Test 2 GPT Questions Flashcards
In academic research, the process of reviewing existing literature to identify gaps and establish the context for a study is primarily part of:
Select one:
a. Developing the theoretical framework
b. Formulating research questions
c. Designing the research methodology
d. Analyzing the research data
e. Writing the conclusion
Answer:
a. Developing the theoretical framework
Explanation:
Reviewing existing literature is a crucial part of developing the theoretical framework for a study. It helps to identify gaps in existing knowledge, establish the context for the study, and inform the development of research questions and hypotheses.
Which of the following is crucial in the process of formulating a hypothesis in research?
Select one:
a. Collecting and analyzing data
b. Reviewing the study’s budget and resources
c. Identifying a testable prediction based on theory
d. Selecting the research participants
e. Choosing the data analysis software
Answer:
c. Identifying a testable prediction based on theory
Explanation:
Formulating a hypothesis involves identifying a testable prediction that is based on existing theories or observations. It is a statement that can be tested through empirical research.
The process of conceptualizing variables in a study, such as defining what is meant by “job satisfaction” or “organizational commitment,” is an example of:
Select one:
a. Operationalization
b. Hypothesis testing
c. Data collection
d. Methodological design
e. Empirical validation
Answer:
a. Operationalization
Explanation:
Operationalization involves defining the variables used in a study in a clear and measurable way. This process includes defining concepts like “job satisfaction” or “organizational commitment” so they can be empirically measured.
A researcher conducting a study on the impact of leadership styles on employee performance would initially need to:
Select one:
a. Determine the statistical tests to be used
b. Develop a theoretical framework linking leadership styles to performance
c. Select the software for data analysis
d. Choose the geographical location of the study
e. Conduct a pilot study
Answer:
b. Develop a theoretical framework linking leadership styles to performance
Explanation:
Initially, the researcher would need to develop a theoretical framework that outlines how different leadership styles might impact employee performance. This framework guides the study’s direction and the formulation of research questions and hypotheses.
In a study exploring the effects of social media on mental health, the step where a researcher determines how “mental health” and “social media usage” will be measured and observed is known as:
Select one:
a. Hypothesis formulation
b. Conceptual definition
c. Operationalization
d. Methodology design
e. Variable classification
Answer:
c. Operationalization
Explanation:
Operationalization refers to the process of defining how variables will be measured and observed in a study. In this case, it involves deciding on the specific methods to measure and observe “mental health” and “social media usage.”
In a study examining the effects of sleep on cognitive performance, where sleep is manipulated through various interventions, sleep is the:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Control variable
e. Moderating variable
Answer:
b. Independent variable
Explanation:
In this study, sleep is the independent variable because it is being manipulated through different interventions to observe its effect on cognitive performance (the dependent variable).
A research study aims to understand if the level of customer service (high, medium, low) impacts customer satisfaction ratings. In this study, the level of customer service is the:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediating variable
d. Moderating variable
e. Control variable
Answer:
b. Independent variable
Explanation:
The level of customer service is the independent variable as it is the factor being varied or manipulated to assess its impact on customer satisfaction ratings (the dependent variable).
In a randomized controlled trial testing the effectiveness of a new medication, the group that receives a placebo is known as the:
Select one:
a. Treatment group
b. Control group
c. Experimental group
d. Baseline group
e. Variable group
Answer:
b. Control group
Explanation:
In a randomized controlled trial, the control group is the group that receives a placebo or standard treatment for comparison purposes. This group serves as a benchmark to measure the effects of the new medication (tested in the treatment or experimental group).
When a researcher measures the impact of different teaching methods on student learning outcomes, ‘student learning outcomes’ are the:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Control variable
d. Confounding variable
e. Mediator variable
Answer:
a. Dependent variable
Explanation:
Student learning outcomes in this scenario are the dependent variable, as they are the outcomes being measured to assess the impact of the independent variable, which is the different teaching methods.
In a study investigating the relationship between exercise and mental health, if researchers also consider the age of the participants, age is acting as a:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediating variable
d. Moderating variable
e. Control variable
Answer:
d. Moderating variable
Explanation:
Age in this study would be considered a moderating variable. A moderating variable is one that might affect the strength or direction of the relationship between the independent variable (exercise) and the dependent variable (mental health).
