Theory Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q
1) Flexion of the elbow and extension of the hip are typical presentations in a mobile client that has which neurological disorder
A) Parkinson’s
B) Hemiplegia
C) Mulitple Sclerosis
D) Spinal Cord Lesion
A

B) Hemiplegia

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2
Q
2) Which position is indicated when treating a client with right-sided Hemiplegia?
A) Left side-lying
B) Right side-lying
C) Prone & Supine
D) Fowler’S & Prone
A

A) Left side-lying

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3
Q
3) In which position is the GH joint often found in someone with Hemiplegia?
A) Adducted and Internally rotated
B) Abducted and elevated
C) Flexed and Adducted
D) Abducted and externally rotated
A

A) Adducted and Internally rotated

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4
Q
4) Which treatment protocol is indicated for a client with hemiplegia?
A) Fascial work to the Pectoralis major
B) Tapotement to the biceps brachii
C) Hold-relax for the triceps brachii
D) Stretch for the rhomboids
A

A) Fascial work to the Pectoralis major

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5
Q
5) When treating a client with hemiplegia, Which treatment is contraindicated for reducing spasticity?
A) Petrissage to the hip extensors
B) Heating compress to the gastrocnemius
C) GTO release to the forearm flexors
D) Cold wash to the forearm flexors
A

D) Cold wash to the forearm flexors

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6
Q
6) Restoration of health, or ability to perform a task defines which term?
A) Capability
B) Impairment
C) Disability
D) Rehabilitation
A

D) Rehabilitation

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7
Q

7) Which statement about cerebral palsy is FALSE?
A) Cerebral palsy only presents as hemiplegia
B) Epilepsy is commonly associated with cerebral palsy
C) There may be sensory impairment associated with cerebral palsy
D) It can be due to damage of the motor cortex, basal nuclei or cerebellum

A

A) Cerebral palsy only presents as hemiplegia

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8
Q

8) Which statement about cerebral palsy and hemiplegia is TRUE?
A) Cerebral palsy only affects the motor system
B) Cerebral palsy may progress leading to quadriplegia
C) Hemiplegia is usually due to a Cerebrovascular accident
D) Cerebral palsy and hemiplegia normally develop later in life

A

C) Hemiplegia is usually due to cerebrovascular accident

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9
Q
9) Which technique must be applied cautiously when treating a client with cerebral palsy?
A) Full range PR ROM to affected joint
B) AF ROM of the limbs
C) Slow rhythmic stroking
D) Gentle fascial release
A

A) Full range PR ROM to affected joint

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10
Q
10) Which aim is indicated when treating a client with cerebral palsy?
A) Minimize contracture formation
B) Prevent muscle imbalance
C) Minimizing resting tremors
D) Stimulate flaccid muscles
A

A) Minimize contracture formation

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11
Q

11) Which protocol applied to the anterior Brachium, is NOT indicated when treating a client who has difficulty feeding himself due to cerebral palsy?
A) Repetitive effleurage to the arm to decrease spasticity
B) Active resisted eccentric strengthening exercises
C) Slow, gentle stretching to decrease Contractures
D) Warm towels to decrease pain and spasticity

A

B) Active resisted eccentric strengthening exercises

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12
Q

12) Which protocol for therapist biomechanics should be used when transferring a client from a wheelchair to the treatment surface?
A) Place your hands under the client’s axilla and ankle
B) Use your arms to lift the client’s weight off their chair
C) Bend at the hips and knees, not the back when transferring
D) Balance the client’s weight and Rotate you’re lumbar spine

A

C) Bend at the hips and knees, not the back when transferring

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13
Q

13) Over which pair of bony landmarks are you MOST likely to find decubitus ulcers on a client with left-sided hemiplegia using a wheelchair?
A) Tibial Tuberosity & greater trochanter
B) Spine of the Scapula & spinous processes
C) Ischial Tuberosity & Base of sacrum
D) Ischial Tuberosity & Femoral Condyles

A

C) Ischial Tuberosity & base of sacrum

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14
Q
14) A lesion at which spinal cord level manifests with impairment of primary respiratory function?
A) C5
B) C6
C) C7
D) C8
A

A) C5

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15
Q
15) Which presentation would you expect to observe in a client with a spinal cord lesion at the L3 segmental level?
A) Increased L4 Reflex
B) Flaccidity of the lower limbs
C) Spasticity of the lower limbs
D) Loss of sympathetic control
A

