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A&P 1 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Immovable joint, plural = syntharoses

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2
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Slightly moveable joint, amphiarthtoses

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3
Q

Diarthrosis

A

Freely moveable joint, plural = diarthroses

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4
Q

Three structural types of joints

A
  1. Fibrous joints 2. Cartilaginous joints 3. Synovial joints
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5
Q

Fibrous joint

A

No synovial cavity; bones held together by dense CONNECTIVE tissue, rich in collagen fibers

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6
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A

No synovial cavity, bones held together CARTILAGE

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7
Q

Synovial joints

A

+synovial cavity, United with the dense irregular CT of an articular capsule and often accessory ligament

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8
Q

Three types of fibrous joints

A
  1. Sutures - skull 2. Syndesmoses 3. Interosseus Membranes
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9
Q

Sutures location

A

Only found between bones of the skull

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10
Q

Gomphosis

A

Dental-alveolar joint = cone-shaped peg into a socket-teeth and their sockets found in the maxilla/mandible

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11
Q

Periodontal disease

A

Degeneration and inflammation of this ligament; may permit movement at that point. Periodontal ligament connects the tooth to the socket, permitting no matter movement (synarthosis)

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12
Q

Interosseous Membrane location

A

Between radius and ulna Between tibia and fibula

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13
Q

Name the three functional types of joints

A
  1. Synarthrosis 2. Amphiarthrosis 3. Diarthosis
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14
Q

Osteology

A

the study of bone structure and the treatment of bone disorders.

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15
Q

What are the Basic Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System?

A
  1. Support (structural framework of the body. Supports soft tissue and points of attachments for tendons). 2. Protection (protection of internal organs-pelvis/ribs; spine; skull) 3. Assistance in movement (provide a surface for muscular attachment; contraction of muscles will pull on bones to produce movement) 4. Mineral homeostasis (calcium & phosphorous storage) 5. Blood cell production (Red Marrow-Hematopoiesis) 6. Triglyceride storage (yellow marrow mainly adipose cells)
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16
Q

Sharpey_s fibers (perforating fibers)

A

thick bundles of collagen that extend from the periosteum into bone extracellular matrix.

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17
Q

What is the most abuntant mineral salt?

A

Calcium Phosphate (CA3(PO4)2)

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18
Q

Most abundant to least abundant in bone histology

A

Crytalized Mineral Salts (55); Collagen Fibers (35); Water (15)

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19
Q

What are the four types of cells?

A

Osteoprogenitor; Osteoblast; Osteocytes; Osteclasts

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20
Q

Functions of Osteoclasts.

A

Resporption; Regulation of serum Calcium

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21
Q

Unit of bone

A

Osteons

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22
Q

What do ateries do?

A

carries blood TO bone tissue

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23
Q

What do veins do?

A

carries blood away from bone tissue

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24
Q

PERIOSTEAL ARTERIES

A

small arteries accompanied by nerves; enter diaphysis of the bone through perforating (Volkmann_s canals). Function: supply periosteum and outer part of compact bone.

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25
Q

NUTRIENT ARTERIES

A

found near the center of the diaphysis; Function: supply inner compact bone tissue of diaphysis and spongy bone tissue and red bone marrow as far as the epiphyseal plates (lines)

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26
Q

METAPHYSEAL ARTERY

A

Course: enter the metapyses of a long bone (together with the nutrient artery); Function: supply bone tissue of the metaphyses & red marrow

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27
Q

EPIPHYSEAL ARTERY

A

Course: enter the epiphyseal; Function: supply red marrow and the bone tissue of the epiphyses

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28
Q

NUTRIENT VEINS

A

one or two veins will accompany the nutrient artery and exit the diaphysis

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29
Q

Numerous EPIPHYSEAL and METAPHYSEAL VEINS

A

accompany their respective arteries and exit through the epiphyses and metaphyses.

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30
Q

Many PERIOSTEAL VEINS

A

accompany periosteal arteries and exit via the periosteum

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31
Q

Why do they do bone marrow biopsys?

A

typically go into the hip; inserted into the middle of the bone to withdraw a sample of red bone marrow to examine it for conditions such as leukemia; metastatic neoplasm (tumors); lymphoma; Hodgkin_s and aplastic anemia.

