strike
D) Load response
A

C) Heel strike

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13
Q

13) Which one of the following techniques is NOT indicated in the treatment of Dupuytren’s contracture?
A) Muscle stripping along the anterior forearm
B) Parrafin wax application to the hand
C) Cold towel application to the hand
D) Passive forced wrist Extension

A

C) Cold towel application to the hand

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14
Q
14) In which one of the following stages of healing is increasing ROM C.I’d?
A) Late sub-acute stage
B) Early sub-acute stage
C) After scar tissue has formed
D) Inflammation is no longer present
A

B) Early sub-acute stage

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15
Q
15) During your shoulder assessment your client’s pain is relieved when the shoulder is raised above their head. What does this finding likely indicate?
A) Joint instability
B) Subacromial bursitis
C) Nerve root pathology
D) Clavicular subluxation
A

C) Nerve root pathology

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16
Q

16) Your client, a hairdresser, has recently been treated for an acute flare-up of her right Supraspinatus tendonitis. As her symptoms have diminished, your focus is now on resolving the condition and prevention of reoccurrence
Which aim of treatment is appropriate for these goals?
A) Restore good biomechanics
B) Maintain ROM
C) Decrease swelling
D) Increase relaxation

A

A0 Restore good biomechanics

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17
Q

17) Which one of the following statements regarding multiple sclerosis is TRUE?
A) Caused by repeating traumatic injuries
B) Manifests with exacerbation and remission
C) A result of a complete central nerve lesion
D) Myelin regeneration completely reverses symptoms

A

B) Manifests with exacerbation and remission

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18
Q

18) A client with multiple sclerosis complains of fatigue. Which approach is most effective for treating the client’s concern?
A) Short duration treatment with stimulating techniques
B) O&I friction massage with warm hydrotherapy
C) Long duration treatment with sedating techniques
D) Active resisted exercises with maximal resistance

A

A) Short duration treatment with stimulating techniques

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19
Q

19) Which statement about assessment of the hand and wrist is TRUE?
A) Atrophy of the Thenar, or Hypothenar eminences may indicate a nerve lesion
B) The normal ‘attitude’ of the hand is full flexion of the MCP and IP joints
C) Normally, fingers are more flexed on the radial side than the ulnar side
D) The normal end-feel for wrist Extension is bone-to-bone

A

A) Atrophy of the Thenar, or Hypothenar eminences may indicate a nerve lesion

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20
Q
20) Which movement would you resist to test the C7 myotomes?
A) Wrist Extension
B) Wrist Flexion
C) Elbow Flexion
D) Ulnar Deviation
A

B) Wrist Flexion

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21
Q

21) Which statement does NOT describe the importance of accurate palpation in the practice of massage therapy?
A) Palpation facilitates differentiation of normal and abnormal tissue states
B) Palpation enhances the ability to accurately diagnose a client’s condition
C) Palpation enables evaluation of tissue response to treatment techniques
D) Palpation facilitates the design of effective ongoing treatments

A

B) Palpation enhances there ability to accurately diagnose a client’s condition

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22
Q
22) Which technique is MOST effective for decreasing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis?
A) AR ROM exercise
B) GTO release
C) Rhythmic stroking
D) Friction
A

B) GTO release

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23
Q

23) Which description of client position and therapist contact does NOT indicate a thoracic extension mobilization?
A) Client - seated with arms crossed, Therapist - arms interlaced with client’s arms and with hands on upper T-spine
B) Client - seated with arms crossed, Therapist - arms wrapped around client with hands on mid T spine
C) Client - seated with arms in Flexion, Therapist - one arm supporting client’s arm and one hand on mid T spine
D) Client - seated with one arm in abduction, Therapist - one hand on arm, one hand on lowest fixated rib

A

D) Client - seated with one arm in abduction, Therapist - one hand on arm, one hand on lowest fixated rib

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24
Q
24) Which position allows for an effective stretch of the tensor Fascia Lata muscle?\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, externally rotate and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hip?
A) Flex/Adduct
B) Extend/Adduct
C) Flex/Abduct
D) Extend/Abduct
A

B) Extend/Adduct

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25
Q

25) Which statement about palpation is TRUE?
A) It is an important tool for assessing the physiological state of body tissues
B) It obscures identification of pathological states and conditions
C) It is an accurate description of the state of body tissues and structures
D) It does not enable massage therapists to evaluate the quality of tissue movement

A

A) It is an important tool for assessing the physiological state of body tissues

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26
Q

26) Which is NOT an appropriate aim of treatment for a client in the early stages of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Maintain Intrinsic Hand Muscle strength
B) Minimize hyperkyphosis development
C) Maintain functional rib movement
D) Minimize development of ataxic gait

