Final Flashcards

1
Q

Waste anesthetic gas includes what vapours

A

Includes all anesthetic vapors……
breathed out by a patient (in recovery)
that escape (leak) from the anesthetic machine
during filling or emptying of anesthetic vaporizers
due to accidental spill of liquid anesthetic.

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2
Q

what unit are waste gas concentrations expressed in

A

ppm

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3
Q

33ppm = level at which average person can smell the odor of halothane which is how many times the recommended max concentration

A

= 15X the recommended max concentration!

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4
Q

What are the short term effects of breathing in waste anesthetic gasses

A

direct effect on brain neurons causing fatigue, headache, drowsiness, nausea, depression and irritability
if occur frequently, may be indicator of excessive waste gas levels with a potential for long-term toxicity effects

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5
Q

What are the long term effects of breathing in waste anesthetic gasses

A

Long-term inhalation of waste gas may be associated with several health problems
Mechanism? Not fully understood. Probably due to toxic metabolites produced by the breakdown if anesthetic gases within the liver and their subsequent excretion by the kidney
The more an anesthetic agent is retained by the body and then metabolized (versus those quickly eliminated through the lungs), the more likelihood toxic metabolites will be produced.

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6
Q

How do you assess risk for waste anesthetic gas exposure

A

It is difficult to determine a clear-cut assessment of risk because many studies are contradictory within themselves or across studies
It is not established in the majority of studies that the waste anesthetic gases are the causative factor in some of the increased health risks
Many studies did not measure the level of waste gas present which makes interpretation of the validity of the study difficult
In general, avoid exposure to high levels of waste anesthetic gas and reduce exposure as much as possible

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7
Q

What does waste anesthetic gas levels depend on

A
Iso levels vary between 1 to 20ppm (if presence of scavengers)
Highest level immediate to anesthetic machines but depends on: 
Duration of anesthesia
Flow rate of carrier gas
Anesthetic maintenance
Use of an effective scavenging system
Anesthetic techniques used
Room ventilation
Anesthetic spills
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8
Q

How do you reduce exposure to waste anesthetic gas

A

Use of a scavenging system
equipment leak testing
anesthetic techniques and procedures

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9
Q

What is the definition of a scavenging system

A

tubing attached to the anesthetic pop-off valve (or in case of a non-rebreathing system, to the outlet port or tail of the reservoir bag)

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10
Q

What is the function of a scavenging system

A

to collect waste gas from the machine and conduct it to a disposal point outside the building

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11
Q

what is the employers responsibility involving a scavenging system

A

install adequate engineering controls to ensure that occupational exposure to any chemical never exceeds the permissible exposure limit

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12
Q

what are the two types of scavenging system

A

active system

passive system

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13
Q

What is the active scavenging system

A
Active system (fig. 13.2 p.357)  uses suction created by vacuum pump or fan to draw gas into the scavenger
most efficient system 
but more expensive
more maintenance
..and must turn on system each day!!
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14
Q

What is the passive scavenging system

A

Passive system (fig. 13.1 p. 357) uses gravity and positive pressure of gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger
most commonly, passive systems discharge through a hole in the wall
suitable for rooms adjacent to the exterior of the building
distance to the outlet should be less than 20 feet

Another type of passive system: may place end of transfer hose adjacent to room ventilation exhaust or nonrecirculating air conditioning system.
waste gas should be totally confined within scavenger hose until discharge and must not be recirculated within the building
transfer hose may not be more than 10 feet in length

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15
Q

What is an activated charcoal canister and filter mask used for

A

Activated charcoal canister: system used of no scavenging into the room
Activated charcoal filter mask: for personnel at special risk

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16
Q

What is the negative pressure system

A

Negative pressure: if using an active scavenging system, you should prevent negative pressure (vacuum) from the scavenger from being excessively applied to the breathing circuit,
particularly if machine is not equipped with a negative pressure relief valve
If occurs, reservoir bag will collapse!!
ensure that reservoir bag is at least partially inflated with air at all times (if no neg. P relief valve present)

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17
Q

What is the disadvantage to using a scavenging system

A

Potential for blockage of the entry of waste gas into the system which is analogous to a closed pop-off valve

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18
Q

Why is equipment leak testing so important

A

Leakage is a significant source of operating room pollution and is not reduced by scavenging

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19
Q

Where can leakage occur from

A

Leakage may occur from any part of the machine in which N2O or anesthetic is present including:

Connections for N2O lines
rings, washers, seals etc.
Connections between flowmeter and vaporizer
Unidirectional valves
CO2 absorber canisters
Holes in the reservoir bags/ hoses
Pop-off valve and scavenger is not airtight
Connection sites of the hoses, reservoir bag or endotracheal tube
Vaporizer cap not replaced after the filling

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20
Q

What is a high pressure leak test

A

High pressure tests for N2O or O2 leakage arising between the tanks and the flowmeter (to do only if use N2O)

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21
Q

What is a low pressure leak test

A

Low pressure tests for escape of anesthetic gas from the anesthetic machine
To do every day!

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22
Q

Why are good anesthetic techniques so important

A

Faulty work practices were found to account for 94% to 99% of waste anesthetic gas released in scavenged operating rooms in one survey of human hospitals

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23
Q

How many air changes per hour are needed

A

at least 15.