In a research study, the statement “Increased social media use leads to higher levels of loneliness among teenagers” is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Research question
b. Theory
c. Hypothesis
d. Conceptual definition
e. Statistical analysis
Answer:
c. Hypothesis
Explanation:
This statement is an example of a hypothesis. It proposes a specific, testable prediction about the relationship between two variables: the level of social media use (independent variable) and the level of loneliness (dependent variable) among teenagers.
A statement that proposes a broad explanation for a wide range of phenomena and is supported by a large body of evidence is known as a:
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Theory
c. Research question
d. Conceptual model
e. Generalization
Answer:
b. Theory
Explanation:
A theory is a broad explanation for a wide range of phenomena. It is generally supported by a substantial body of evidence and research, and it helps to frame how researchers think about different problems or issues.
In a study exploring the impact of diet on health, the statement “People who eat a balanced diet have a lower risk of heart disease” would be classified as a:
Select one:
a. Research objective
b. Hypothesis
c. Data collection method
d. Theoretical framework
e. Survey question
Answer:
b. Hypothesis
Explanation:
This statement is a hypothesis. It posits a testable prediction about the relationship between two variables: eating a balanced diet (independent variable) and the risk of heart disease (dependent variable).
The question “How do consumers perceive the value of organic food products?” is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Research question
c. Theory
d. Methodological approach
e. Data analysis technique
Answer:
b. Research question
Explanation:
This is a research question. It is an open-ended question aimed at exploring and understanding consumers’ perceptions of the value of organic food products.
A conceptual framework in a research study is primarily used to:
Select one:
a. Analyze collected data
b. Formulate hypotheses
c. Define operational variables
d. Organize and interpret the relationships among key concepts and variables
e. Determine the research methodology
Answer:
d. Organize and interpret the relationships among key concepts and variables
Explanation:
A conceptual framework in a research study is used to organize and interpret the relationships among the key concepts and variables. It provides a structured way to look at and understand the study’s focus.
A researcher wants to determine if the relationship between exercise frequency and mental health differs based on age. In this scenario, age is considered a:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediator variable
d. Moderator variable
e. Control variable
Answer:
d. Moderator variable
Explanation:
Age in this scenario is a moderator variable. It is being used to examine whether the effect of exercise frequency (independent variable) on mental health (dependent variable) varies across different age groups.
If a study aims to understand whether the impact of a leadership training program on employee productivity varies based on the size of the team, then ‘team size’ is a:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediating variable
d. Moderator variable
e. Confounding variable
Answer:
d. Moderator variable
Explanation:
‘Team size’ in this context is a moderator variable. It is used to see if the relationship between the leadership training program (independent variable) and employee productivity (dependent variable) changes when considering different team sizes.
In research, a mediator variable is used to:
Select one:
a. Control external factors that might influence the results
b. Explain the mechanism through which an independent variable affects a dependent variable
c. Change the direction of the relationship between two variables
d. Measure the strength of the relationship between two variables
e. Determine if a variable is necessary for a relationship to exist
Answer:
b. Explain the mechanism through which an independent variable affects a dependent variable
Explanation:
A mediator variable explains the process or mechanism through which the independent variable is able to influence the dependent variable. It helps in understanding how or why a certain effect occurs.
When a researcher includes gender as a variable to see if it changes the relationship between stress and job satisfaction, gender is acting as a:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediating variable
d. Moderator variable
e. Control variable
Answer:
d. Moderator variable
Explanation:
In this case, gender is a moderator variable. The researcher is using it to examine if the effect of stress (independent variable) on job satisfaction (dependent variable) varies between different genders.
A study examines if the relationship between hours spent studying and exam scores is different for undergraduate and graduate students. Here, ‘level of education’ (undergraduate vs. graduate) is considered a:
Select one:
a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Mediating variable
d. Moderator variable
e. Control variable
Answer:
d. Moderator variable
Explanation:
‘Level of education’ (undergraduate vs. graduate) is being used as a moderator variable. It is being considered to see if it influences the strength or direction of the relationship between hours spent studying (independent variable) and exam scores (dependent variable).
In an experimental study, the threat of ‘maturation’ to internal validity occurs when:
Select one:
a. Participants drop out of the study over time.
b. The measurement instruments change over time.
c. Changes in participants occur naturally over time.
d. Participants become aware of the study’s purpose.
