Theory Midterm (2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of an ET tube

A

Transfer anesthetic gases directly from the anesthetic machine into the patients lungs.

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2
Q

Why do we use an ET tube

A

Maintain open airway
Decrease anatomical dead space
Allow precise administration anesthetics 02
Prevent pulmonary aspiration of stomach content, blood, and other material
Allow anesthetics to accurately monitor and control patient respiration

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3
Q

What are the advantages to PVC endotracheal tubes

A

Less porous than rubber, thus resists cracking

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4
Q

What are the disadvantages to PVC endotracheal tube

A

Less flexible than rubber and becomes stiff with age

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5
Q

What are the advantages to red rubber endotracheal tube

A

Relatively inexpensive

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6
Q

What are the disadvantages to red rubber endotracheal tubes

A

May absorb disinfectant solutions, causing drying and cracking after prolonged use.
Flexible so kinking or collapse may occur
Spiral or anode contain a coil of metal or nylon in a tube which resists kinking and collapse

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7
Q

What are the advantages to Silicone rubber tubes

A

Expensive

Smooth, Flexible, Nonporous, less irritating to tissues

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8
Q

What is the cuff of an ET tube

A

Balloon like inflatable structure at the extremity of the tube, and when it is inflated with air.

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9
Q

What are the advantages to having a cuff

A

Prevent leakage of waste gas around the tube and into operating room
Reduces risk of aspiration of blood, saliva, vomitus, etc.
Helps to maintain appropriate anesthetic depth by preventing room air coming into lungs

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10
Q

Disadvantage of cuffs includes:

A

Pressure may cause local necrosis, particularly after prolonged use

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11
Q

Primary functions of an anesthetic machine:

A
  1. Designed to deliver a volatile gaseous anesthetic to and from a patient by means of a circuit of corrugated tubing.
  2. Anesthetic is contained within a carrier gas (either O2 alone or with N2O)
  3. Must be able to achieve the following:
    deliver O2 at a controlled flow rate
    vaporize a designated concentration of a liquid anesthetic, mix it with O2 (+/- N2O) and deliver the resulting mixture to patient
    move exhaled gases away from patient and dispose of via scavenging system or reuse after removing CO2.
  4. May be used as a means of delivering O2 to hypoxic patients
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12
Q

List the 4 distincts systems of the anesthetic machine:

A

Compressed gas supply
Anesthetic vaporizer
Breathing circuit
Scavenging system

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13
Q

What is the function of O2 Compressed Gas cylinders

A

Provides up to 100% O2 (room air is 20%), alveolus 13% and down from there
Desirable because:
Anesthetized animal has higher metabolic requirement for O2 than normal
Anesthetized animal has reduced tidal volume relative to normal. This may result in hypoxia without the higher concentration of O2
Tidal volume; complete inspiration.
O2 also carries the anesthetic to the patient. No anesthetic can be carried to the patient without O2 flow as carrier

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14
Q

How do you calculate volume of a compressed gas cylinder,

A

Volume: comes in a compressed form (psi = pounds per square inch) in a cylinder or tank in varying sizes

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15
Q

What is a tank pressure gauge used for ,

A

Can figure amount of O2 in liters in the tank based on capacity of tank and psi read on tank pressure gauge;

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16
Q

What is the Pressure- reducing valve (P regulator) used for

A

Pressure is reduced by a pressure regulator as it moves from the tank into the anesthetic machine resulting in a constant flow of O2 at 40-50 psi

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17
Q

What are the 02 flow meters used for

A
  1. allows the anesthetist to set the gas flow rate (L/min of O2)
    see p.126 for discussion of O2 flow rates
  2. must have separate flowmeters for N2O and O2
    3.the center of the ball should be read for flow rate (or the top of the rotor)
    4.the flowmeter indicates actual flow of gas to patient rather than tank pressure gauge
  3. flowmeter further reduces pressure from 50psi (345 kPa) to 15 psi (100 kPa) which is slightly above atmospheric pressure
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18
Q

What is the oxygen flush valve used for

A

Delivers a large volume of pure O2 at a flow rate of 35 to 75 L/min directly from the line exiting the P-reducing valve into
The common gas outlet or
Into the breathing circuit of a rebreathing system (between the flutter valves)
… bypassing the vaporizer and flow meter

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19
Q

What is the Description and function of the anesthetic vaporizer

A

converts liquid anesthetic to a gas state in controlled amounts in the carrier gas(es)
O2 exists flow meter → inlet port → vaporizer → fresh gas (O2 + anesthetic mixture) exit the outlet port → fresh gas inlet → rebreathing circuit

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20
Q

What is a vaporizer out of circle

A

Vaporizer out of circle (VOC) = vaporizer not located within the breathing circuit (O2 from the flow meter flows into the vaporizer before entering the breathing circuit: PRECISION VAPORIZER ARE POSITIONED IN A VOC CONFIGURATION SO WE USE VOC SINCE ARE ONLY PRECISION VAPORIZERS.

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21
Q

What is a vaporizer in circle

A

vaporizer located in the breathing circuit: nonprecision vaporizer are positioned this way

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22
Q

What are the factors affecting vaporizer output

A

may be keyed to prevent use with the wrong anesthetic
if wrong anesthetic is put in, drain, flush with O2 and air overnight
Concentration delivered depends upon: temperature, carrier gas flow rate, RR and depth, back pressure
Most modern models compensate for all of the factors and deliver the appropriate concentration with little or no error

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23
Q

How do you calculate % isoflurane concentration

A
Induction rate for Iso: 3-5%
Maintenance rate for Iso : 
1-5% - 2.5%
This is approximately 1.5 x the MAC (minimal alveolar concentration) of Isoflurane . This results in a moderate depth of anesthesia
MAC of Isoflurane in dogs: 1.3%
MAC of Isoflurane in cats: 1.63%
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24
Q

What is the function of the vaporizer inlet port

A

point where O2 enter vaporizer from the flow meters

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25
Q

What is the description of the Vaporizer outlet port:

A

point where O2 + inhalant anesthetic exit the vaporizer on the way to the breathing circuit.