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32
Q

Embryonic skeleton is comprised of?

A

Mesenchyme

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33
Q

Bone formation occurs in which two patters?

A

Endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification

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34
Q

Ossification

A

the process by bone forms.

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35
Q

Osteogenesis

A

the process by which bone forms.

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36
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

_membrane_ [bone forms directly within mesenchyme; arranged in sheet-like layers resembling membrane

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37
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

_cartilage_ [bone forms w/in hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme]

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38
Q

Intramembranous ossification details

A

Bone types involved - more flat bones ; embryonic model - a sheet of dense fibrous CT ; stem cells involved - fibroblasts; osteoblasts ; progression of developing tissue types - Dense fibrous CT ; Marrow space in adult bone - unlikely

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39
Q

Endochondral ossification details

A

Bone types involved - most long; short; and irregular bones ; embryonic model - dense fibrous CT replaced by hyaline cartilage matrix ; stem cells involved - fibroblasts; chondroblasts; osteoblasts ; progression of developing tissue types - Dense fibrous CT to Hylaine Cartilage to Bone; Marrow space in adult bone - likely

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40
Q

Appostional growth

A

an increase in size by the addition of new tissue or similar material at the periphery of a particular part or structure; as in the addition of new layers in bone and tooth formation

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41
Q

Interstital growth

A

growth from a number of differnet centers within an area; in contrast with appositional growth; it can occur only when the materials involved are nonrigid; such as cartilage

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42
Q

Details regarding the closure of the epiphyseal plate (growth plate)

A
  1. End of adolescence [women;18 and men; 21] due to estrogen and testosterone 2. Fracture/injury where there is a cessation in cell division 3. Anabolic steroid use as adolescent.
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43
Q

Hormones/Chemicals involved with Epiphyseal Growth Plate:

A
  1. Growth hormone (GH) stimulates chondrocytes to synthesize and respond to insulin growth factor-I (IGF-1) 2. IGF-I produced locally (along with IGF-I produced by the liver) stimulates cell division 3. Estrogen and testosterone stimulate closure of epiphyseal plates.
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44
Q

Bone remodeling

A

the ongoing replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue

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45
Q

Bone resportion

A

removal of minerals and collagen fibers from bone osteoclasts [destruction of bone ECM]

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46
Q

Bone deposition

A

addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone by osteoblasts [formation of bone ECM]

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47
Q

How many times is the distal femur replaced?

A

replaced about every four months

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48
Q

Is the shaft of the femur replaced?

A

will not be replaced during a person’s lifetime

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49
Q

Functions of remodeling

A
  1. Replaces old bone 2. Removes injured bone; replaces it with new bone
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50
Q

Triggers for bone remodeling

A
  1. Exercise 2. sedentary lifestyle 3. changes in diet
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51
Q

Benefits of bone remodeling

A
  1. removes injured bone 2. bone that is subject to heavier loads can grow stronger and thicker 3. bone shape can be altered for proper support; based on the stress patterns experienced 4. new bone is more resistant to fracture than old bone
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52
Q

What minerals cause bone growth?

A

larger amounts of calcium and phosphorus are needed while bones are growing; smaller amounts magnesium; fluoride; manganese

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53
Q

What vitamins cause bone growth?

A

Vitamin A=stimulation of osteoblast activity; Vitamin C for synthesis of collagen; Vitamin=increases absorption of calcium from foods in the GI tract; into the blood; Vitamin K ad B12=synthesis of bone proteins

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54
Q

What hormone assists in shutting the epiphyseal plate?

A

Estrogen

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55
Q

Clinical Correlations of Fractures

A

will vary depending on the age; type of fracture and bone involved. Ultimate goal of fracture repair: 1. Realignment of bone fragments 2. Immobilization to maintain realignment 3. Restoration of function

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56
Q

Closed reduction

A

bones are brought into alignment by manual manipulation; where the skin remains intact.

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57
Q

Open reduction

A

bones are brought back into alignment by a surgical procedure using internal fixation devices such as screws; plates; rods; and wires.

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58
Q

Open compound fracture

A

Description: Broken ends of the bone protrude from the skin [closed fracture; does not break the skin]

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59
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

crumbled; Description: Bone is splintered; crushed or broken into pieces at the site of impact. Smaller bone fragments can be found between the two main fragments.