Answer:
c. Changes in participants occur naturally over time.
Explanation:
‘Maturation’ refers to the processes within participants that occur naturally over time, such as aging, healing, or changes in attitude. These natural changes can affect the results of the study and pose a threat to the internal validity by confounding the effects of the experimental manipulation.
The ‘Hawthorne effect’ in research refers to:
Select one:
a. Changes in behavior due to participants’ awareness of being observed
b. The impact of the research environment on the study’s results
c. Biases introduced by researchers’ expectations
d. Statistical errors due to sampling methods
Answer:
a. Changes in behavior due to participants’ awareness of being observed
Explanation:
The ‘Hawthorne effect’ occurs when study participants change their behavior simply because they are aware that they are being observed or are part of a study, which can impact the study’s outcomes.
‘History’ as a threat to internal validity in research refers to:
Select one:
a. The background and experiences of participants affecting study outcomes
b. Events outside the study that affect participants’ responses
c. The development of research methods over time
d. The longitudinal analysis of data
Answer:
b. Events outside the study that affect participants’ responses
Explanation:
‘History’ as a threat to internal validity involves external events that occur during the course of a study and might influence the participants’ responses or behaviors, independent of the experimental manipulation.
In a study assessing the effectiveness of a new teaching method, if the pre-test influences the performance on the post-test, this is an example of a threat to validity known as:
Select one:
a. Testing effect
b. Maturation
c. Instrumentation
d. Selection bias
Answer:
a. Testing effect
Explanation:
The ‘testing effect’ refers to the impact that taking a pre-test can have on participants’ performance on a subsequent post-test. The experience of taking the pre-test can influence responses, learning, or familiarity, thereby affecting the results of the post-test.
‘Selection bias’ in research refers to:
Select one:
a. Choosing inappropriate measurement instruments
b. Differences in characteristics between groups in an experimental study
c. Participants self-selecting into groups
d. Researchers’ personal biases affecting the study
Answer:
b. Differences in characteristics between groups in an experimental study
Explanation:
‘Selection bias’ occurs when there are systematic differences in characteristics between the groups being compared in a study. This can happen due to the way participants are selected or assigned to groups, affecting the generalizability and validity of the study’s conclusions.
A study design where participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group, and the outcome is measured before and after the treatment is known as:
Select one:
a. Cross-sectional design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Pretest-posttest control group design
d. Repeated measures design
e. Cohort study
Answer:
c. Pretest-posttest control group design
Explanation:
In a pretest-posttest control group design, participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or a control group, and the outcome of interest is measured both before (pretest) and after (posttest) the intervention in both groups. This design helps in assessing the changes attributable to the intervention.
When a study uses two different groups of participants, where one group receives the treatment and the other receives a placebo, this is an example of:
Select one:
a. A single-blind study
b. A double-blind study
c. A crossover study
d. A parallel-group design
e. A case-control study
Answer:
d. A parallel-group design
Explanation:
A parallel-group design involves two or more groups of participants receiving different interventions (or one receiving a placebo) concurrently. Each group is followed over the same time period, and outcomes are compared between the groups.
In a ‘crossover study’ design:
Select one:
a. Participants are observed at multiple points over time without any intervention.
b. Participants receive multiple treatments in a random order.
c. Different groups of participants receive different treatments simultaneously.
d. The same participants are studied in multiple unrelated experiments.
e. Participants are reassigned to different treatment groups midway through the study.
Answer:
b. Participants receive multiple treatments in a random order.
Explanation:
In a crossover study, participants receive multiple treatments, but in a random order. Each participant acts as their own control, as they are exposed to all treatment conditions at different times.
A ‘longitudinal study’ is characterized by:
Select one:
a. Assessing a single variable at a single point in time
b. Observing the same participants repeatedly over a long period
c. Comparing different participants at a single point in time
d. Conducting experiments at regular intervals
e. Randomly assigning participants to treatment and control groups
Answer:
b. Observing the same participants repeatedly over a long period
Explanation:
A longitudinal study involves observing the same participants multiple times over an extended period. This design is used to track changes and developments over time.