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24
Q

how often should anesthetic machines be serviced

A

1/2x per year

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25
Q

How can you monitor waste gas levels

A
If required, done by an occupational hygienist with samples collected from multiple areas of the hospital and analyzed by infrared spectrometer at a cost of $250 - $700.
Detector badges (passive dosimeters) or tubes may also be worn or placed in a specific area that are specific to a single chemical or to multiple chemicals.  Results are given as a time-weighted average at $50 to $70 per badge.
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26
Q

What is the fire and safety precaution you have to take with compressed gas cylinders

A

Oxygen and N2O are not flammable but both support combustion and cause fuels to burn more readily. No sources of ignition should be in same room

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27
Q

describe use and storage of compressed gas cylinders

A

Ideally, wear protective goggles when connecting a gas cylinder to an anesthetic machine, and/or keep your head and face away from the valve outlet
Always turn the valve slowly to the full open position
If a cylinder leak occurs, never use your hand to try to stop the leak!!!
Sudden release of gas from cylinder (e.g. damage or regulator detaches) may cause the tank to become a rocket like projectile!!!
Thus, cylinders should always be upright and chained or belted to a wall etc.
Valve caps should be used on large cylinders that are not connected to gas line (to protect the valve from damage
They should also be out of emergency exits or heavy traffic areas
Use a handcart to move a cylinder to another location
Keep in order (first in, first out) and clearly labeled as to type and status
Use tear-off labels system

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28
Q

what are potential accidental methods of exposure

A

skin exposure, eye splash, oral ingestion of injectable drugs or inhalation agents, oral ingestion
Most concerns drugs are opiods used for restraint and capture of wildlife (10000X the potency of morphine!)

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29
Q

Why do we do paediatric spay and neuter

A

advantages for shelters
benefits for pet owner
advantages for breeders
faster/easier for vets

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30
Q

what are the advantages for shelters with paediatric spay and neuter

A

Tool for controlling pet overpopulation.

decrease return rate, decrease euthanasia

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31
Q

what are the benefits for owners with paediatric spay and neuter

A

more commitment, more socialized pets, better health care and persistent juvenile behaviour

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32
Q

what are the advantages for the breeders with paediatric spay and neutering

A

it is a real non breeding contract.

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33
Q

what are the advantages for vets with paediatric spay and neuters

A

faster, easier, less stress to the vet and to the animal, less expensive.

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34
Q

What are the medical advantages to doing paediatric spay and neuters

A

:decreased risk of pyometra, mammary neoplasia, behavioural changes, testicular neoplasia, perineal neoplasia, hernia.
:shorter surgery time
:shorter anesthesia episode
:shorter anesthetic recovery and healing

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35
Q

Does paediatric spay/neuter result in stunted growth

A

No, false.

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36
Q

Does paediatric spay/neuter result in obesity

A

No, obesity is multifactorial.

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37
Q

Does paediatric spay/neuter result in lethargy/inactivity

A

No, animals are naturally active. The dominant behaviour is unaffected.

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38
Q

Does paediatric spay/neuter result in reduced vaccine response

A

False.

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39
Q

How does paediatric spay/neuter affect the secondary sex characteristics

A

infantile vulva is more prone to medical problems, infantile prepuce and penis are present with prepubertal neutering.

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40
Q

Is estrogen linked to incontinence in cats

A

yes, it is estrogen responsive and easily treatable

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41
Q

what age is considered a neonate

A

birth to 2 weeks

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42
Q

what age is considered an infat

A

2-6 weeks

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43
Q

what age is considered pediatric

A

6-12 weeks avg. (8-16 wk)

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44
Q

what are some general characteristics about pediatrics

A

hypoAlb
increased permiability of blood brain barrier
low % body fat

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45
Q

What are the effects of anesthesia for neonates

A

makes them more sensitive to standard drug dosage

decrease tolerance to fluid load

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46
Q

what are the good strategies for dealing with neonates

A

decrease drug dosage

dont overhydrate

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47
Q

Describe neonates immature thermoregulatory system

A

large body surface area compared to body mass - leads to heat loss
have small fat reserve
decreased shivering reflex

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48
Q

what are the effects of anesthesia on neonates thermoregulatory system

A
hypothermia = delayed recovery
hypothermia = increased O2 consumption
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49
Q

what are the thermoregulatory strategies to employ with neonates

A

keep them warm

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50
Q

describe neonates renal-urinary system

A

immature

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51
Q

what are the effects of anesthesia on neonates renal-urinary system

A

prolonged recovery time

decreased tolerance to fluid load

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52
Q

describe a neonates hepatic system

A

immature

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53
Q

what are the effects of anesthesia on neonates hepatic system

A

prolonged recovery time

**reduce drug dosage, or avoid drugs metabolized by the liver

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54
Q

describe a neonates respiratory system

A

high metabolic rate
limited pulmonary reserve
pliable rib cage

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55
Q

what are the effects of anesthesia on a neonates respiratory system

A

decreased respiratory reserve

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56
Q

what are the strategies to employ when working with neonates respiratory system

A

O2 and ventilation support

supervise induction

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57
Q

describe a neonates cardiovascular system

A

heart contraction not as efficient

limited cardiac reserve

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58
Q

what are the effects of anesthesia on neonates cardiovascular system

A

decrease cardiac reserve

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59
Q

what are the strategies to employ when working with neonates cardiovascular system

A
IV fluid (monitor closely)
drugs that help contract the heart
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60
Q

What are two pieces of anesthetic equipment suited for pediatrics

A

temperature control device

pediatric bain system could be used

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61
Q

do we fast paediatrics?