A

D) Minimize development of ataxic gait

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27
Q
27) Yergason’s test will be positive in a client with which condition?
A) Biceps Brachii Tendonitis
B) Rotator Cuff Tendonitis 
C) Glenohumeral joint dislocation
D) Acromioclavicular dislocation
A

A) Biceps Brachii Tendonitis

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28
Q
28) Which sign specifically indicates a PNS lesion?
A) Spastic paralysis
B) Abnormal or antalgic gait
C) Increased deep tendon reflexes
D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
A

D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes

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29
Q
29) Which muscle contains a trigger point that refers pain over the olecranon process?
A) Biceps Brachii
B) Coracobrachialis
C) Triceps Brachii
D) Pectoralis Major
A

C) Triceps Brachii

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30
Q
30) A client with a common fibular nerve lesion may compensate with excessive ipsilateral \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A) Hip Flexion
B) Dorsiflexion
C) Hip Extension
D) Knee Extension
A

D) Knee Extension

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31
Q
31) Connective tissue sheets sticking together describe which state?
A) Scar tissue
B) Adhesions
C) Contracture
D) Hypertonicity
A

B) Adhesions

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32
Q

32) Which phrase describes a Pott’s fracture?
A) A fracture of the neck of the femur due to bone degeneration
B) A combination of a transverse and an avulsion fracture at the ankle
C) A spontaneous stress fracture of the fibula and malleolous
D) An avulsion of the medial malleolous due to excessive weight

A

B) A combination of a transverse and an avulsion fracture at the ankle

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33
Q
33) Tinel’s sign at the elbow is performed between the olecranon process and \_\_\_\_\_\_ and tests the \_\_\_\_\_\_ nerve
A) Medial Epicondyle/Radial
B) Medial Epicondyle/Ulnar
C) Lateral Epicondyle/Ulnar
D) Radial head/Median
A

B) Medial Epicondyle/Ulnar

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34
Q
34) Which term is NOT a part of the stance phase of gait?
A) Heel strike
B) Initial swing
C) Mid-stance
D) Load response
A

B) Initial swing

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35
Q

35) Which correctly matches a tissue manifestation with the type of remedial exercise applied?
A) Atrophy - passive stretch
B) Adhesions - long duration stretching
C) Contracture - isotonic strengthening
D) Trigger points - isometric strengthening

A

B) Adhesions - long duration stretching

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36
Q
36) Which sign/symptom is uncharacteristic of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Shuffling gait
B) Resting tremors
C) ‘question mark’ posture
D) Visual distrubances
A

D) Visual disturbances

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37
Q

37) Which muscle contains a trigger point that mimics medial epicondylitis?
A) Supinator
B) Brachioradialis
C) Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

A

D) Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

38
Q

38) Which statement about elbow assessment it TRUE?
A) Pain during Elbow ROM always indicates referred pain from the wrist
B) Cubitus varus means the carrying angle is more than 5-10degrees
C) Cubitus valgus means the carrying angle is more than 15degrees
D) The functional position of the elbow is 20degrees of Flexion

A

C) Cubitus valgus means the carrying angle is more than 15degrees

39
Q

39) Which approach is indicated in the initial treatment of a client with multiple sclerosis
A) Long duration, soothing treatments
B) Cool wash to strengthen weak muscles
C) Hydrocollator pack on spastic muscles
D) Slow mid range PR ROM to affected joints

A

D) Slow mid range PR ROM to affected joints

40
Q
40) A massage therapist applies moist heat, fascial shear and PR ROM to a client’s shoulder. Which one of the following states are they specifically addressing
A) Tissue feels cool and ‘boggy’
B) Tissue feels warm and swollen
C) Injured area feels restricted
D) Reflex muscle guarding
A

C) Injured area feels restricted

41
Q
41) Which one of the following statements regarding torticollis is TRUE?
A) Contralateral rotation is limited
B) Ipsilateral side-bending is limited
C) Primarily affects the splenii muscles
D) Ipsilateral C/S IVD’s are compressed
A

D) Ipsilateral C/S IVD’s are compressed

42
Q
42) Which is a cause of disuse atrophy?
A) Deficient nutrition
B) Lack of exercise
C) Inadequate blood supply
D) Loss of neural stimulation
A

B) Lack of exercise

43
Q
43) Which muscle is primarily involved in Duputryen’s contracture?
A) Flexor digitorum Profundus
B) Pronator Teres
C) Supinator 
D) Palmaris longus
A