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26
Q

What is the outlet port used for

A

Connected directly to the breathing circuit via a hose OR
Connected to the common gas outlet (Fig. 4-32) which connects directly to the breathing circuit via a second hose.
The common gas outlet is the area where fresh gaseous anesthetic mixture enter the circuit (rebreathing or non-rebreathing circuit)
This mixture never return to vaporizer region
For non-rebreathing system (bain): fresh gas enters 1st through reservoir bag
For rebreathing or circle system: fresh gas enters just upstream from the inspiratory unidirectional flutter valve and downstream from the CO2 absorber.

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27
Q

Explain the Rebreathing systems (Circle systems):

A
  1. Use only with patients larger than 7 kg
  2. Fresh O2 + anesthetic enter circuit from fresh gas inlet and mix with the patient’s exhaled gases.
  3. May be closed (total) rebreathing systems with pop-off nearly closed OR partial semiclosed (partial) rebreathing systems with pop-off partially open
  4. O2 rate higher with partial rebreathing than total rebreathing
    Safety concerns include:
    CO2 accumulation may occur, especially if not efficient scavenger in place
    Less likely in semiclosed system
    Increased pressure in the anesthetic circuit may occur, making it difficult for animal to exhale
    Less likely in semiclosed system
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28
Q

What is the function of Unidirectionnal Valves (flutter valves)

A

Control direction of gas flow through the rebreathing circuit

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29
Q

What is the pathway of unidirectional valves

A

Patient inhales
The inspiratory (Inhalation) unidirectional valve opens and allows the fresh gas to only flow in one direction (towards the patient)
Gases travel through the inspiratory breathing tube (hose)
….and travel toward the patient
Gases pass through the Y piece and
….into the ET tube or mask/chamber
O2 and anesthetics molecules are absorbed by the lungs
…and enter bloodstream
At the same time, CO2 and anesthetic molecules are released from the bloodstream, enter alveoli…..
….and are exhaled gases on the next breath
Exhaled gases travel through ET tube, then Y-piece
..then through expiratory breathing tube
….to reenter the anesthetic machine through the expiratory (exhalation) unidirectional expiratory valve (also one-way)
Then into the reservoir bab (bag inflates)
And pass directly into the CO2 (CO2 is removed from the expired gas before it returns to the patient)

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30
Q

What is the function of the pop off valves

A

Point of exit of anesthetic gases from the breathing circuit.
Main function:
allow excess carrier and anesthetic gases to exit from the breathing circuit and enter the scavenger system.
Allows waste gases to exit anesthetic circuit, preventing build-up of excessive pressure or volume within the circuit

Valve can be fully opened, partly opened or fully closed, allowing vary amounts of gas to exit. WE KEEP FULLY OPEN!

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31
Q

what is the description of the reservoir bag

A

rubber bag which gradually inflates as gases enter the circuit between the expiratory valve and the CO2 absorber and deflates as the patient breathes in
reflexes patient’s respirations

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32
Q

What are the functions of the reservoir bag

A

1.allows anesthetist to observe animal’s respirations:
minimal movement may indicate leakage around cuff (breathing room air) or decreased tidal volume
indicates that ET tube is properly within the trachea and not the esophagus

2.May confirm proper ET TUBE placement
Allows delivery of anesthetic gases to the patient by “bagging” – gently squeezing the bag, causing the patient’s chest to rise slightly by forcing O2 (+/- anesthetic) into the lungs
helps prevents atelectasis (collapsed alveoli) by reinflating alveoli
Normalize gas exchange; flushes airways, decreasing the CO2 (prevent hypercarbia) content and increasing O2 (prevent hypoxemia) (+/- anesthetic) in lungs
Normalize the RR
Also: lifesaving in the case of respiratory arrest and to check for gas leak around ET tube

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33
Q

What is the function dioxide absorber canister

A

Exhaled Gases that do not exit via pop-off valve go through CO2 absorber canister prior to returning to system
Absorbing ingredient (granules) is:
Ca(OH)2 (calcium hydroxide)
water
Na hydroxide, K hydroxide, Ca chloride, Ca sulfate
These react with CO2 to form Ca carbonate and other. Heat + H20 are produced and pH ↓

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34
Q

Explain how granules in the C02 work

A

If use exhausted granules, may lead to hypercapnia
Absorber granules contain a pH indicator when saturated, most frequently with to blue or purple.
Chemical rxn→ heat , H20 (captured in a trap below) and color change
The color change does not last more than several hours so remove soon after noticed (especially with Isoflurane)
Fresh granules: soft and crumble easily / white
Exhausted granules: hard and brittle / off-white to violet

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35
Q

What is the function of the pressure manometer

A

Indicates P inside machine and patient lungs In cm H20 or mmHg
Usually present in both type of circuit. For the rebreathing circuit = on top of CO2 absorber canister
when bagging an animal to determine the P being exerted on the animal’ lungs when the anesthetist squeeze the reservoir bag.
Should read 0 to 2cm of H20 at all time!!!

