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Test questions Flashcards

1
Q

Perioral Paresthesia

A

Numbness or tingling in the mouth, presented in donors- reducing the flow rate is the solution

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2
Q

Nucleic acid testing window period for HIV is how many days

A

9 days

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3
Q

What is the biochemical structure of the H antigen on cells

A

ceramide- glucose- galactose- GLCNAC-GAL-FUC

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4
Q

Amino acid sequence for M antigen

A

ser-ser-thr-thr-gly

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5
Q

Linkage disequilibrium

A

When haplotypes do not occur at expected frequencies, some haploypes are inherited together more frequently then they should be. If you look at HLAA1=15% in population and B8 10%, you would expect the combination of these two together to be 1.5%, however the actual frequency is 7.8%

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6
Q

Recombination

A

genes are closely linked. SAME AS CROSSOVER, rarely occurs, gives birth to new haplotypes. 0.8% between HLA-A and B. 0.5% between HLA-B and HLA-DR

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7
Q

Non disjunction

A

the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during nuclear division, usually resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei.

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8
Q

Why is the diego blood group of anthropological interest

A

Dia is more frequent in those of mongolian ancestry

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9
Q

What is the most common CH/RG phenotype

A

CH/RG 1,2,3,11,12

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10
Q

Which antigen is located on the CR1 protein

A

McCc

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11
Q

CR1 receptors on macrophages recognize what?

A

C3b

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12
Q

IgG subclasses most efficient in activating complement are

A

IgG1 and IgG3

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13
Q

The Fc receptor on phagocytes that has the highest affintiy for binding IgG is:

A

FcR1

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14
Q

Hospital blood banks that collect blood but do not ship across state lines must be:

A

Registered with the FDA, not need to be licensed

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15
Q

Which of the following is not allowed by law on employment application forms

A

Date of birth

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16
Q

90% of the ATP needed by Red blood cells is generated in

A

Embden- Meyerhoff pathway

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17
Q

Prothrombin complex is indicated for treatment of:

A

Severe Christmas Disease

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18
Q

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia is most frequently caused by what antibody?

A

Anti-HPA-1a

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19
Q

Hook effect

A

This is similar to post zone or prozone, when the correct number of antibodies and antigens are present it forms a curve steadily increasing until a point where there is too much antibody or antigen is present, creates a ā€œhookā€ in the graph

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20
Q

Immunogenicity

A

Property of a substance to induce a detectable immune response

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21
Q

Antigenicity

A

structure of an immunogen that ellicits immune response ā€˜antigenic determinantsā€™

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22
Q

X-linked agammaglobinemia

A

immune deficiency, does not generate mature B cells, manifests in complete or near complete lack of antibodies

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23
Q

Immunodiffusion

A

antigen and antibody react in gel to create precipitin band or ring

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24
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis

A

antigens separated through electrophoresis and then reacted against an antibody

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25
Q

Capillary tube precipitation

A

in a tube

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26
Q

Ouchterlony double diffusion

A

on gel precipitating antigens and antibodies to form identity, non identity or partial identity

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27
Q

Avidity

A

measure of the overal strength of binding of an antigen with many antigenic determinants

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28
Q

Antibody affinity

A

K= (AbAg) / (Ab) (Ag)

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29
Q

Seroconversion

A

the ability to detect and antibody that has developed due to immunization or infection

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30
Q

Radioimmunoassay

A

RIA an immunoassay that uses radiolabeled molecules, in a stepwise formation of immune complexes

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31
Q

Which chemical enhances vascular spasms?

A

Serotonin

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32
Q

Embolus

A

A thrombis that is carried in the bloodstream

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33
Q

The structural basis of blood group A and B antigen specificity

A

A single terminal sugar residue

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34
Q

In the immune response to hapten-protein conjugate in order to get anti-hapten antibodies it is essential that:

A

The protein be recognized by helper T cells

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35
Q

Hyperhemolysis what it is and treatment

A

Patient overhemolyzing, not only the transfused cells but also patients own cells, treatment corticosteroids and IVIG

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36
Q

Consequences of CMV in immunocompromised

A

Could have no consequences and show seroconversion, however could also have multi-organ involvement, viremia and death

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37
Q

Intravenous Immunoglobulin

A

is a highly concentrated injection of antibodies pooled from many healthy donors that temporarily changes the way the immune system operates. It works by binding to the antibodies that cause myasthenia gravis and removing them from circulation

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38
Q

One unit of donor RBCs will raise the hgb/hct how much?