A

no (max 2-4hr) due to risk of hypoglycaemia

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62
Q

What is part of the preanesthetic preparation for pediatriacs

A
weight
gpe
blood test
\+/- vaccines/deworm
\+/- pre-oxygenate
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63
Q

when does the fear imprint stage occur

A

at 7-8 weeks of age, reaction to painful stimulus is marked.

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64
Q

what is a necessary precaution to take when dealing with the fear imprint stage

A

smooth, gentle induction into anesthesia in mandatory or catecholamines are released that increase the liklihood of dysrhythmias.

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65
Q

What is the max fluid rate for pediatrics

A

3ml/kg/hour

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66
Q

why do we give pediatrics fluid

A

adapt poorly to hypovolemia

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67
Q

What do you need to do to ensure the patients stay warm

A
decrease contact with cold surface
minimal shaving
use warm pre-op solution
use warm fluid
use warming device
limit body cavity exposure
decrease surgery time
use reversal agent.
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68
Q

What can you premedicate paediatrics with

A

opiods
acepromazine
alpha-2-agonist

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69
Q

what drug do you use to induce pediatrics

A

ketval or propofol

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70
Q

what analgesia do you give pediatrics

A

nsaid

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71
Q

describe recovery period for pediatrics

A
risky
preventable
continue fluid + active warming
monitor glucose
feed immediately upon anesthetic recovery
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72
Q

What is assisted ventilation

A

Assisted ventilation: anesthetist ensures that an increased volume of air is delivered to the patient…
◦ although the patient initiates each inspiration

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73
Q

what is controlled ventilation

A

 Controlled ventilation: anesthetist forcefully delivers all of the air that is required by the patient…
◦ and the patient does not make any spontaneous respiratory efforts.

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74
Q

how do you administer controlled ventilation

A

any method by which anesthetist assists or controls the delivery of O2 + anesthetic gas to the patient’s lung

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75
Q

what is the goal of controlled ventilation

A

GOAL: ensure that patient receives adequate O2 and is able to exhale adequate amounts of CO2

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76
Q

describe ventilation when awake

A

Inhalation is initiated by the respiratory center (RC) of the brain
 triggered by increasing levels of CO2 in arterial blood.
 Above 40mmHg of CO2, RC initiate inspiration by:
 stimulating intercostal muscles and diaphragm to move…
 which results in expansion of the chest.
 This create a negative P in the chest, pulling air into the lungs as they expand
 When the lungs are adequately expanded….
 …nerve impulses feed back to the RC to stop expansion.
 Passive phase can begin as the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax.
 Normally, expiration lasts twice as long as inspiration

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77
Q

Why is ventilation in the anesthetized animal different

A

Tranquilizers and GA  the responsiveness of the RC in the brain to CO2.
◦ Thus, inspiration does not occur as often despite significant elevations in CO2
Tranquilizers and GA relax the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm
◦ resulting in a decreased Tv
◦ With decreased RR and TV, Respiratory minute volume is decreased .

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78
Q

what are 3 potential problems with ventilation in the anesthetized animal

A

Hypercarbia 
Hypoxemia 
Atelectasis

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79
Q

what is hypercarbia

A

Hypercarbia:
◦ CO2 is not eliminated as rapidly (so PaCO2 increase)
◦ CO2 + H2O molecules in blood = HCO3 ˉ + H+
◦ Too much H+ = blood ph decrease
◦ Blood pH is decrease to as low as 7.2 relative to normal (7.38 to 7.42) = respiratory acidosis

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80
Q

how do you overcome hypercarbia

A

may have to assist or control ventilation

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81
Q

What is hypoxemia and how is it overcome

A

Hypoxemia: PaO2 may be  if breathing room air as a result of  respiratory minute volume
 This is overcome by 100% O2 supply

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82
Q

What is atelectasis and how do you overcome it

A

may occur due to  Tv
 How to overcome?
◦ May have to assist or control ventilation

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83
Q

which patients are more at risk

A
Procedures that last greater than 30-60 minutes
 Obeses patients
 Preexisting lung disease
  Recent head trama
 Species differences
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84
Q

what are the two types of controlled ventilation

A

manual (bagging)

mechanical ventilation

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85
Q

How do you manually bag

A

◦ Periodic; 1-2 breaths ev. 2-5 minutes

◦ Intermittent mandatory: bagging throughout anesthetic period

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86
Q

How do you do mechanical ventilation

A

use a ventilator

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87
Q

what are the risks of controlled ventilation

A

Rupture alveoli if overinflated.
 CO may be decreased  with PPV throughout entire respiratory cycle
 Excessive ventilation rate may result in excessive exhalation of CO2, resulting in a respiratory alkalosis
CONCLUSION: needs close anesthetic monitoring to ensure anesthetic depth and vital signs are maintained

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88
Q

what is laser surgery

A

 L.A.S.E.R =
◦ Light amplification stimulated
emission radiation

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89
Q

What are the types of lasers in vet medicine

A

Types in med.vet:

◦ CO2 laser, diode laser in vet med

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90
Q

How does the laser work in laser surgery

A

How it works? Creates light  absorbed  transmitted into heat within tissue
 Different T causes different changes

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91
Q

what happens at 42-45*c with the laser

A

42-45C: destroys blood vessels = necrosis

92
Q

What happens at 50-100*c with the laser

A

50-100C: denature Pt, coagulation = irreversible

tissue damage

93
Q

If you get too much heat with the laser you get a carbon deposit called:

A

charring

94
Q

what are the advantages to laser surgery

A
rapid healing
 cauterize (less bleeding)
 sterilize (less risk of post-op infection)
 less need for suturing
 less pain
 less swelling, faster sx time
95
Q

what are the disadvantages to laser surgery

A

it costs more than 50,000. add in all the time spent talking to people about it.

96
Q

what are the hazards with laser use

A

Eye Hazards: Laser light and scaterred  Wear protective glasses: patient and
personnel
 Skin Hazards
 Wear gloves, gowns
 Fire Hazards:Sx drapes, anesthetic
agents, O2, fur, alcohol products
 With CO2 laser: put wet sponges around sx area: absorb the Co2
 Smoke plume Hazards
 Contain toxic and carcinogenic
chemicals, bacterial, viral particle  Must have an evacuator

97
Q

what is a laparoscopy

A

Miminal invasive abdominal procedure
 Allows you to visualize the inside of the abdominal cavity.
A type of endoscope is placed through a small midline incision into the abdominal wall

98
Q

what is the indication for using laparoscopy

A

Perform specific procedures within the abdominal cavity

◦ Perform biopsy

99
Q

what do you require doing when you’re going to do a laparoscopy

A

require insufflation with co2 so that you can look around the abdominal area

100
Q

what are the advantages to laparoscopy

A
Improved patient
recovery
 Smaller sx incision
  post-op morbidity
  post op pain
  hospitalization
101
Q

what is an endoscopy

A

Noninvasiave or minimally invasive procedure
 Use to visualize internal body structures using optical instruments
 Body is entered through:
 an orifice (mouth, anus)
 Or small incision (laparoscopy, arthroscopy)

102
Q

what are the endoscopy procedures

A
Cystocopy
 GI endoscopy
 Esophagoscopy  Gastrocopy
 Colonoscopy
 Rhinoscopy
 Tracheobronchoscopy
 They have limitations because may not obtain diagnosis, but if they do, saves on surgical incisions and healing....
103
Q

what are the preoperative duties of the surgical tech

A

+/- GPE, Dx wu, setting up and prepare the OR, administrating premed, induction, ET intubation, maintenance, hair clipping, prepping (surgical scrub)

104
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of the surgical tech

A

“Circulating nurse” (non-sterile)

 Anesthetic monitoring / flush urinary catheter, abdomen..etc  “Scrub nurse” (sterile)

105
Q

what are the postoperative responsibilities of the surgical tech

A

Post-op monitoring, patient care, tx, cleaning/sterilization of instruments, cleaning of the OR

106
Q

what are the characteristics of a competent scrub nurse

A

1) proficient knowledge of:
(a) the surgical procedure
(b) the surgical instruments
(c) aseptic and sterile technique
2) anticipation of the surgeon’s needs

107
Q

what are the responsibilities of the scrub nurse

A

Maintain strict sterile technique!!
 Organize instrument table and
instruments
 Pass instruments and other supplies
 Proper tissue handling, retraction, bone reduction, hemostasis, suture cutting, fluid evacuation, and wound sponging
 Keep tissues moist
 Save, dispose and label collected specimens

108
Q

What are the specific procedures a scrub nurse should know

A
Abdominal procedures
 Canine and feline castration
 Gastro-intestinal tract surgeries
 Cystotomy
 Pharyngostomy tube placement
 Tegumentary surgeries
 Auditory system surgeries
 Ophthalmic procedures
 Minimally invasive procedures
 Biopsy and mass removal
 Orthopedics

109
Q

what are the indications for ovariohysterectomy

A

Sterilization (avoid reproduction)
 Abolition of heat cycle
 Treatment of pyometra
 Adjunctive treatment of mammary tumors  Adjunctive treatment of dystocia
 Stabilized other systemic disease  epilepsy, diabetes
 Treat or prevent urine marking (esp. cats)
 Uterine torsion
 Congenital abnormalities

110
Q

what are the basic preoperative duties of the tech

A

Dorsal recumbency
 Hair clipping: xiphoid process to pubis + 1-2 fingers on either side of nipples
 Basic prepping

111
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of the tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring / respond to surgeon needs
 In regular clinic, a scrub nurse is rarely needed
 May be for mature female, especially if obese
 If so, follow RESPONSABILITIES OF SCRUB NURSE

112
Q

what are the postoperative responsibilities of the tech

A

Post-op care: post-op monitoring, patient comfort, cleaning of wound, pain assessment, discharge