D) Palmaris longus

44
Q
44) Which special test would likely be positive in a client suspected of having biceps brachii tendonitis?
A) Hawkins-Kennedy
B) Yergasons
C) Kemp’s
D) Allen’s
A

B) Yergason’s

45
Q
45) Which one of the following area’s will NOT be afflicted with a sensory deficit with a common fibular nerve lesion that occur’s mid-shaft?
A) Dorsal web space of the foot
B) Lateral superior fibula
C) Most of the digits
D) Dorsum of the foot
A

B) Lateral superior fibula

46
Q
46) At which joint is a typical rib subluxation most easily palpated?
A) Costotransverse
B) Costovertebral
C) Sternocostal
D) Costochondral
A

A) Costotransverse

47
Q

47) Which statement about Hawkin’s-Kennedy test is TRUE?
A) A positive test indicates bicipital tendonitis
B) It is performed by applying resistance to shoulder Flexion
C) A positive test indicates Supraspinatus tendonitis
D) A positive test indicates acromioclavicular dislocation

A

C) A positive test indicates Supraspinatus tendonitis

48
Q
48) A prolonged contraction in response to a painful stimulus describes which state?
A) Heat cramps
B) Hypertonicity
C) Reflex muscle guarding
D) Intrinsic muscle spasm
A

C) Reflex muscle guarding

49
Q

49)Which aim of treatment is applicable to congenital torticollis?
A) Reduce muscle spasms before stretching affected muscles
B) Focus on stretching connective tissue structures
C) Progress quickly with a remedial exercise program
D) Reduce spasms by applying cold hydrotherapy

A

B) Focus on stretching connective tissue structures

50
Q
1) Which factor is NOT assessed through palpation?
A) Quality of tissue movement
B) Gait and ROM patterns
C) Spatial relationships of structures
D) Symmetry of body tissues
A

B) Gait and ROM patterns

51
Q

2) Which activity would be LEAST effective in enhancing palpation skills?
A) Applying light pressure on entire structure
B) Palpating with eyes closed
C) Applying deep pressure on entire structures
D) Palpating the same structure on many clients

A

C) Applying deep pressure on entire structures

52
Q
3) Which is an UNLIKELY cause of muscle spasms?
A) Injury
B) Decreased nervous system activity
C) Ischemia
D) Altered nutritional supply
A

B) Decreased nervous system activity

53
Q
4) Connective tissue sheets sticking together describe which state?
A) Hypertonicity
B) Contracture
C) Adhesions
D) Scar tissue
A

C) Adhesions

54
Q
5) For which condition would you NOT select passive stretches as the remedial exercise of choice?
A) Congential torticollis
B) Disuse atrophy following cast removal
C) Multiple Trapezius MTPs
D) Iliotibial band Friction Syndrome
A

B) Disuse atrophy following cast removal

55
Q
6) Which technique is MOST effective when treating a client with a contractured intrinsic ligament?
A) Passive angular stretching
B) Peripheral joint mobilization
C) Eccentric resistance exercise
D) Active inhibition stretching
A

B) Peripheral joint mobilization

56
Q

7) Which treatment protocol is INEFFECTIVE when treating a client with chronic ITB syndrome?
A) Grade II oscillations at the knee
B) Frictions at the lateral tibial condyle
C) Hot towels along the lateral thigh
D) Active resisted hip flexion

A

D) Active resisted hip flexion

57
Q

8) Which statement about muscles and joints affected by torticollis is TRUE?
A) The shoulder girdle is elevated on the unaffected side
B) The splenii muscles are lengthened on the affected side
C) Intervertebral discs are compressed on the unaffected side
D) The Sternocleidomastoid is shortened on the affected side

A

D) The Sternocleidomastoid is shortened on the affected side

58
Q
9) A client complains of numbness in the hand of unknown origin that began two weeks ago, which assessment protocol would be the first you perform?
A) Palpation of the hand and wrist
B) Sensory testing of the hand
C) Cervical spine scanning exam
D) Phalen’s test and Tinels test
A

C) Cervical spine scanning exam

59
Q

10) Which aim of treatment is applicable when treating a client with acquired torticollis?
A) Apply hot hydrotherapy to reduce spasms
B) Focus on stretching connective tissue stretching
C) Reduce muscle spasms before stretching affected muscles
D) Lengthen contractured tissues immediately