Possible reasons of excess pressure:
Pop-off valve closed or not sufficiently open
O2 flow rate too high
Scavenger deficient

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36
Q

What is the function of the negative pressure relief valve

A

Valve that opens and admits room air to the circuit if negative pressure (vacuum) is detected in circuit
Not on all machine

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37
Q

When is the negative pressure relief valve engaged

A

Active scavenging system with excessive pressure
O2 tank runs out of O2
If O2 flow rate too low

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38
Q

Explain the non-rebreathing system

A

Patient

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39
Q

What are the advantages to the non-rebreathing system

A

minimal resistance to respiration
resistance offered is secondary to the tubing (ET and other) size rather than gas flow
less drag on patient
faster rate of anesthetic concentration change (although depth changes are secondary to concentration and solubility coefficients of anesthetic)

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40
Q

What are the disadvantages of the non-rebreathing system

A

much more expensive to use due to non-reuse of O2 and anesthetics
does not conserve heat and moisture of patient
produces much more waste gas

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41
Q

How do you make the choice between the rebreathing and the non-rebreathing system

A

Made on the basis of patient size because patient’s respiratory drive (force generated by the respiratory muscles during breathing) is directly related to BW
In small patient, this drive is insufficient to move gas through areas of resistance present in a rebreathing circuit
A non-rebreathing circuit offer little resistance to air movement

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42
Q

What do the oxygen flow rates depend on

A

Type of breathing system (rebreathing or Bain)
Period of anesthesia
When changing the anesthetic depth

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43
Q

What rate do you generally use with the semi-closed rebreathing system

A

Semi-closed rebreathing system: flow rates vary from:
relatively low rates when maintaining a patient at a desired anesthetic depth
…to relatively high rates during induction and recovery and when changing anesthetic depth.

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44
Q

What rate do you generally use with the non-rebreathing system

A

Non-rebreathing system: in general, high rates are used at all times regardless of the period of anesthesia

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45
Q

What rates do you use during chamber and mask induction

A

very high flow rates are required

it saturates the circuit, flushes out Nitrogen produced at the start of the anesthetic period

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46
Q

How do you determine the flow rate for the non-rebreathing system

A

High flow rates per unit BW is required during all periods of general anesthesia (induction, maintenance, recovery) because the removal of CO2 from the circuit is dependent on fresh gas flow
It is based on BW of patient

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47
Q

What is the class and function of Ketamine

A

Ketamine (salivation)

anticholinergic (minimize salivation)

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48
Q

What is the class and function of Halothane

A

Halothane: cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia

anticholinergic (minimize salivation & bradycardia)

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49
Q

What is the class and function of Opioids

A

Opioids: bradycardia, vomiting, diarrhea and flatulence
anticholinergic (minimize bradycardia)
phenothiazines: anti-emetic

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50
Q

What are the uses of Preanesthetic Medications

A
  1. To calm or sedate excited, frigntened, vicious animal (but some not affected)
  2. To minimize adverse effects of concurrently administered drugs
  3. To reduce required dose of concurrently administered agents
  4. To produce smoother anesthetic inductions and recoveries
  5. To decreases pain and discomfort before, during, and after surgery
  6. To produce muscle relaxation
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51
Q

What are the 3 types of preanesthetic medications

A

Anticholinergics
Tranquilizers and Sedatives
Opioids

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52
Q

What do anticholinergics used for

A

Anticholinergic blocks binding of Ach at the muscarinic Rc

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53
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve

A

provide PЄ innervations to numerous target organs

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54
Q

How is the vagus nerve stimulated

A

During surgery, vagus nerve may be stimulated by pulling, touching some organs, by the administration of some drugs , and common anesthetics.

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55
Q

When the muscarinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine what happens

A

bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, excess tear, and salivation, excess production of or respiratory system secretions, ↑ GI motility and pupil constriction

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56
Q

When do you administer Glyco or Atropine

A

20-30 mins before to allow time for peak effect, when to administer IM before anesthetic induction

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57
Q

What are the effects of glyco/atropine

A

prevent bradycardia

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58
Q

What are other effects of glyco/atropine

A

(+) ↓ resp. tract secretions. Less risk of airway obstruction
(+) ↓ GI tract secretions
(+)↓ salivary secretions
Mydriasis (esp. cats) and slows PLR
(-) Reduction of lacrimal secretions (risk of corneal drying, ulcer)
(-) Bronchodilation: increases diameter = increase in dead space = risk of hypoxemia.

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59
Q

What pre-anesthetic drugs promote vomiting

A

opioids

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60
Q

What two pre-anesthetic drugs promote production of saliva

A

Ketamine, Thiopental

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61
Q

What are the adverse effects of Glyco/Atropine

A

CV system: arrythmia, tachycardia.
Respiratory system: thickening of respiratory and salivary secretions in cats
Other Adverse effects: Inhibit intestinal peristalsis. Causes constipation

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62
Q

What patients do you avoid giving glyco/atropine

A

Patients with rapid RR, Cardiovascular disease, Geriatric, Hyperthyroid

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63
Q

Why is glycol preferred over atropine

A

Less arrhythmia, suppress salivation better, crosses the placental barrier less

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64
Q

What is atropine used for in an emergency

A

Treat bradycardia

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65
Q

What is the difference between tranquilizers and sedatives

A

Tranquilizers decrease anxiety, sedative decreases mental activity and sleepiness.

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66
Q

What are 3 classes of tranquilizers and sedatives

A

Phenothiazines
Benzodiazepines
Alpha2-Agonist

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67
Q

What are some precautions to take when using these medications

A

Never let the patient unattended on the table or in an open cage.
It relaxes tissues in pharynx so watch out with brachycephalic breeds
Also unusual behaviour possible.

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68
Q

What is the mode of action and Pharmacology of Phenothiazines

A

Depression of RAC of brain + Blockage of -adrenergic, dopamine, histamine Rc

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69
Q

Where are phenothiazines metabolized

A

By the liver

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70
Q

How quick is the onset of action of the phenothiazines

A

Onset of action : 15 min IM dogs) Peak: 30-60 minutes

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71
Q

What are the effects of phenothiazines on the major organ systems

A

CNS: Calming, sedation, reluctance to move, and decreased interest in the patient’s surroundings.
CV system
Peripheral vasodilatation = hypotension, reflexive ↑ heart rate, ↑ heat loss → hypothermia
↓cardiac output
Antiarrhythmic effect.
Respiratory system: don’t cause resp. depression

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72
Q

What are some other effects of phenothiazines

A

Antiemetic
Ataxia
Prolapse of 3rd eyelid

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73
Q

What are the adverse effects of phenothiazines

A

CNS system
reduce seizure threshold.
Occasionally acepromazine may induce excitement or aggression
CV system
Severe hypotension (especially if Iso is used as an inhalant anesthetic)
Decreased PCV

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74
Q

What patients should phenothiazines be avoided in

A

Patients with liver problems, hypotensive, small, geriatric patients, patients in shock

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75
Q

Why should patients be placed in a quiet location free from stimulation between administration and peak effect.