113
Q

describe the procedure for ovaryhysterectomy

A

Ventral midline incision continued through the linea alba.
 Uterine horn is brought up and out of incision…
…exposing the ovary and ovarian pedicle.
 This is then clamped, ligated (absorbable suture) and
transected
 Ligatures are tied into the clamped area.
 The opposite horn is treated the same way
Then both horns are pulled cranially and then caudally to exposed the uterine body which is also clamped, ligated and transected proximal to the cervix.
Sometimes, uterine blood vessels are ligated separately from the body.
Closure is usually 2 or 3 layer (may go to 4)
 Linea alba
 Absorbable suture PDS , Monocryl
 Cat: 3-0, Dog: 2-0, 0
 Simple continuous, or simple interrupted
 +/- SQ (absorbable)
 +/- subcuticular (absorbable)
 Skin
 Nonabsorbable Supramid 3-0
 Absorbable (feral cats, Vanier)  Tissue glue

114
Q

What is the cause of pyometra

A

Start after a dog goes through a heat cycle
usually within about 3-5 wks
 Stimulation of the uterus with abnormal levels of hormones (estrogen and progesterone)
 Cause the lining (endometrium) of the uterus to become thickened (hyperplasia)
 This lower its resitance to 2 bacterial invaders
 Fluid accumulation + bacteria =
 Inflammation then infection develops in
the uterus
 As the infection progresses, the uterus fills with pus

115
Q

What is the treatment for pyometra

A

OVH,

stabilize first with IV fluid, antibiotics

116
Q

what is the increased anesthetic risk for animals with pyometra

A

rupture of the uterus, peritonitis, abcess, sepsis, DIC

117
Q

what is the basic preoperative duty of the tech

A

Like for C-section, put dorsal recumbency at the last minute

 Hair clipping: same as OVH but usually larger

118
Q

what is the intraoperative duties of the tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring / respond to surgeon needs
 In regular clinic, a scrub nurse is rarely needed
 May be for mature large breed female, especially if obese
 If so, follow RESPONSABILITIES OF SCRUB NURSE

119
Q

what are the other main responsibilities of the tech

A

Basic post-op care + IV fluid maintenance / tx (ATB) / pain management

120
Q

What is C-section

A

delivery of a fetus or fetuses by incision through the

abdominal wall and uterus

121
Q

what are the preoperative duties of the tech

A

Know the strategies to decrease anesthetic risk

Anesthetic drugs, patient positioning…etc

122
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of the tech

A

Circulating nurse OR scrub nurse
 Follow RESPONSABILITIES of the scrub nurse
 Care to prevent leakage of uterus fluid into abdomen

123
Q

what are the 3 ways to do a c-section

A

w/o OVH
 C-section then OVH
 EN BLOC

124
Q

what is the procedure for c-section

A

Ventral midline incision continued through the linea alba
 Exteriorization of gravid uterus
Each fetus are gently squeezed toward the hysterotomy incision
Removal of fetus/
placentas from uterus
 OVH performed or suturing of the uterus

125
Q

What materials are needed for neonatal care after a c-section

A

Warm, dry area prepared before surgery (eg. basket with heating devices. towels)

126
Q

why would you need clean warm towels

A

to clean them off and warm them up and rub them vigorously

127
Q

why do you need suture material and clean scissors

A

to suture their umbilical cord

128
Q

why do you need a suction bulb

A

to remove fluid from their mouth, pharynx and nose

129
Q

what drugs do you need to have prepared

A

epinepherine
doxapram
naloxone

130
Q

how many cm do you leave on the umbilical cord

A

1 cm

131
Q

why do you need naloxone for the neonate

A

if you used opiods to pre-medicate the mom

132
Q

what do you do if there is still a respiratory issue after administering doxapram

A

do tactile stimulation, o2 by mask.

133
Q

why do we do feline castration

A

Sterilization to prevent reproduction
 Prevention: roaming, aggressive behavior, fighting, urine spraying/marking, scrotal neoplasia/abcess/infection/trauma / endocrine abnormalities (eg. stud tail)

134
Q

what are the preoperative duties of a tech for feline castration

A

Always Ck if really a male + IF CRYPTORCHID!
 Dorsal or lateral recumbency, legs tied up cranially
 Hair clipping or plucked hair scrotal area
 Basic prepping

135
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of a tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring
 No need of a scrub nurse
 Some vets allow tech to perform feline castration = “acte délégué” ? No.

136
Q

what is the procedure for castration

A

 Scrotal incision
 Incision of parietal vaginal tunic
 Ductus deferens and the spermatic vessels are separated and used to tie square knots.

137
Q

what is the indication for canine castration

A

Tx of prostatic disease, perineal hernia

138
Q

what are the basic preoperative duties for a tech

A

 CK IF CRYPTORCHID!
 Dorsal recumbency
 Hair clipping: tip of the prepuce to just above the scrotum, inguinal areas
 Basic prepping

139
Q

what are the intraoperative duties for a tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring

 May need to pass on electrocautery (provide appropriate hemostasis /mature male dog)

140
Q

what is the closed technique to canine castration

A

vas deferens And entire spermatic cord is

ligated with a double or triple clamp technique  Usually done on small dog or

141
Q

what is the open technique for canine castration

A

exposing the spermatic vessels and spermatic cord
 are ligated with a double or triple clamp technique
 followed by ligature of the outer tunic
 Usually done on large dog or > 7 kg`

142
Q

what are the indications for doing an abdominal exploratory surgery

A

Diagnostic (eg. biopsy, looking for a
mass, FB…etc)
 Curative purposes: acute abdomen (trauma, bleeding, bladder rupture..)