B) Flaccidity of the lower limbs

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16
Q
16) Which aim is primary when treating a client with decubitus ulcers and postural hypotension related to a spinal cord injury?
A) Decrease spasticity
B) Improve circulation
C) Maintain mobility
D) Decrease edema
A

B) Improve circulation

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17
Q

17) A client with paraplegia complains of middle and upper back pain from sitting in a wheelchair. Which technique is contraindicated when treating this client?
A) Hot epsom salt baths
B) Light hacking to the rhomboids
C) C-scooping on the upper shoulders
D) Stretches for the upper trapezius muscle

A

A) Hot epsom salt baths

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18
Q

19) Which treatment protocol is indicated when treating a client with a central nervous system lesion?
A) Active resisted exercises to affected muscles
B) Stimulating techniques to atrophied tissues
C) Concentric strengthening for Contractured muscles
D) Slow, soothing, rhythmical techniques to spastic muscles

A

D) Slow, soothing, rhythmical techniques to spastic muscles

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19
Q
20) A client with Parkinson’s disease has significant anterior head carriage. In which position would you place him for the initial treatment?
A) Simm’s with shoulder bolster
B) Prone with abdominal pillow
C) Left side-lying without support
D) Supine with head supported
A

D) Supine with head supported

20
Q
21) Which muscle of the back can be palpated most medially?
A) Multifidi
B) Spinalis Thoracis
C) Iliocostalis thoracis
D) Longissimus thoracis
A

B) Spinalis Thoracis

21
Q
22) Which special test will be positive in a client with hypertonic muscles of inspiration?
A) Scoliosis test
B) Costovertebral expansion
C) Apley’s scratch test
D) Scapulothoracic rhythm
A

B) Costovertebral expansion

22
Q
23) Motor fibres of the Intercostals nerves travel between which set of muscles?
A) External and internal intercostals
B) Internal and innermost intercostals
C) Innermost intercostals and subcostals
D) Pectoralis major and Pectoralis minor
A

B) Internal and innermost intercostals

23
Q

24) Which technique is indicated when treating a client with Contractures due to chronic intercostal neuralgia?
A) Running vibrations along the course of the ribs
B) Thumb stripping along the intercostal space
C) Grade 1 Costovertebral joint mobilizations
D) Cupping over the thorax

A

B) Thumb stripping along the intercostal space

24
Q
26) Transverse pressure applied to the right side of a thoracic spinous process would help stretch which structure, potentially increasing thoracic mobility
A) Left multifidus
B) Right multifidus
C) Left facet joint capsule
D) Posterior longitudinal ligament
A

B) Right multifidus

25
Q
27) What is the predominant movement of ribs 1 and 2?
A) Pump handle
B) Bucket handle
C) Basket handle
D) Caliper motion
A

A) Pump handle

26
Q

29) Which statement about neuropathies is TRUE?
A) Nerve root lesions often affect several peripheral nerves
B) Mononeuropathies are due to single nerve root lesions
C) Polyneuropathies are usually due to terminal nerve branch lesions
D) Demyelination Conditions are usually considered mononeuropathies

A

A) Nerve root lesions often affect several peripheral nerves

27
Q
30) Which description of pain would NOT be true for a client with Trigeminal neuralgia?
A) Bilateral throbbing
B) Lightening-like sharp
C) Severe electric shock
D) Unilateral, excruciating
A

A) Bilateral throbbing

28
Q

31) Which finding would clearly differentiate Trigeminal neuralgia from a SCM trigger point?
A) A referral pattern over the cheek
B) A referral pattern over the sternum
C) Electric-type pain triggered by pressure or cold
D) A description of intermittent severe unilateral pain

A

B) A referral pattern over the sternum

29
Q
32) When compressed, which area will exacerbate the pain of Trigeminal neuralgia?
A) Lateral neck
B) Anterior neck
C) Scalp or forehead
D) Lip, face or tongue
A

D) Lip, face or tongue

30
Q
33) A lesion of cranial nerve VII at which site will NOT cause Bell’s palsy?
A) Stylomastoid foramen
B) Submandibular gland
C) Parotid gland
D) Fascial canal
A