A

Due to possible excitement

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76
Q

What breeds should phenothiazines be avoided in

A

Boxers, Giant breeds, Greyhounds

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77
Q

What are severe hypotension and bradycardia treated with

A

IV fluids

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78
Q

Why are phenothiazines used

A

To provide sedation
To ↓ dose of general aneshtic
To ease of induction and recovery

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79
Q

What is the mode of action and pharmacology of Benzodiazepines

A

Depression the CNS
Metabolized by the liver
Rapid onset of action and short duration

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80
Q

What patients should you avoid the use of benzodiazepines in

A

Patients with liver problems

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81
Q

What are the effects on major organ systems of benzodiazepines

A

CNS: antianxiety and calming effect (no sedation), in healthy young animals unless used in combination with other drugs such as ketamine or opioids.
much more effective in geriatric or debilitated animals
unreliable sedative effects (may instead produce dysphoria, excitement, ataxia, especially young, healthy animals)
enhances the sedation and analgesia of other agents
Anticonvulsant effect
also given as a tx for seizures
CV system and Respiratory system: few effects

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82
Q

What are the other effects of benzodiazepines

A

Other effects:
skeletal muscle relaxation (counteract rigidity seen with ketamine. Use in FUS patients, herniated disk patient.
Premed with diazepam ↓requirements of many general anesthetics including the inhalant agents
Appetite stimulation in cats

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83
Q

What are the adverse effects of benzodiazepines

A

CNS system:
young and healthy: more difficult to control
Dogs: disorientation, excitement
Cats: dysphoria, aggressivity

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84
Q

Is diazepam water soluble?

A

Not water soluable so it cannot be mixed with water soluble drugs because it will precipitate. Except with ketamine

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85
Q

Why should diazepam not be stored in a plastic container

A

Because it gets absorbed by plastic

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86
Q

Why is diazepam used in combination with other agents

A

their muscle relaxant
anticonvulsant,
and appetite-stimulating properties

87
Q

What precaution must you take with ketval

A

It must be stored in a brown container or in a drawer

88
Q

By what route is diazepam usually administered

A

IV mainly (avoid IM in dogs).

89
Q

Why do you avoid giving diazepam IM in dogs

A

Because IM is painful and not as easily absorbed

90
Q

What is the reversal agent for diazepam

A

Flumazenil

91
Q

Mode of action and Pharmacology for alpha2-agonists

A

act on alpha2-adrenergic receptors of the S (Є) NS both within the CNS and peripherally, causing a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (NE)
Usually, the S (Є) NS → «fight-or flight response»

92
Q

What effects do alpha 2 agonists cause

A
Sedation
Analgesia
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Hypothermia
93
Q

What is the onset of action and duration of alpha2 agonists

A

IV: within 5 to 15 minutes
IM: 15 to 30 minutes
Duration: about 1 to 2 hours
Complete recovery: about 2 to 4 hours if the drug not reversed.

94
Q

Where are alpha 2 agonists metabolized? and excreted?

A

Metabolized by liver, excreted by the urine.

95
Q

What are the effects on major organs of alpha 2 agonists?

A

CNS: Potent sedatives
When combined with other agents, sedation may be sufficient for minor or even major surgical procedures
Analgesia? YES

CV system: Brief hypertension + reflex bradycardia. MM pale, arrythmias, ↓ co, hypotension, ↓ HR

Respiratory system: Minor at low dose, higher at high dose (↓ Tv, ↓ RR)

96
Q

What are the other effects of alpha 2 agonists

A
Muscle relaxation
Increased effects of other anesthetics.
Vomiting (dogs, cats)
Hyperglycemia
Hypothermia
97
Q

What are the adverse effects of alpha 2 agonists

A

CNS system: temporally behavior changes
CV system: profound CV depression.
Respiratory system: potential respiratory depression.

98
Q

In which patients do you avoid using alpha 2 agonists

A

Heart Murmur patients, heart disease, geriatric , small patients, liver disease, diabetic, pregnant, paediatric

99
Q

Describe medetomidine

A

good analgesia, excellent sedation
Approved only in dogs, usually mixed with opioids
Cats: kitty magic (refer to Lab notes (Lab #4)
Usually for minor procedure
Usually too awake for intubation (but give it a try)
For more extensive surgery: sedated animal most be intubated and maintained on inhalant anesthetic (but at much lower % concentration!)

100
Q

What is the antagonist of xylazine

A

Yohimbine

101
Q

What is the antagonist of Medetomidine

A

Atipamezole. Antisedan

102
Q

What drug is a partial agonist of opioids

A

Buprenorphine

103
Q

What drug is an opioid agonist-antagonist

A

Butorphanol

104
Q

What is the antagonist of opioids

A

Naloxone

105
Q

What is the mode of action and pharmacology of opioids

A

Analgesic and sedative effects
Action on Rx located in brain and spinal cord: stimulate receptors similar as do endogenous opiod (eg. Endorphins)
Duration: short to relatively short

106
Q

What are the effects on Major Organ System of opioids

A

CNS:
1) Sedation: may cause CNS depression or excitement (dose, route, agent used, species, patient temperament, and pain status dependent)
dogs: predominant effect : sedation
cats may show bizarre behavior (use low dose and avoid IV)
Short acting (15 min after IM injection)
2) Analgesia: degree of analgesia varies among members of the class
severe pain: morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl, oxy
Mild to Moderate pain: butorphanol, buprenorphine
Widely used in premedication (BAG, HAG)

CV system: bradycardia (especially if combined with the drugs that slow the heart rate such as? Alpha 2-Agonist

Respiratory system: potential to ↓ RR + Tv (but minimal in health patient). Panting in dogs.