In a ‘single-blind study’:
Select one:
a. Only the participants are unaware of who is receiving the treatment or placebo.
b. Only the researchers are unaware of who is receiving the treatment or placebo.
c. Both participants and researchers are unaware of who is receiving the treatment or placebo.
d. Participants are observed without any intervention.
e. Participants are told they are receiving a treatment, but they actually receive a placebo.
Answer:
a. Only the participants are unaware of who is receiving the treatment or placebo.
Explanation:
In a single-blind study, the participants do not know whether they are receiving the actual treatment or a placebo, but the researchers do know. This helps to prevent participant expectations from influencing the results.
Which of the following is an example of probability sampling?
Select one:
a. Convenience sampling
b. Snowball sampling
c. Stratified random sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. Quota sampling
Answer:
c. Stratified random sampling
Explanation:
Stratified random sampling is a type of probability sampling where the population is divided into subgroups (strata) based on shared characteristics, and random samples are then taken from each stratum. This contrasts with non-probability sampling methods like convenience, snowball, purposive, and quota sampling.
In qualitative research, purposive sampling is used to:
Select one:
a. Randomly select participants from a list
b. Choose participants based on specific characteristics relevant to the study
c. Include as many participants as possible for generalization
d. Allow participants to volunteer for the study
e. Sample equal numbers from different groups
Answer:
b. Choose participants based on specific characteristics relevant to the study
Explanation:
Purposive sampling in qualitative research involves selecting participants deliberately based on specific qualities or characteristics that are relevant to the research question or objective. It’s a non-random and targeted approach to participant selection.
Snowball sampling is particularly useful when:
Select one:
a. The target population is large and diverse
b. The study requires random sampling for generalizability
c. The research focuses on a specific, difficult-to-reach population
d. High statistical precision is needed
e. A large number of participants is required quickly
Answer:
c. The research focuses on a specific, difficult-to-reach population
Explanation:
Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique used especially in qualitative research to study specific, hard-to-reach populations. In this method, existing study subjects recruit future subjects from among their acquaintances, making it easier to reach individuals who are part of a specific network or have unique characteristics.
Quota sampling involves:
Select one:
a. Randomly selecting participants to fill a predetermined quota
b. Selecting participants to ensure representation of various subgroups in the population
c. Allowing participants to self-select into the study
d. Repeatedly sampling from the same population over time
e. Selecting participants based on convenience
Answer:
b. Selecting participants to ensure representation of various subgroups in the population
Explanation:
Quota sampling is a nonprobability sampling method where researchers select participants in order to ensure that various subgroups of the population are represented in the sample. It involves setting quotas for different groups based on characteristics like age, sex, or ethnicity.
Convenience sampling is best described as:
Select one:
a. A method where participants are selected based on availability and willingness to take part
b. A random selection of participants to avoid bias
c. Sampling individuals who meet a specific set of criteria
d. Using complex statistical methods to select participants
e. Selecting a representative sample of the population
Answer:
a. A method where participants are selected based on availability and willingness to take part
Explanation:
Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling method where participants are chosen based on their easy availability and willingness to participate in the study, rather than using a random or systematic approach.
In the context of psychological testing, ‘test-retest reliability’ refers to:
Select one:
a. The consistency of test results when different tests are used
b. The similarity of test results when the same test is administered to the same group at different times
c. The degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure
d. The extent to which a test is unbiased and fair for all test-takers
e. The correlation between scores of different sections of the same test
Answer:
b. The similarity of test results when the same test is administered to the same group at different times
Explanation:
Test-retest reliability refers to the consistency of a test over time. It is assessed by administering the same test to the same group of individuals at two different points in time and then correlating the scores to evaluate the stability of the test.
‘Content validity’ in research methodology is determined by:
Select one:
a. Statistical analysis of the test results
b. Expert judgment on whether the test covers the relevant content area comprehensively
c. Comparing test scores with another established measure
d. Assessing the test’s reliability over multiple trials
e. Evaluating the diversity of the test items
Answer:
b. Expert judgment on whether the test covers the relevant content area comprehensively
Explanation:
Content validity is about whether a test comprehensively covers the construct or content area it is intended to measure. It is typically determined through expert judgment and review, assessing whether the test items adequately represent all aspects of the content domain.
Which type of validity is being assessed when a new measure is compared to an established standard or benchmark?