A

1 g/dL OR 3%

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39
Q

One unit of random donor platelets will raise the plt count how much?

A

5000-10000 in normal patient

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40
Q

random donor units contain how many platelets

A

5.5 x 10^10

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41
Q

BSA calculation

A

ht (cm) x wt(kg)/3600

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42
Q

RBCs in bag decrease at what percentage?

A

1% per day

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43
Q

Once irradiated how long are RBCs good for?

A

28 days or expiration dates

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44
Q

calculating platelets in WB unit

A

volume of WB (mL) x donor platelet count (typically done per uL, donā€™t forget conversions!

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45
Q

calculating platelet yield

A

number of platelets in PRP (platelet rich plasma from wb)/ #plts in WB = percentage recovery or yield

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46
Q

how will one unit of FFP affect clotting factors in patient

A

raise all clotting factors by about 10%

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47
Q

Most common transfusion related death

A

TRALI

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48
Q

How was weak D initially discovered

A

IAT test

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49
Q

What happens in a trauma situation where an O negative patient receives 2Opos blood and once realized 6oneg units?

A

unlikely to cause delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, due to the fact that six o negative units were given after the inital opos, most likely wonā€™t be any o pos rbcs left once an antibody is formed

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50
Q

LW antigens pregnancy

A

weakened during pregnancy

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51
Q

McLeod syndrome symptoms

A

involuntary movements and seizures

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52
Q

The most common infectious adverse affect of transfusion is what?

A

hepatitis

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53
Q

the amino acid sequence responsible for the M antigen is?

A

ser-ser-thr-thr-gly

54
Q

What is responsible for keeping the bag at pH of 6.2

A

bicarbonate and gas permeable storage bag. Bicarbonate helps prevent unit from becoming acidic due to lactic acid production. Gas permeable storage bag helps to allow CO2 to be released

55
Q

Antigen located on CR1

A

Knops antigens

56
Q

Knops antibodies are neutralized by what

A

sCR1 (soluble CR1) not neutralized by plasma, not enough free floating CR1 in plasma, recombinant soluble sCR1 can be made and neutralize the antibodies

57
Q

Vel antigen prevalence in race

A

high frequency antigen. Vel negative seen in europeans with higher prevalence in Scandinavians (1 in 1700)

58
Q

Vel antibodies

A

AHTR and HDFN, very dangerous, very difficult to match blood for

59
Q

KCAM

A

antigen of the Knops system

60
Q

Knops a negative individuals

A

more common in caucasians, Knops a is a very high frequency antigen

61
Q

Knops antigens

A

It consists of eight antigens: Kna, Knb, McCa, SI1, Yka, McCb, SI2, and SI3. most are common with >90% prevalence. low prevalence= knops b and McCb (0% whites 42% blacks)

62
Q

HTLA like antigens

A

Knops, Chido/Rogers, Dombrock, Cost, JMH

63
Q

JMH gene

A

semaphorin 7A, not associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions

64
Q

COST blood collection

A

Csa- 98% Csb-34%, this used to be associated with Knops blood group. Serologically related to Yka on knops blood group system. not on CR1

65
Q

Er blood collection

A

Era= high incidence >99% Erb= <1%

66
Q

Vel collection

A

Vel and ABTI, both high incidence

67
Q

Anwj

A

receptor for haemophilus influenzae, high incidence, implicated in severe AHTR

68
Q

Lan antigen

A

anti-Lan- severe AHTR, high incidence antigen

69
Q

Ata collection

A

only found in african americans, high incidence

70
Q

Jra blood group

A

mostly found in japan, high incidence not associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions

71
Q

Sda

A

present on other cells besides red blood cells, not typically associated with HDFN, AHTR, high incidence

72
Q

Helgeson phenotype

A

knops null phenotype by serological methods- CR1 is present on red cells.