A

C) Reduce muscle spasms before stretching affected muscles

60
Q

11) When assessing right-sided congential torticollis, which assessment finding is NOT expected?
A) Cervical spine right Rotation & extension are limited
B) Facet joints on the right side are compressed
C) Cervical spine left lateral flexion is limited
D) Mandible deviates to left side on mouth opening

A

D) Mandible deviates to left side on mouth opening

61
Q

12) Which statement about elbow assessment is TRUE?
A) The male carrying angle is usually larger than the female
B) The normal end-feel for Elbow Flexion is bone-to-bone
C) Swelling of the joint capsule will involve all three joints
D) The ligamentous instability test is performed by passively flexing the elbow

A

C) Swelling of the joint capsule will involve all three joints

62
Q
13) Which muscle contains a trigger point that mimics medial epicondylitis?
A) Supinator
B) Triceps Brachii
C) Brachioradialis 
D) Extensor Carpi Radialis longus
A

B) Triceps Brachii

63
Q

14) In a client with DeQuervains tenosynovitis, which pair of tendons is usually treated?
A) Abductor Pollicis Longus & extensor Pollicis Brevis
B) Abductor Pollicis Longus & Extensor Pollicis Longus
C) Abductor Pollicis Brevis & Extensor Pollicis brevis
D) Adductor Pollicis & Extesnor Pollicis longus

A

A) Abductor Pollicis Longus & extensor Pollicis Brevis

64
Q
15) Which test would confirm the presence of DeQuervains tenosynovitis?
A) Pinch grip test
B) Froment’s sign
C) Finklestein’s test
D) Phalen’s test
A

C) Finklestein’s test

65
Q
16) When palpating the quadriceps muscles, the tissue feels very dense and barely pliable, which state are you likely assessing?
A) Mild Hypertonicity
B) Reflex muscle gaurding
C) Severe hypertonicity
D) Muscle spasms
A

C) Severe hypertonicity

66
Q
17) A positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist is indicative of which condition?
A) Radial nerve lesion
B) DeQuervains tenosynovitis
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Adductor Pollicis paralysis
A

C) Carpal tunnel syndrome

67
Q
18) Which muscle is primarily involved in Dupuytren’s contracture?
A) Flexor digitorum Profundus 
B) Palmaris longus
C) Pronator Teres
D) Supinator
A

B) Palmaris longus

68
Q
19) Which injury produces the sulcus sign?
A) Glenohumeral subluxation
B) Acromioclavicular dislocation
C) Sternoclavicular dislocation
D) Humeroulnar subluxation
A

A) Glenohumeral subluxation

69
Q
20) Which muscle would contract in an agonist contraction stretch of the triceps brachii?
A) Latissimus Dorsi
B) Biceps Brachii
C) Pectoralis Major
D) Triceps Brachii
A

B) Biceps Brachii

70
Q
21) A client has pain on shoulder protraction that you determine is due to restricted movement of the Sternoclavicular joint. In which direction would you glide the clavicle to increase the client’s ROM of the joint?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Anterior
D) Posterior
A

C) Anterior

71
Q
22) Which muscle contains a trigger point that refers pain over the Olecranon process?
A) Biceps brachii
B) Pectoralis Major
C) Coracobrachialis 
D) Triceps Brachii
A

D) Triceps Brachii

72
Q

23) Which statement about Hawkins-Kennedy test is TRUE?
A) A positive test indicates Acromioclavicular dislocation
B) A positive test indicates Supraspinatus Tendonitis
C) It is performed by applying resistance to shoulder flexion
D) A positive test indicates bicipital tendonitis

A

B) A positive test indicates Supraspinatus Tendonitis

73
Q
24) In which condition does pain stay the same when isometric resistance is applied?
A) Tendonitis
B) Contusion
C) Subluxation
D) Bursitis
A

D) Buristis

74
Q
25) Which special test would likely be a positive in a client suspected of having Biceps Brachii tendonitis?
A) Hawkin’s-Kennedy
B) Kemps
C) Allen’s
D) Yergason’s
A

D) Yergason’s

75
Q
27) Your client, a hairdresser, has recently been treated for an acute flare-up of her Right Supraspinatus tendonitis, As her symptoms have diminished, your focus is now on resolving the condition and prevention of reoccurrence 
A) Maintain ROM
B) Restore good biomechanics
C) Increase relaxation
D) Decrease swelling
A

A) Maintain ROM

76
Q

28) Which presentation describes the primary compensation for a dropped foot during gait?
A) Hypotonic ipsilateral lumbar spine muscles
B) Hypertonic Contralateral lumbar spine muscles
C) Excessive ipsilateral Hip Flexion
D) Excessive contralateral hip flexion