Select one:
a. Construct validity
b. Criterion validity
c. Face validity
d. Content validity
e. Predictive validity
Answer:
b. Criterion validity
Explanation:
Criterion validity refers to the extent to which a new measure correlates with or is able to predict an established standard or benchmark. It is about assessing how well a new test performs in relation to a well-established test or criterion.
‘Convergent validity’ is demonstrated when:
Select one:
a. A measure correlates highly with measures of unrelated constructs
b. A measure does not correlate with measures it should theoretically be unrelated to
c. A measure correlates highly with measures of similar constructs
d. The results of a measure remain consistent over time
e. A measure predicts future outcomes or behaviors
Answer:
c. A measure correlates highly with measures of similar constructs
Explanation:
Convergent validity is shown when a measure correlates well with other measures that it is theoretically supposed to be related to. It is about how closely the new measure relates to other measures of similar constructs.
‘Discriminant validity’ is best described as:
Select one:
a. The ability of a measure to differentiate between groups
b. A measure correlating poorly with measures of different constructs
c. The extent to which scores on a measure predict future performance
d. The degree to which a measure covers the breadth of the content domain
e. The consistency of a measure when administered multiple times
Answer:
b. A measure correlating poorly with measures of different constructs
Explanation:
Discriminant validity is achieved when a measure does not correlate strongly with measures from different constructs. It indicates that the measure is distinct and not simply reflecting some other variable.
A nominal scale in research is used for:
Select one:
a. Ranking data in order of magnitude
b. Categorizing data without implying order
c. Measuring data with equal intervals and an absolute zero
d. Measuring data with equal intervals but no true zero
e. Comparing the ratios of measurements
Answer:
b. Categorizing data without implying order
Explanation:
A nominal scale is used in research for categorizing data. It involves assigning data to categories that are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive, without any implication of order or rank among the categories. An example would be categorizing individuals by their hair color or by their nationality.
An ordinal scale is characterized by:
Select one:
a. Equal intervals between values
b. A meaningful zero point
c. The ability to rank order data
d. Precise differences between values
e. Ratios between numbers being meaningful
Answer:
c. The ability to rank order data
Explanation:
An ordinal scale allows for the ranking or ordering of data based on some attribute or characteristic. However, the intervals between the ranks are not necessarily equal, and the scale does not indicate the magnitude of differences between ranks. An example is a satisfaction rating scale (e.g., satisfied, neutral, dissatisfied).
A ratio scale is distinct from other scales because it:
Select one:
a. Only categorizes data
b. Has an absolute zero point
c. Does not allow for the ranking of data
d. Measures only the frequency of occurrences
e. Is used only for qualitative data
Answer:
b. Has an absolute zero point
Explanation:
A ratio scale is unique among scales because it has an absolute zero point, meaning that zero indicates the absence of the variable being measured. Additionally, ratio scales have equal intervals, allowing for the comparison of ratios. An example would be weight or height measurements.
When a survey asks respondents to rate their satisfaction on a scale from 1 to 5, this type of scale is known as:
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
e. Categorical scale
Answer:
c. Interval scale
Explanation:
A scale that asks respondents to rate their satisfaction on a scale from 1 to 5 is an interval scale. It provides equal intervals between points on the scale (e.g., the difference between 1 and 2 is the same as between 4 and 5), but it does not have a true zero point (i.e., a rating of 0 does not mean ‘no satisfaction’).
In market research, using a scale where consumers rate a product as ‘excellent,’ ‘good,’ ‘fair,’ or ‘poor’ is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
e. Continuous scale
Answer:
b. Ordinal scale
Explanation:
This type of scale is an ordinal scale, as it allows consumers to rank their perception of the product in a specific order. The categories imply a ranking (from excellent to poor), but the exact differences between these ranks are not defined.
Validity in the context of a research instrument means:
Select one:
a. The instrument consistently produces the same results.
b. The instrument measures what it is intended to measure.
c. The results of the instrument are reproducible by other researchers.
d. The instrument is easy to use and interpret.
e. The instrument can be used in a variety of settings.
Answer:
b. The instrument measures what it is intended to measure.
Explanation:
Validity refers to the degree to which a research instrument accurately measures what it is intended to measure. A valid instrument accurately reflects the concept or variable it is designed to assess.
Which of the following best describes ‘face validity’?