143
Q

what are the special instruments used in an abdominal exploratory surgery

A

balfour abdominal retractor
gelpi
self retaining retractors

144
Q

what is the preoperative duties of the tech for a laparotomy

A

May involved extensive dx tests, stabilizing critical patients
 Preholding food ideally but frequently an emergency
 Dorsal recumbency
 Extensive and adequate hair clipping : ABOVE xiphoid process to the pubis
 Thorough surgical scrub

145
Q

What are the intraoperative duties of a tech

A

If circulating nurse : anesthetic monitoring

 If scrub nurse: follow basic RESPONSABILITIES of the scrub nurse + additional ones (next slide)

146
Q

What are the additional responsibilities of a scrub nurse in a laparotomy

A

The g.i. tract is not sterile so contamination is a real possibility!!
Surgeons and technicians assisting need to minimize contamination by:
Packing off area (keep tissues moist with sterile saline) Rotate tissues properly
Irrigate abdomen with prewarmed saline +/- antibiotics
 Switch packs when appropriate
 Tissue can be very fragile and must be handled gently
 Often very ill patient therefore close monitoring of patient is essential

147
Q

What are the indications of doing a gastrotomy

A

Removal of FB
 Gastric biopsy
 Neoplasia removal

148
Q

What is the diagnosis testing for a gastrotomy

A

standard rads, +/- barium study, +/- US, +/- endoscopy

149
Q

What is the indication for an enterotomy

A

Removal of FB

 Intestinal biopsy  Neoplasia removal

150
Q

What is the diagnosis testing for an enterotomy

A

 standard rads, bw, +/- barium study, +/- US, +/- endoscopy

151
Q

What is the special instrument used for enterotomy

A

doyen clamps

152
Q

what is the function of the

A

to clamp the intestines on either side of the incision site

153
Q

what is the indication for doing an intestinal resection and anastamosis

A

removal of dead or diseased
bowel
 foreign bodies, neoplasia, intussusception, necrosis, and ischemia

154
Q

What is dilatation:

A

Swelling

155
Q

What is volvulus

A

rotating on its axis

156
Q

what is GDV

A

GDV: swelling and rotation of stomach in its mesenteric axis

157
Q

what are the preoperative duties for gastric dilatation volvulus

A

Decompress the stomach (orogastric intubation)
 Fluid of shock (2 IV catheters often necessary!)
 Dorsal recumbency
 Extensive and adequate hair clipping : ABOVE xiphoid process to the pubis
 Thorough surgical scrub

158
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of the tech

A

If circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring
 Follow basic RESPONSABILITIES of the scrub
nurse

159
Q

what is part of basic post-op care for GDV

A

Basic post-op care + :correct fluid and electrolytes imbalance, control V+, arrhythmia monitoring, pain management

160
Q

what is GDV usually caused by

A

deep chested breeds, eating and then exercising without waiting

161
Q

how do you diagnose gdv

A

rads

162
Q

what is involved with the surgery for gdv

A

Repositioning of the stomach

 +/- partial gastrectomy (devitalized tissue)  gastropexy

163
Q

what are the indications for doing a cystotomy

A

Remove cystic calculi
 Neoplasia
 Congenital abnormalities

164
Q

what are the special instruments used in a cystotomy

A

bladder spoon, suction pump

165
Q

what is the technician role during a cystotomy

A

care to avoid the leakage of urine into the abdomen

166
Q

what is pharyngostomy tube placement also referred to as

A

feeding tube placement

167
Q

what is the definition of feeding tube placement

A

Opening of the pharynx  Often via esophagostomy

168
Q

what is the indication for feeding tube placement

A

Anorexia (eg. hepatic lipidosis)

  caloric intact (trauma patients)  Jaw trauma

169
Q

what are the basic preoperative duties of the tech

A

Prepare required materials:
 blade #10, scalpel handle, Orange urinary catheter 10-12F, curved hemostatic forcep (Crile, Kelly, Rochester Carmalt), plastic teat canula, PRN, bandage kit
Hair clipping: left neck region
 Basic prepping

170
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of a tech

A

Circulating nurse
 Anesthetic monitoting
 Hold hemostatic forcep into the mouth
 Post- op rads (lateral view of neck) / Neck bandage

171
Q

what is the post-op care for feeding tube placement

A

: bandage care/wound site, tube feeding, tube medications, discharge

172
Q

what causes an abscess

A

bite wound

 but may be due to anything resulting in deposition of an infectious agent within the body

173
Q

what is the treatment for an abscess

A

Medical: +/- sedation or GA, stab and drain abscess, e-colar, ATB PO or Convenia inj
Surgical (next slide), e-colar, ATB PO or Convenia inj

174
Q

what are the preoperative duties for a tech

A

Prepare materials: hair clipper, prep solutions
 If minor abscess: scalpel handle, blade #11, bowl, large cc syringe catheter-tip, warm saline or chlorexidine 0.02%, +/- iodine, e-collar
 If more extensive: the above + general sx pack or wound pack, Drain (Penrose drain), suture materials

175
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of a tech

A

 Circulating nurse
 Anesthetic monitoring if GA / assist the vet
 +/- Stab the abscess, drain, flush

176
Q

what is the procedure for a minor abscess

A

Area is clipped and prepped
 Stab the abscess, drain and flush with
with the chosen soln
 Discharge with e-collar, ATB, +/- analgesia

177
Q

what is the procedure for a major abscess

A

If extensive, and/ or a lot of empty spaces, may required drain
 Done by vet

178
Q

what is a laceration

A

a sliced opening which varies in length, may be smooth or jagged, clean or contaminated, fresh or old.