73
Q

Knops and Plasmodium falciparum

A

some knops phenotypes may offer a degree of resistance to severe malaria, CR1 appears to be involve in rosetting associated with Plasmodium falciparum.

74
Q

RIA

A

radioimmunoassay an immunoassay that uses radio labeled molecules in a stepwise formation of immune complexes

75
Q

CR1 receptors on macrophages recognize

A

C3b

76
Q

The Fc receptor on phagocytes that has the highest affinity for binding IgG is

A

FcR1

77
Q

Hosptial blood banks that collect blood but do not ship across state lines need to be_____ with the FDA:

A

registered (not licensed or accredited)

78
Q

The most common Chido/Rogers phenotype

A

CH/RG: 1,2,3,11,12

79
Q

Which antigen is located on the CR1 protein

A

Knops antigens: Kna, Knb, McCa, Sl1, Yka

80
Q

The Cell that reguates whether or not the immune response will occur is:

A

T cells

81
Q

Which of the following is not allowed by law on employment application forms? Previous employer, Educational background, address, or date of birth

A

Date of Birth

82
Q

The best education objective for a course to teach simple repair of instruments is:

A

To repair 9/10 machine malfunctions

83
Q

An employee who has been employed 4 years failed a proficiency survery, previously the employee has been achieving 100% on all proficiency surverys, you should:

A

Determine the cause of the error, retrain or counsel depending on the cause and document

84
Q

when determining number of units to screen for patient must include into calculation:

A

Blood Group percentage, Rh percentage and any negative antigen types

85
Q

peripheral smear from obstetrical patient of african ethnicity shoes marked target cells and large oblong crystalloid structures within red cells. Patient told in the past that her ā€˜iron was too lowā€™ to donate blood. Patient most likely has:

A

Hb C disease

86
Q

Hemoglobin C disease

A

Hemoglobin C disease is a condition affecting a protein in the blood (hemoglobin) which transports oxygen throughout the body. Symptoms of this condition can include fatigue, weakness, and anemia . The spleen can also become enlarged as a result of this disease. Change from Lysine to glutamic acid at position 6 of B-hemoglobin chain. Shows up with centrally targetted RBCs

87
Q

Smudge cells are indicative of

A

CLL

88
Q

90% of the ATP needed by RBCs is generated in:

A

Embden Meyerhoff Pathway

89
Q

Prothrombin comlex is indicated for the treatment of which of the following: Mild von willebrands Disease, severe hemohilia A without Factor VIII inhibitors, severe hemophilia A with factor VIII inhibitors, severe christmas disease

A

Severe christmas disease (Factor IX)

90
Q

Poor clot formation is indicative of what factor deficiency

A

XIII- Fibrinogen makes the clot, so as long as a clot is formed it shouldnā€™t be a deficiency of Fibrinogen, XIII performs the crosslinking

91
Q

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia is caused primarily by which antibody:

A

HPA-1a

92
Q

The amount of antigen being measured that is exceeding the amount of antibody in ELISA can cause a technical problem called:

A

hook effect

93
Q

In ELISA for hepatitis B surface antigen, the second antibody linked to a reporter enzyme is called

A

the conjugate antibody (it is conjugated to the enzyme)

94
Q

The substance used at the very end of ELISA in order to make a colorimetric or Fluorescent change for detection is called

A

the substrate

95
Q

the antigen or antibody in the bottom of the well of ELISA is called

A

the capture antigen or antibody

96
Q

Ael serological

A

no reaction with Anti-A or anti-A,B, weak back type with A cells and only H in saliva

97
Q

Ax serological

A

Only H in saliva reacts weakly *****

98
Q

To differentiate anti-Fy3 and anti-Fy5 you need to test what type of cell?

A

Fya+Fyb+ Rh null

99
Q

Patient received red blood cells, her blood pressure dropped and she experienced difficulty breathing, she was treated for shock. What type of red cells should she receive to prevent this type of reaction?