Select one:
a. The extent to which a test appears effective in terms of its stated aims
b. The correlation of the measure with a criterion variable taken at the same time
c. The consistency of the measure across different items
d. The ability of the measure to predict a future outcome
e. The similarity of the measure to other measures that it theoretically should correlate with
Answer:
a. The extent to which a test appears effective in terms of its stated aims
Explanation:
Face validity refers to the extent to which a test or instrument appears effective and suitable for its intended purpose, based on superficial characteristics. It is about whether the test seems valid to those who are using it or participating in it.
‘Construct validity’ is demonstrated when:
Select one:
a. The measurement correlates with other measures of the same construct.
b. The measurement accurately predicts future behavior or outcomes.
c. The questions in the measurement tool look right to untrained individuals.
d. The measurement gives consistent results over time.
e. Different methods of measurement provide the same results.
Answer:
a. The measurement correlates with other measures of the same construct.
Explanation:
Construct validity is shown when a measurement correlates well with other measures that are theoretically expected to be related to the same construct. It is about how well the instrument measures the theoretical construct it is supposed to measure.
Predictive validity of a test is determined by:
Select one:
a. Checking the test’s consistency over time.
b. Comparing the test results to a criterion measured at the same time.
c. Assessing how well the test predicts future outcomes or behaviors.
d. Evaluating whether the test covers all aspects of the construct.
e. Ensuring the test does not correlate with unrelated measures.
Answer:
c. Assessing how well the test predicts future outcomes or behaviors.
Explanation:
Predictive validity is determined by assessing how well a test or measurement can predict future outcomes or behaviors. It involves correlating test scores with outcomes that are measured at a later point in time.
In research, ‘inter-rater reliability’ refers to:
Select one:
a. The consistency of a measure when different people use it.
b. The consistency of a measure when used by the same person over time.
c. The similarity of a measure to other measures that assess the same construct.
d. The ability of a measure to produce the same results under unchanged conditions.
e. The degree to which a measure covers the range of meanings included within a concept.
Answer:
a. The consistency of a measure when different people use it.
Explanation:
Inter-rater reliability refers to the extent to which different raters or observers give consistent estimates or ratings when assessing the same phenomenon. It is a measure of reliability used to assess the degree to which different judges or assessors agree in their assessment decisions.
Stratified random sampling is a technique where:
Select one:
a. The population is divided into subgroups and random samples are taken from each subgroup.
b. Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
c. A sample is selected based on convenience or accessibility.
d. Participants are selected based on certain predetermined characteristics.
e. A primary sample is used for general information and a subsample for detailed study.
Answer:
a. The population is divided into subgroups and random samples are taken from each subgroup.
Explanation:
In stratified random sampling, the population is divided into strata or subgroups that share similar characteristics, and then random samples are drawn from each of these strata. This method ensures representation from each subgroup and can increase the statistical efficiency of the research.
Cluster sampling is most suitable when:
Select one:
a. The population is homogeneous.
b. The population is spread over a large geographic area.
c. Detailed information is needed from each individual in the population.
d. Only a small subset of the population is relevant to the study.
e. The population is small and easily accessible.
Answer:
b. The population is spread over a large geographic area.
Explanation:
Cluster sampling is particularly suitable for populations that are spread over a large geographic area. In this method, the population is divided into clusters (like geographic areas), and a random sample of these clusters is selected for study, making data collection more practical and cost-effective.
Systematic sampling involves:
Select one:
a. Selecting every nth member of the population.
b. Choosing individuals based on their availability.
c. Randomly selecting a starting point and then choosing every member.
d. Dividing the population into groups and selecting entire groups randomly.
e. Repeating the sampling process with different subgroups.
Answer:
a. Selecting every nth member of the population.
Explanation:
In systematic sampling, a sample is drawn by selecting every nth member of the population after a random start. This method is a type of probability sampling and is often used when a complete list of the population is available.
Purposive sampling is characterized by:
Select one:
a. Selection based on the judgment of the researcher.
b. Random selection from the population.
c. Choosing participants who volunteer for the study.
d. Using a computer algorithm to select the sample.
e. Repeated sampling from the same population group.
Answer:
a. Selection based on the judgment of the researcher.
Explanation:
Purposive sampling, also known as judgmental sampling, involves selecting participants based on the researcher’s knowledge and judgment about who will be most informative for the purpose of the study. It’s a non-random technique used especially in qualitative research.