107
Q

What are the other effects of opioids

A

miosis in dogs, mydriasis in cats
Dogs: hypothermic as a result of resetting of the thermoregulatory center and panting.
Cats: hyperthermic for unknown reasons.
↑ responsiveness to noise.

108
Q

What are the adverse effects of opioids

A

CNS: anxiety, disorientation, excitement, dysphoria, and ↑ motor activity
CV system: pronounced bradycardia: results from: vagal tone stimulation
Resp. system: respiratory depressor at high dose (except buthorphanol) or combined with tranquilizer or other drugs that are resp. depressant. an inhlant anesthetic respiratory depresssant: isoflurane
GI system: Salivation, V+
Initially ↑ peristaltic movement = D+, V+ , flatulence. Constipation.

109
Q

What are the three uses of opioids

A
  1. Component of preanesthetic protocols
  2. As an induction agent
  3. Analgesia
110
Q

Why are opioids used as a component of preanesthetic protocols

A

For high-risk patients, morphine or hydromorphone as the sole preanesthetic agent.
More commonly mixed with a tranquilizer (such as acepromazine, diazepam, or medetomidine) and/or an anticholinergic (atropine or glycopyrrolate) and given during the preanesthetic period.

111
Q

Why are opioids used as an induction agent

A

(eg. Kitty magic IM in ferals cats: cats are then intubating and maintained at a low % concentration of Iso (0.5-1%)

112
Q

Why are opioids used for analgesia

A

To prevent and treat postoperative pain
To achieve state of profound sedation and analgesia: opiods + tranquilizer = neuroleptanalgesia (will be discussed later if time permits)

113
Q

What should the minimal data base include

A

Patient history, Physical examination, Preanesthetic diagnostic workup

114
Q

What is involved in getting a patient history

A

Know how to get a good one. Don’t ask leading questions, get owners to describe.
know the procedure to be performed, reproductive status of animal (heat- more bleeding)
age of pet, vaccine status of animal
previous illnesses, and response to treatment (be aware of major diseases)
any illness in the past 24 hours (pathogens in hospital, higher risk)
how well the animal tolerates exercise (CVS or respiratory disease)
recent treatment with drugs or insecticides (alter effects of anesthetics)
history of allergies of drug reactions
patient authorization, informed consent, emergency number, and give estimate

115
Q

What is part of the physical examination

A

vet techs are certified to perform GPE provided they are acting under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian
may reveal resp. or CVS disease, enlarged livers, small kidneys which all affect ability to detoxify or excrete drugs
ear mites, otitis, dental disease, overgrown nails, deciduous teeth, fleas, dewclaws that need to be taken care of during Sx
physical factors such as ‘the spay a male cat club’ registration, cryptorchids….

116
Q

What is part of the signalment

A

species\breed (ie brachycephalics: airway problems, sighthounds: metabolism of drugs problems), weight and age ( neonates, pediatrics and geriatrics take special consideration)

117
Q

What biological tests are usually done

A

Diagnostic tests: clinic dependent, and cost
The following will be discussed into the Hematology course:
CBC, PCV and TP
Urinalysis
Blood chemistry tests
Blood coagulation screens

118
Q

How long should you fast animals before surgery

A

8-12hrs

119
Q

What is the goal of anesthetic induction

A

take the patient from consciousness to stage III anesthesia smoothly and rapidly, so that an endotracheal tube can be placed.
Patient passes through the excitement stage and therefore may show signs of uncoordination or struggling, followed by progressive relaxation and unconsciousness.

120
Q

What does excitement and struggling during induction cause

A

Excitement and struggling during induction hamper restraint, increase the risk of inadvertent perivascular drug injection, and predispose the patient to traumatic injury, vomiting, cardiac arrhythmias, and other adverse effects, and so should be minimized through administration of pre medications.

121
Q

How can general anesthesia be achieved

A
IV induction
Induction with Inhalant agents
Mask induction 
Chamber induction
IM induction
122
Q

Describe IV induction

A

The volume is calculated based on a prescribed dose and drawn into a syringe.
The agent is then injected directly into the vein, or into a winged-infusion set or indwelling catheter to effect until:
the patient can be intubated OR until
the patient is at an adequate plane of anesthesia for completion of the planned procedure. It is given to effect.

123
Q

Why is giving drugs to effect necessary

A

The amount of drug needed to induce or maintain anesthesia cannot be accurately predicted for a given patient.

124
Q

What is the average duration of anesthesia with the commonly used IV injectable agents

A

10-20 mins

125
Q

If you require more than 20 minutes anesthesia what must you do?

A

Maintain it with inhalant anesthetics, or administration of propofol by repeat boluses or CRI

126
Q

What are the general disadvantages of mask induction

A

Fear (stage I) + excitement (stage II) → struggle → stimulate sympathethic system → release of epinephrine → arrhythmia, hypotension and others
MM color and refill time as well as ocular indicators of anesthetic depth are not as easily observed
Avoiding mask induction is preferable. We might have to use it in the lab, so you should have an idea how to proceed.Operator exposure to agent + wasteful of anesthetic agent
Slow induction time so not appropriate:
with patient with poor respiratory function.
with unfasted patients: non-fasted patients→ vomiting→ aspiration pneumonia because no ET tube
with patients at risk of vomiting during induction

127
Q

What general anesthesia is induced by IM induction

A

neuroleptanalgesic combinations
variety of combinations of tranquilizers, dissociative, and opioids. Eg. Kitty magic
IM induction is useful for animals in which IV injections are difficult eg. Feral cats, wild animals

128
Q

What is the maintenance period of general anesthesia

A

The period during which a stable level of anesthetic depth is achieved.
Most commonly achieved after anesthetic induction and ET intubation
Most commonly maintained with an inhalant agents delivered via an anesthetic machine
Most common: Isoflurane

129
Q

What is the recovery period of general anesthesia

A

The period when the concentration of anesthetic in the brain begins to decrease.

130
Q

Describe the general safety of general anesthesia

A

Vital centers may be affected, resulting in depression of the CV, respiratory and thermoregulation systems. Death may occur if these centers are not properly maintained and monitored.