179
Q

what is the definition of declaw

A

Surgical removal of the entire nail and third phalanx of the paws

180
Q

what are the indications for declawing

A

Some owners wants their cats to be declawed without valid reason
Prevent/eliminate scratching

181
Q

what are the alternatives for declawing

A

Surgical: tenectomy

Non-surgical: refer to N &Radiology

182
Q

What are the basic preoperative duties when doing a declaw

A

Materials and prepping: depend of the technique used (next slide)
 Lateral recumbency
 Three-Point nerve bloc (refer to Lecture + textbook on Special Techniques)

183
Q

what are the basic intraoperative duties for a tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring

184
Q

what is an aural hematoma

A

Formation of an hematoma within the auricular cartilage on the concave surface of the ear

185
Q

what is the cause of an aural hematoma

A

Fx of ear pinna cartilage, usually from violent head shacking or scratching
 Ear otitis, FB, Atopy, Ear mites

186
Q

what are the basic preoperative duties with an aural hematoma

A

Materials: hair clipper, prep soln, bowl, flush materials, suture materials, +/- piece of x-ray film. E-collar
 Lateral recumbency (eg. right ear = left lat. Recumbency)
 Shave and prep pinna: both concave and convex side

187
Q

what are the intraoperative duties of a tech

A

Circulating nurse: anesthetic monitoring

 Assist vet by holding pinna and required materials

188
Q

what is the post op care required

A

Basic post-op care +: +/- post-op bandage, e-collar placement

189
Q

what is a lateral ear canal resection

A

Resection of the lateral ear canal involves lateralization of
the horizontal ear canal.

190
Q

what are the indications for a lateral ear canal resection

A

Chronic ear otitis / easier removal of polyp

 Allow drainage and ventilation of ear canal reducing risk of infection

191
Q

what are the reasons that anesthetic problems and emergencies occur

A

human error
equipment failure
adverse effects of anesthetic gas
patient variation factors

192
Q

what happens if f excess CO2 is not removed, patient will develop

A

hypercapnia

193
Q

what are the clinical signs of hypercapnia

A

increase RR
increase HR
dysrhythmia

194
Q

what do you do if o2 meter is turned off or reads zero

A

disconnect the patient, always assume theres 0 o2

195
Q

How do you avoid an empty o2 tank

A

extremely serious but easily prevented mistake
check O2 pressure and flowmeter
if O2 flowmeter reads zero, always assume there is no O2 going to the patient
occasionally, O2 flowmeter indicates O2 flow but tank pressure reads zero; this is an indication the tank is virtually empty and needs changing

196
Q

how do you avoid missassembly of the anesthetic machine

A

be familiar with every connection, etc. on the machine
trace these connections every time a connection or new patient is added to the machine
trace the connections from the O2 tank to the ET tube and then to the scavenger

197
Q

how do you prevent endotracheal tube problems

A

blockages due to twisting, kinking of tube or accumulations of material
if complete blockage, signs of dyspnea occur leading to arrest
check by trying to bag patient and observing for chest movements
if blocked, no movement of chest and resistance to air passage
disconnect animal and feel for air coming out of tube
if none present, but dyspnea is obvious, remove tube and place a mask or second ET tube

198
Q

what are the clinical signs of respiratory difficulty

A

exaggerated breathing pattern, lack of movement in rebreathing bag

199
Q

what are some vaporizer problems that are possible

A

potential disaster is wrong anesthetic put into vaporizer

rarely, dial may stick in which case patient should be transferred to another machine

200
Q

what are some possible pop off valve problems

A

closed valve leads to rapidly rising pressure
results in respiratory difficulty, decreased venous return, decreased CO with rapid drop in BP, followed by death quickly

201
Q

how do you prevent pop off valve problems

A

monitor rebreathing bag, maintain at no more than 2/3 full

202
Q

what are the adverse effects of anesthetic agents

A

all anesthetic agents have potentially harmful side effects
one should minimize this potential by:
choosing an anesthetic protocol based on the needs of the patient
be familiar with the adverse side effects and contraindications associated with each agent used
balanced anesthesia using multiple drugs is safer than single drug use

203
Q

what is the effect of age on perioperative morbidity (step before dying) and mortality related to

A

reduced functional physiological reserve capacity of various organ systems and
poor response to stress

204
Q

what is a geriatric patient

A

an animal who has reached 75% of his life expectancy

205
Q

what are the components of increased anesthetic risk with geriatrics

A

Increased anesthetic risk associated with geriatric dogs/cats is multifactorial and involves the following: 2
Age-related pathophysiological changes to organ function that are not necessarily related to a specific disease(s)
Presence of concurrent disease processes which tend to emerge in older patients (eg. mitral valve insufficiency, DM, cancer, CRF)

206
Q

Examples of key physiological changes associated with aging that may impact anesthetic management of geriatric patients:

A

CV system: ↓ arterial + myocardial compliance, ↓ maximal HR, ↓CO
Body composition: ↓ skeletal muscle mass
Respiratory system: ↓ gas exchange efficiency, ↓ lung elasticity…etc
Renal/hepatic systems: ↓ drug clearance, ↓ GFR, ↓ capacity to handle water and Na loads (↓ [urine] ability), ↓ perfusion and organ blood flow

207
Q

Strategies used to decrease risk in geriatric anesthesia

A

Compete history and GPE is essential
preoperative work up should be recommended to clients: CBC, biochemistry profil, UA, chest rads, EKG
If possible, correct or stabilize pre-existing abnormalities prior anesthesia
Unrecognized or untreated abnormalities will almost always be exacerbated by anesthesia, regardless of the drug protocol used!