A

C) Excessive ipsilateral hip flexion

77
Q
29) What is NOT a cause of disuse atrophy?
A) Lack of exercise
B) Inadequate blood supply
C) Deficient nutrition
D) Loss of neural stimulation
A

D) Loss of neural stimulation

78
Q
30) Which manifestation is NOT present, following the recent removal of a cast?
A) Disuse atrophy
B) Decreased muscle strength
C) Increased muscle length
D) Contractures
A

C) Increased muscle length

79
Q

31) Which statement regarding a Colle’s fracture is FALSE?
A) It is a spontaneous fracture of the radius due to bone degeneration
B) It may be accompanied by an avulsion fracture of the Ulna
C) It may be caused by carpal bones ‘jamming’ into the distal radius
D) It is a complete fracture of the distal radius

A

A) It is a spontaneous fracture of the radius due to bone degeneration

80
Q

32) Which aim is indicated when treating a client with a Pott’s fracture in the late sub-acute stage of healing?
A) Eliminate Reflex muscle gaurding in the pelvis
B) Increase distal circulation in the affected limb
C) Increase strength of the Gluteus Medius on the unaffected side
D) Reduce compensatory joint hypomobility

A

D) Reduce compensatory joint hypomobility

81
Q

33) Which is a common cause of Acromioclavicular dislocation?
A) Grabbing an object when falling
B) Fracture of the clavicle
C) Lateral pull with the shoulder Abducted
D) Excessive shoulder extension

A

C) Lateral pull with the shoulder Abducted

82
Q
34) Which aim of treatment is beyond the MT scope of practice for treating a client with an acute Sternoclavicular dislocation
A) Decrease muscle spasm
B) Encourage diaphragmatic breathing
C) Reduce the dislocated joint
D) Decrease inflammation
A

C) Reduce the dislocated joint

83
Q

35) Which aim is NOT indicated when treating clients with non-regenerating and partially regenerating nerve lesions?
A) Maintain available joint range of motion
B) Minimize unopposed contracture formation
C) Improve strength of affected muscles
D) Maintain tissue health

A

C) Improve strength of affected muscles

84
Q
36) Which muscle is NOT affected with a common fibular nerve lesion?
A) Tibialis Anterior
B) Fibularis Longus
C) Gastrocnemius
D) Extensor Hallucis Longus
A

C) Gastrocnemius

85
Q
37) Which technique is CI’d when treating a client with a regenerating common fibular nerve?
A) Muscle setting
B) Warm hydrotherapy
C) Running vibrations
D) Ankle traction
A

D) Ankle traction

86
Q

38) Which statement regarding multiple sclerosis is TRUE?
A) Deep tendon reflexes are normal
B) It is usually caused by trauma
C) It is due to demyelination of peripheral nerves
D) The condition may manifest with spasticity

A

D) The condition may manifest with spasticity

87
Q

39) A client with Multiple Sclerosis complains of weakness with ankle Dorsiflexion and wrist extension. Which approach is MOST effective for treating the client’s concern
A) Lengthen ankle plantar flexors and wrist Extensors
B) Strengthen ankle plantar flexors and wrist flexors
C) Strengthen ankle dorsiflexors and wrist Extensors
D) Lengthen ankle plantar flexors and wrist flexors

A

C) Strengthen ankle dorsiflexors and wrist Extensors

88
Q
40) Which muscle is likely to be hypertonic in a person presenting with upper chest breathing?
A) Internal Intercostals
B) Sternocleidomastoid
C) Serratus Posterior Inferior
D) Abdominal
A

B) Sternocleidomastoid

89
Q
46) Which technique is indicated when treating the affected tissues of a client presenting with spasticity?
A) Cold washing
B) Large ROM movements
C) Muscle shaking
D) GTO release
A

D) GTO release

90
Q

47) What movement is described as a ‘sensitizer maneuver’ for ULTTs?
A) Keep joints in a closed packed position to prevent stress
B) Use body weight, not muscle strength to apply pressure
C) Stand at the opposite side of the table from the area where you are working
D) Use the ‘working’ hand to support the ‘non-working’ hand

A

B) Use body weight, not muscle strength to apply pressure

91
Q
50) Which movement is resisted to test the C5 Myotome?
A) Shoulder abduction
B) Shoulder elevation
C) Elbow flexion
D) Neck flexion
A

A) Shoulder abduction

92
Q
Which one of the following orthopaedic tests only involves rotation and axial compression of the neck?
A) Houle’s
B) Kemp’s
C) Jackson’s
D) Spurling’s
A

C) Jackson’s