131
Q

What strategies can you employ to maximize anesthetic safety

A

Usage of preanesthetic drugs (anticholinergics, tranquilizers, sedatives)
Injectable drugs: Double check all dosage calculations and verify that the labeled concentration on vials is the same as that used for the drug calculations. Label all premade syringes.
Inducing/Maintenance: Use the minimum dose of drug needed to achieve the desired level of anesthesia. (Give only to effect or titration of dose.)
Recovery observation: Vomiting, laryngospasm, hypothermia and convulsions may complicate recovery. CR arrest is also possible.

132
Q

What is stage 1 of general anesthesia

A

Immediately after administration of an inhalation or injectable agent
begins to lose consciousness
fear, excitement, disorientation, and struggling
HR and RR increase
patient may pant, urinate, or defecate
difficult to handle
Near the end of stage I, the patient loses the ability to stand and becomes recumbent.

133
Q

What is stage 2 of general anesthesia

A

excitement stage
the patient loses voluntary control (loss of consciousness)
breathing becomes irregular (may hold its breath)
characterized by involuntary reactions: vocalizing, struggling, paddling, chewing, swallowing, yawning)
HR and RR are often elevated
pupils are dilated but responsive to light
muscle tone is marked
reflexes are present and in fact may appear exaggerated
appear to be “fighting” the anesthesia, but actions are not under conscious control (should get through this stage rapidly)
Stage II ends when the animal shows signs of muscle relaxation, slower RR, and decreased reflex activity.

134
Q

What is special about stage 2 of general anesthesia

A

**This stage is unpleasant and potentially hazardous for both the animal and hospital personnel.
risk of epinephrine release and the possibility of cardiac arrhythmias or arrest. The struggling patient may injure itself, the restrainer, or the anesthetist

135
Q

What is special about stage 1-2 in premedicated animals

A

Premedicated animals may pass directly from consciousness to stage III if induced rapidly.
Stages I and II are often very pronounced in animals in which anesthesia is mask or chamber induced without premedication

136
Q

What is stage 3 of general anesthesia

A

subdivided into four planes
patient is unconscious and progresses gradually from light to deep surgical anesthesia
characterized by progressive muscle relaxation, ↓ HR and RR, and loss of reflexes
pupils gradually dilate, tear production ↓, and the PLR is lost
The increase in HR, BP, and RR seen in response to surgical stimulation during light anesthesia is also gradually lost.

137
Q

What is stage 3 plane 1 of general anesthesia

A

Respirations become regular
Limb movements cease
Eyes rotate ventrally
pupillary response to bright light is ↓
Gagging and swallowing decreased (time to ET tube → A.machine
Palpebral and other reflexes decreased but present
Still responds to painful stimuli (HR, RR, resp. depth, BP would ↑ if in pain)
This plane is inadequate for surgery.

138
Q

What is stage 3 plane 2 of general anesthesia

A

Suitable for most surgical procedures. Pain may induce slight increased HR, RR but no movement
The PLR is sluggish, and the pupil size is moderate.
Respirations: regular but shallow
RR, HR, and BP are mildly ↓
Relaxed skeletal muscle tone
pedal and swallowing reflexes are absent
laryngeal and palpebral reflexes are diminished or lost.
So loss of the pedal and swallowing reflexes marks entry into plane 2, and ventromedial eye rotation also generally occurs at this time.

139
Q

What is stage 3 plane 3 of general anesthesia

A

Too deep for most surgical procedures. Significant ↓in HR RR, BP (even with surgical stimulation)
Dog, cat = RR

140
Q

What is stage 3 plane 4 of general anesthesia

A

Abdominal breathing recognized by a “Rocking boat” respirations.
Spasmodic, jerky, uncoordinated respirations
Fully dilated pupil with no light reflex
eyes may be dry because of an absence of lacrimal secretions.
Muscle tone is flaccid.
Obvious drop in HR, BP
Pale mm and ↑ CRT
Too deep for safety: imminent cardiac and respiratory arrest.

141
Q

What is stage 4 of general anesthesia

A

Cessation of respiration

Total circulatory collapse and death unless immediate resuscitation

142
Q

What are the objectives of surgical anesthesia

A

Maintain anesthesia at the lightest level possible while ensuring the patient does not move, is not aware, and does not feel pain

143
Q

How often should an evaluation of the patient be done during surgery

A

Every 3-5 minutes

144
Q

What parameters are examined during the evaluation of a patient done during surgery

A

RR depth and character. MM color and CRT. HR. Pulse strength, Palpebral and pedal reflex activity, o2 flow rate, IV catheter placement, Temperature

145
Q

What are the indicators of circulation

A

heart rate, heart rhythm, CRT, BP

146
Q

How can you check the heartbeat

A

palpation of the apical pulse through the thoracic wall,
palpation of a peripheral pulse
auscultation with a stethoscope
in conjunction with pulse strength to determine adequate blood flow.
ausculation with a esophageal stethoscope
ECG
Pulse oximeter
BP monitor (Doppler blood flow detector or oscillometric monitor)
+/- intraarterial line attached to a transducer.

147
Q

Drugs of which class are particularly likely to cause bradycardia

A

Opioids and Alpha 2 agonist, barbituates

148
Q

What can cause bradycardia

A

Adverse effects of certain drugs
Excessive surgical stimulation
Excessive anesthetic depth

149
Q

What causes tachycardia

A
Inadequate anesthetic depth
Pain during light surgical stimulation
Hypotension
Bloodloss
Shock
Hypoxemia
Hypercapnia
150
Q

What is the most common HR rhythm in normal dogs and cats

A

Normal sinus rhythm.

151
Q

What are arrhythmias caused by

A

Certain drugs, Anticholinergic, Ketamine, Thiopental

152
Q

What instruments are used to monitor HR and Rhythm

A

Stethoscope
Esophageal stethoscope
ECG: read by the vet but tech must be able to set up the ECG and recognize normal from abnormal rhythm based on auscultation and palpation of pulse

153
Q

What is a CRT

A

CRT > 2secs indicates that tissues in the area tested have reduced blood perfusion
Normal CRT may be present in the face of abnormal circulation so not infallible.