A

Washed Red Blood Cells

100
Q

hrB

A

RH31

101
Q

HR0

A

RH17

102
Q

Hr or Hrs

A

RH18

103
Q

HrB

A

HR34

104
Q

hrs

A

RH19

105
Q

A(B) phenotype

A

same idea as B(A) in reverse

106
Q

B(A) phenotype

A

autosomal dominant, weak A expression on group B cells, B=4+ A=<2+, strong anti-A reactive with both A1 and A2 cells

107
Q

cis AB

A

can use a and b specific nucleotide sugars in an equal way, unlike B(A) or (A(B) CisAB allele in trans to O allele, cause weaker expression of A and B

108
Q

Acquired B and acidified human serum anti-B

A

does not react with acidified serum

109
Q

A1 ISBT number

A

is the fourth antigen in the ABO group 001.004

110
Q

What is the effect of having an elevated expression of CD47 on the cell surface?

A

Prevents phagocytosis, binds to signal regulatory protein alpha on the surface of macrophages, to diminish the CD47 expression would be to increase phagocytosis. Increased expression of CD47 has been found on human tumor cells

111
Q

M antigen amino acids

A

From base to the end: Gly-Thr-Thr-Ser-Ser

112
Q

N antigen amino acids

A

From base to end: Glu-Thr-Thr-Ser-Leu (same as end of Glycophorin B)

113
Q

Percentage of f positive

A

65% white 92% black

114
Q

autoanti-IH/HI associated with?

A

Less H on surface of red cells. i.e. patients that are A1, if someone has autoanti-HI could see hemolysis especially with O RBCs where H is more prevalent

115
Q

Lewis in plasma

A

glycolipid

116
Q

Lewis in pregnancy

A

increased plasma volume in pregnancy, elutes Lewis off of the red cell

117
Q

FUT2*01w.02

A

weak secretor, 17% Japanese Lea+ Leb+, H binds as successfully as Lewis does making about 50% A and 50% B

118
Q

Percentage of Whites and blacks with Lea- Leb-

A

5% whites 25% blacks

119
Q

Lewis in blacks

A

(25/50/25) 25 Lea+, 50 Leb+, 25 Lea-/Leb-

120
Q

Lewis in whites

A

20/75/5 Lea+/Leb+/both negative

121
Q

Anti-Leb

A

very infrequent in lea+/Leb- individuals more commonly positive in patients that are negative for both (anti-Lea, anti-Leb, anti-Le3 (a,b)

122
Q

Why is it not necessary for antigen negative units with Lewis

A
  1. antigen will elute off of the cell and patients antigen will adsorb onto surface after some time in new environment 2. Also recipients antibodies will often bind to antigen found in plasma and neutralize it.
123
Q

i is a sign of what

A

stressed erythropoiesis, can occur in people with chronic hemolytic disorders

124
Q

Disorders i

A
  1. i adult- autocsommal recessive caused by mutations in GCNT2- in asians is associated with congenital cataracts 2. congenital dyserythropoietic anemia Type 2 )=(HEMPAS)
125
Q

I enhancement

A

enzyme treatinet, albumin.

126
Q

Which Rh phenotype has the least amount of CD47 on the surface

A

Rh null, CD47 is associated with the Rh complex. Dā€“ cells have the highest expression of CD47, whereas Rhnull cells express barely any CD47.

127
Q

Renal transplant patients B/O can receive:

A

A2 kidney if their anti-A titer is low

128
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by inappropriate absorption of iron and abnormal iron cycling. This results in an accumulation of iron within tissue, including the liver, pancreas, skin, and endocrine organs. The excessive iron stores can result in organ dysfunction. Which is the most common genetic abnormality seen in the HFE gene product resulting in hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

C282Y. change from a tyrosine to a cytosine. carrier rate in Caucasians is 1 in 10

129
Q

What needle gauge is used for transfusion

A

18-20 gauge

130
Q

how long is the deferral for someone received gamma globulin

A

120 days if exposure to hepatitis A, if prophylactically can donate right away.

SBB (31 decks)

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