208
Q

What are the general drug guidelines to follow with geriatric patients

A

Allow longer time for response to drugs (eg. SC injection : 30 minutes)
Doses may be reduced by ½ to 1/3 of normal
Recovery may be slower due to decreased ability to excrete drugs

209
Q

what are the general preanesthetic drug guidelines

A

Anticholinergics: not required in all patients. May induce reflex tachycardia which is not well-tolerated in geriatric patients
Instead, monitor HR closely, and treat bradycardia if needed
Extreme of HR (bradycardia or tachycardia) should be avoided

210
Q

why do you Avoid potent sedatives such as medetomidine, ace in geriatrics

A

causes cardiovascular depression

211
Q

what opioid do you give for mild, moderate pain

A

butorphanol

212
Q

what opioid do you give for moderate to severe pain

A

hydromorphone

213
Q

what benzodiazepine do you combine with opioids for geriatrics

A

midazolam

214
Q

why do we combine opioids with benzodiazepines

A

calm stressed or anxious geriatric cats/dogs

This combination may not produce “heavy sedation” but it will minimize anxiety without causing significant CP depression

215
Q

what is necessary with pre oxygenation for geriatrics

A

Pre-oxygenation: (as in neonates, debilitated, brachycephalic animals) with a face mask 5 minutes prior to induction is optimal

216
Q

why do we use propofol in geriatrics

A

smooth induction, recovery is rapid and quickly eliminated from body. it is a dose-dependent CV depression so must be titrated and carefully to effect in these patients
If only opiod as pre-medication, may give IV bolus of benzodiazepine immediately prior a decreased dose of propofol (minimize CP depression)

217
Q

what do you do when you use ketamine/valium for induction

A

Ketamine-diazepam or ketamine-midazolam
Always titrated to effect
Should use a reduced dose (

218
Q

why is vigilant cardiopulmonary monitoring mandatory in anesthetized patients

A

Vigilant CP monitoring is mandatory in all anesthetized patients but even more critical for geriatrics. because of limited organ reserve to respond to depressant effects of the anesthetic agents!

219
Q

why do we give iv fluids to geriatrics

A

Hypovolemia not well tolerated = will result in hypotension and compromise tissue perfusion (so fluids counteract renal disease)
But remember, IV fluids must be given carefully because geriatric patients may have difficulty excreting salt and/or water load (esp. with compromised kidneys), so at risk for being over hydrated.
Normovolemic patients: 10ml/kg/hour and adjusted as needed.

220
Q

why do we add in local anesthesia for geriatrics

A

May incorporate local (eg. dental block), regional anesthetic and analgesic techniques where applicable:
Contribute to balanced anesthesia
↓ dose of inhalants
Improve patient comfort post-op
NSAIDS Ok if patient is hemodynamicallys stable, and has normal GI, renal and Pl function

221
Q

what are the main concerns with brachycephalic dogs

A

Increase anesthetic risk due to anatomic characteristics that can impede air exchange
small nasal openings (stenotic nares)
elongated soft palate
small diameter trachea (hypoplastic trachea)
redundant tissue in pharynx
eversion of laryngeal saccules
anesthetic agents that depress laryngeal muscle tone may cause increased respiratory difficulties, particularly if animal is not intubated

222
Q

what are the strategies employed to decrease risk

A

Successful anesthesia revolves entirely around airway management throughout the pre-anesthetic, anesthetic, and post-anesthetic periods.

223
Q

what are the preanesthetic strategies to reduce risk for brachycephalics

A

Pre-anesthetics: goal: provide enough sedation to calm and minimize anxiety during restraint, handling, while avoiding excessive relaxation which may predispose to airway management

224
Q

what are the special concerns about vagal tone with brachycephalics

A

Vagal tone (parasympathetic tone) is frequently high in these breeds. Stimulation (Et intubation, administration of vagotonic drugs) may lead to bradycardia. So which drug is recommended to decrease vagol tone stimulation? glyco in the pre-medication.

225
Q

what analgesia do you use for brachycephalics

A

Use opiods for painful procedures (despite respiratory depression effect)
Butorphanol: less respiratory depressant that pure agonist
Hydromorphone, morphine for moderate to severe pain: but use low dose

226
Q

what is the goal of giving sedatives for brachycephalics

A

Sedatives: goal: provide adequate sedation without inducing excessive muscle relaxation.
if very calm, not needed (glyco + opiod sufficient)
midly agitated: benzodiazepine (eg. midazolam) + opiods
agitated: low dose of ace + opiod
Avoid α-2 agonists such as medetomidine: cause profound sedation, muscle relaxation, may predispose to upper airway obstruction