154
Q

What are the possible reasons for slow CRT

A

Possible reasons:
vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine release.
low BP caused by anesthetic drugs (including acepromazine, alpha2-agonists, propofol, and inhalation agents)
hypothermia
cardiac failure
excessive anesthetic depth
blood loss or shock.
reduced temperature of the affected part.

155
Q

What is blood pressure

A

force exerted by flowing blood on arterial walls

156
Q

What is the pulse strength

A

rough indicator of BP ( lingual (dog), dorsal pedal arteries, femoral)

157
Q

What is a normal pulse strength

A

strong and should occur shortly after each apical beat or S1 heart sound.

158
Q

What are indirect methods of measuring blood pressure

A

can be done with external device using pressure cuff and device to note return of blood flow.
Doppler blood flow detector
Oscillometric BP monitor (eg. Cardell®)

159
Q

What are the indicators of oxygenation

A

MM color, pulse Oximeter, Blood gas analysis Objective: to ensure adequate oxygenation of the patient’s arterial blood.”

160
Q

What is MM color

A

Usually the gingiva but if pigmented look at tongue, conjunctiva or MM of prepuce or vulva.
Provide only a crude assessment of both oxygenation and tissue perfusion (since other factors affect MM color

161
Q

What are the causes of pale MM color

A

blood loss, anemia, poor capillary perfusion (eg. vasoconstriction, excessive anesthetic depth, or prolonged anesthesia).

162
Q

What is SaO2

A

Oxygen saturation

163
Q

What is PaO2

A

partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood. Measures the unbound O2 molecules dissolved on plasma (only 1.5% of the total amount of O2 available to tissue)

164
Q

What does a pulse oximeter do

A

estimates the saturation of hemoglobin (So2), expressed as a % of the total binding sites of Hb molecules occupied by O2 molecules

165
Q

What are the indicators of ventilation

A

RR, Tv, Respiratory character, Capnograph. Blood gas analysis

166
Q

How do you monitor RR

A

Watching the chest wall movements
observing the rebreathing movement
Mechanically with an apnea monitor or capnograph.

167
Q

What typically occurs with the RR in anaesthetized animals

A

During anesthesia, there is normally a decrease in the RR.
isoflurane (inhalant) anesthetics, opioids, and alpha2 agonists are particularly likely to cause respiratory depression.
Propofol and thiopental sodium typically cause bradypnea or apnea during induction, especially if given quickly or at higher doses.

168
Q

What does true tachypnea cause

A

Hypercapnia
Excess CO2 in the circuit
pulmonary disease,
or a response to a mild surgical stimulus.
(((progression from moderate to light anesthesia (one of the first signs of arousal from anesthesia) ))))
(((((Some patients (particularly obese dogs) breathe rapidly even at a moderate depth of anesthesia.))))

169
Q

What is tidal volume

A

Amount of air inhaled in a breath

170
Q

How do you monitor tidal volume

A

watching the chest wall movements

observing the rebreathing movement

171
Q

What is atelectasis

A

partial collapse of some alveoli

172
Q

How often do you bag an animal

A

Every 5-10 minutes

173
Q

What is respiratory character

A

Effort required to breathe, the relative length of inhalation and exhalation and regularity

174
Q

What is hyperventilation

A

Increased tidal volume, may result from hypercapnia or surgical stimulation.

175
Q

How do you monitor respiratory character

A

By watching chest wall

176
Q

If an animal is gasping, having difficult or laboured breathing during surgery what can this mean

A

Airway blockage, respiratory disease, pressure buildup, hypoxemia

177
Q

If an animal is anesthetized with Ketamine, what can the animals exhibit

A

Apneustic respiratory pattern in which there is a prolonged pause between inspiration and expiration.

178
Q

What are the reflexes that indicate anesthetic depth

A
Swallowing reflex
Laryngeal reflex
Palpebral reflex
Pedal reflex
Corneal Reflex
Pupillary Light reflex
179
Q

What do spontaneous mvt indicate

A

light plane of anesthesia, and imminent arousal

180
Q

What does muscle tone indicate

A

Light: marked
Medium: moderate
Deep: flaccid

181
Q

What does eye position indicate

A

Light anesthesia: central
medium anesthesia: ventromedial
deep anesthesia: central

182
Q

Describe pupil size in relation to anesthetic depth

A

Stage 2 anesthesia: dilated

Stage 1: Constricted

183
Q

What is referred pain?

A

felt in a body part other than that in which it is situated

184
Q

What is Hyperesthesia

A

increase sensitivity to touch, heat, cold

185
Q

What is pain?

A

Pain is an aversive sensory and emotional experience that elicits protective motor actions, results in learned avoidance, and may modify species-specific behavior
Different for every individual animal, although similarities exist within a species

186
Q

What is multimodal therapy?

A

Multiple receptors and mechanisms have been identified that are responsible for pain and the development of windup.
An analgesic plan for moderate to severe pain should make use of several drugs, each having a different mechanism of action.

187
Q

What is the purpose of pain assessment tools

A

help determine how much pain the animal is in and to assess response to treatment.

188
Q

How often do you assess animals Response to Therapy:

A

Animals undergoing major surgery: assess hourly or possibly more frequently in the first few hours of the postoperative period
patients with chronic pain: less frequently

189
Q

What are The benefits of multimodal analgesic therapy

A

each individual drug dose is reduced,
overall anesthetic drug requirement is reduced,
and therefore the risk of toxicity and adverse effects is decreased.

190
Q

What is the purpose of premedication

A

offers an opportunity to administer analgesia before surgery (i.e., preemptively)
animals having received preanesthetics appear less painful than those who receive none (helps to prevent windup)
Those who get “wound up” need more post-op analgesia
Also note that less general anesthetic is needed for surgery (im morphine pre-op, can keep Iso % lower).