B) Subdmandibular gland

31
Q
34) Which is NOT an idiopathic neurological disorder?
A) Bell’s palsy
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Parkinson’s disease
A

B) Poliomyelitis

32
Q

35) Which sign/symptom is NOT present with Bell’s Palsy?
A) Decreased taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue
B) Altered function of the lacrimal and submandibular glands
C) Paresis of the platysma and occipitofrontalis muscles
D) Paresthesia of the skin over the mandible and cheek

A

D) Paresthesia off the skin over the mandible and cheek

33
Q
36) Wrinkling the skin over the forehead, smiling, and puckering the lips are indicated REMEX exercises for a client with which condition?
A) Bell’s palsy
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Trigeminal neuralgia
D) Cervical facet irritation
A

A) Bell’s palsy

34
Q

37) Which statement about carpal tunnel syndrome is FALSE?
A) The median nerve is compressed
B) It is considered a compartment syndrome
C) It is a Compression-type polyneuropathy
D) It may be caused by edema in the carpal tunnel

A

C) It is a compression-type polyneuropathy

35
Q
38) Which structure CANNOT compress the median nerve?
A) Pronator Teres
B) Flexor Retinaculum
C)Pronator Quadratus
D) Flexor digitorum Superficialis
A

C) Pronator Quadratus

36
Q
39) Which structure does NOT pass through the carpal tunnel
A) Flexor digitorum Superficialis
B) Flexor digitorum Profundus
C) Flexor Pollicis longus
D) Flexor carpi Radialis
A

D) Flexor carpi Radialis

37
Q
40) Which pair of dermatomes overlaps with the sensory distribution of the median nerve?
A) C8-T1
B) C7-C8
C) C5-C6
D) C6-C7
A

D) C6-C7

38
Q
41) Which test/protocol is NOT indicated for a client with a suspected carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) Speed’s test
B) Phalen’s test
C) C-spine scanning exam
D) Tinel’s test at the wrist
A

A) Speed’s test

39
Q
42) Which hydrotherapy modality is indicated for addressing contracture of the Flexor Retinaculum in a client with carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) Heating compress
B) Parrafin wax
C) Ice massage
D) Cool cloth
A

B) Parrafin wax

40
Q
43) Which protocol is indicated when treating the client with acute carpal tunnel syndrome due to hypertension?
A) Elevation of the limb
B) Lymph pumping at the axilla
C) Mid-range AF ROM of the wrist
D) Long, repetitive strokes proximally
A

C) Mid-range AF ROM of the wrist

41
Q

44) Which statement about the cervical scanning examination is TRUE?
A) You only test until you find the first symptom-producing joint
B) When neurological symptoms are present, the client must be referred
C) It is typically used when there has been no traumatic inciting injury
D) The peripheral joints are tested using passive movement with over-pressure

A

C) It is typically used when there has been no traumatic inciting injury

42
Q

45) Which set of tests is considered orthopaedic, not neurological
A) Vertebral Artery & hautants test
B) Ligamentous instability test & distraction test
C) Jacksons compression test & Tinel’s sign (at the elbow)
D) Valgus stress test & Cozen’s test

A

D) Valgus stress test & Cozen’s test

43
Q
46) When assessing the cervical spine you find the client experiences relief with cervical distraction, and local pain with cervical compression. From which condition is your client likely suffering?
A) Carotid artery insufficiency
B) Facet joint irritation
C) Dural impingement
D) Ligamentous sprain
A

B) Facet joint irritation

44
Q
47) Resisted shoulder girdle elevation tests the integrity of which nerve?
A) Accessory
B) Trochlear
C) Trigeminal
D) Long Thoracic
A

A) Accessory

45
Q
48) A lesion to which pair of cranial nerves results in loss of the corneal reflex?
A) Occulomotor (III) and Trigeminal (V)
B) Trigeminal (V) and Hypoglossal (XII)
C) Occulomotor (III) and Facial (VII)
D) Trigeminal (V) and Facial (VII)
A

D) Trigeminal (V) and Facial (VII)

46
Q

49) Which protocol can assess a possible injury to CN VII (facial nerve)
A) Asking the client to whistle
B) Resisting client’s Shoulder shrug
C) Asking client to swallow repeatedly
D) Performing sensory testing of the face

A

A) Asking the client to whistle