191
Q

What is another method of preemptive analgesia

A

Application of fentanyl patch 6-12hrs before surgery

192
Q

Whats an opioids mechanism of pain relief

A

Works at brain and spinal cord level

193
Q

What is an NSAID mechanism of pain relief

A

Works at tissue level, reducing PG production, also at level of brain

194
Q

What is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist’s mechanism of pain relief

A

Activate alpha 2 adrenergic receptors both centrally and in the peripherally

195
Q

What is ketamine’s mechanism of pain relief

A

Blocks the NMDA receptors in the CNS at the level of the spinal cord

196
Q

What is a corticosteroid’s mechanism of pain relief

A

tissue level, reducing prostaglandin production

197
Q

What is tramadol’s mechanism of pain relief

A

at brain level + inhibition of NE and serotonin uptake

198
Q

What are a tranquilizer’s mechanism of pain relief

A

Potentiate the effects of opioids in some patients

199
Q

How do you choose what analgesic you’re going to give

A

The choice of analgesic is governed by the severity and type of pain and the animal’s general condition.
The veterinarian also selects the route of delivery, which may include injection SC, IM, IV, intraarticular, epidural, local infiltration, oral administration, or transdermal patch.

200
Q

How can pharmacologic analgesia be achieved

A

Opioid agents
NSAID’s
Other Analgesic Agents: Local anesthetics, Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonists, Ketamine, Corticosteroids, Tramadol, Tranquilizers

201
Q

What is the general disadvantage to opioid agents

A

Relatively short duration of action when given by injection, necessitating repeat injections which can be expensive.
Also have potential for several side effects
All opiods cross the placental barrier in significant amount

202
Q

Why don’t you cut or trim the fentanyl patch

A

It splits unevenly

203
Q

What are the advantages of inhalant anesthesia

A

The depth of anesthesia is constantly altered by varying the amount entering the lungs. It is impossible to vary the amount of injectable agent other than injecting increasing amounts of drug.

Elimination of injectable agents is via bloodstream to the rest of the body, liver metabolism and/or renal excretion. Inhalation agents are eliminated via the lung and thus, are less dependent upon patient metabolism and organ function.

Inhalation anesthesia allows high concentrations of O2 (almost 100%) to be delivered to the patient vs. 20% O2 in room air.

Usually patients using inhalation anesthesia are intubated allowing relatively easy access to mechanical ventilation if needed.

204
Q

What are the disadvantages to inhalant anesthesia

A

Inhalation anesthesia requires the use of an expensive anesthetic machine. Once purchased, this is relatively economical to use however.
Inhalation anesthesia may become waste anesthetic gas which increases operating room pollution – increasing operating room personnel’s risks for various health related problems – also environmental pollution.

205
Q

What are the characteristics of an ideal inhalant anesthetic agent

A

Minimal toxicity – especially to the cardiovascular, respiratory, hepatic, renal and nervous systems.
Minimal toxicity of waste gas to operating room personnel
Ease of administration
Rapid and smooth induction and recovery
Anesthetic depth easily controlled and altered
Good muscle relaxation
Post-operative analgesia
Low cost
Adequate potency (to achieve surgical anesthetic plane)
Nonflammable and nonexplosive (safe to handle)
Inexpensive equipment required

206
Q

What is the class of Isoflurane

A

Halogenated Organic Compounds

207
Q

What is special about Isoflurane, sevoflurane, and desflurane

A

have low lipid solubility: little retention in boy fat stores, little hepatic metabolism and little renal excretion

208
Q

What are the Effects on Major Organ Systems of isoflurane

A

CNS:
Dose-related, reversible depression of the CNS
depress temperature-regulating center, leading to hypothermia
CVS: depress cardiovascular function (vasodilation, ↓ CO, ↓BP, ↓tissue perfusion)
Respiratory system: depress ventilation in a dose-dependent manner (↓ Tv and RR = hypoventilation)

209
Q

What are the adverse effects of isoflurane

A

CNS adverse effects: minimal with the currently used halogenated anesthetic
CVS adverse effects: ↓ BP so potential to ↓ renal blood flow (significant in renal patients, or patients receiving nephrotoxic drugs
Respiratory adverse effects: hypoventilation: ↑ risk of hypercapnia + resp. acidosis

210
Q

What is the minimum alveolar concentration

A

The MAC is the lowest alveolar concentration that will produce no response from 50% of the patients exposed to a painful stimulus; thus, indicating the presence of the anesthetic agent.

211
Q

What is the rough guideline for the MAC of an animal

A

ROUGH GUIDELINE:
1 x MAC = light anesthesia,
1.5 x MAC = surgical anesthesia
2 x MAC = deep anesthesia

212
Q

What are the physical and chemical properties of isoflurane

A

high vapor pressure, requiring a precision vaporizer

low blood-gas solubility coefficient (1.46)
= rapid induction and recovery
anesthetist will see response to changes in anesthetic depth within 1 to 2 minutes of adjusting level
Ok then for mask or chamber induction (induce rapid induction) (but irritating and smelly!)

MAC is higher (1.3% to 1.63%) than the older inhalant thus requiring higher levels of anesthetic (1.5 - 2.5% for maintenance) (lower potency)

Low rubber solubility (no absorption of iso through the rubber) so decreased waste gas potential

Stable at room temperature

213
Q

What are the effects and adverse effects of isoflurane

A

~~Little effects on HR, does not sensitive heart muscle to epinephrine-induced arrhythmias
~~depresses respiration (greater than halothane but less than methoxyflurane)
~~eliminated through lungs once vap turned off
~~low fat solubility, so little retention in fat, little hepatic metabolism, and little renal excretion of the metabolites occurs (preferred anesthetic for animals with compromised hepatic or renal function, including neonates and geriatrics)
induce good muscle relaxation
~~no post-operative analgesia so post-operative analgesics is advisable
~~Irritants to the respiratory tract