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60
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Partial Fracture; one side of the bone is broken and the other side of the bone bends; similar to how a green twig breaks on one side and the other side stays whole. Occurs only in children whose bones are not fully ossified and contain more organic material than inorganic.

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61
Q

Impacted fracture

A

Description: The ends of the fracture bone are driven into the interior of the other

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62
Q

Pott’s fracture

A

Description: Fracture of the distal end of the lateral leg bone (fibula) with serious injury of the distal tibial articulation

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63
Q

Colles fracture

A

FOOSH; Description: Fracture of the distal end of the lateral forearm bone (radius) in which the distal fragment is posteriorly displaced.

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64
Q

Where is the major storage of calcium? (99%)

A

Bone

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65
Q

Hormonal Regulation of Calcium Exchange

A

How PTH increases serum calcium: Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): secreted by parathyroid glands. 1. Increases blood calcium level using a negative FB system 2. Acts on the kidneys to decrease the loss of calcium in the urine (more will be retained in the blood) 3. Stimulates the formation of calcitriol (active vitamin D); a hormone that promotes absorption of calcium from foods in the GI tract; into the blood.

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66
Q

Osteoporosis

A

loss of calcium from bone; This is literally _porous_ bone. Breakdown of bone occurs faster than bone can be formed.

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67
Q

Osteopenia

A

Low bone mass

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68
Q

Drug treaments for osteoporosis

A
  1. anti-resorptive drugs: slow down progression of bone loss 2. bone-building drugs: promote increase in bone mass
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69
Q

Rickets

A

a disease of children in which the bones become rubbery or soft and are easily deformed. New bone fails to form at the growth plates; resulting in a bowing of the legs and deformities of the skull; rib cage and pelvis.

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70
Q

Osteomalacia

A

adult rickets. New bone formed during remodeling fails to ossify.

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71
Q

Treatment for rickets and ostemalacia

A

Vitamin D supplementation and exposure to moderate sunlight.

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72
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

degeneration of articular cartilage; such that the bony ends touch; resulting in friction of bone against bone. This worsens the condition. This is usually associated with the elderly.

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73
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Infection of the bone; characterized by high fever; sweating; nausea; chills; pain; pus formation; edema; warmth over affected bone and rigid overlying muscles. Most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

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74
Q

Bacteria can reach the bone through the following mechanisms:

A
  1. From the outside of the body through open fractures; penetrating wounds; orthopedic surgical procedures 2. Blood from ther sites of infection in the body (abscessed teeth; burn infections; UTI_s or upper respiratory infections) 3. Adjacent soft tissue infections (wounds in diabetes mellitus
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75
Q

Osteopenia

A

reduced bone mass due to a decrease in the rate of bone synthesis to a level that is too low to compensate for normal bone resorption. Any decrease in bone mass below normal. Osteoporosis is an example of this.

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76
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Bone cancer that primarily affects osteoblasts and occurs most often in teenagers during a growth spurt.

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77
Q

Most common sites for osteosarcoma

A

Most common sites: 1. Metaphyses of femur (thigh) 2. Shin (tibia) 3. Humerus (upper arm) Most common sites for metastases: lung Treatment: multiple drug regimens of chemotherapy and removal of malignant growth (amputation of the limb).

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78
Q

Functions of Integumentary System

A
  1. Regulates body temperature 2. Stores blood 3. Protects body fro external environment 4. Detects cutaneous sensations 5. Excretes and absorbs substances 6. Synthesis of vitamin D
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79
Q

Which layers are apart of the skin?

A

Epidermis; dermis

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80
Q

What layer is not apart of skin?

A

Subcutaneous tissue

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81
Q

Epidermis layer composition

A

Keritinized stratified squamous epithelium

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82
Q

Name the 5 layers of skin

A
  1. Stratum Basale 2. stratum spinosum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidium 5. stratum corneum
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83
Q

Types of cells in epidermis

A

Keratinocytes; melanocytes; intraepidermal macrophages; merkel cells

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84
Q

Melanin

A

a yellow-red or brown-black pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs damaging UV light.

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85
Q

Epidermal growth-factor

A

The rate of cell division in the Stratum Basale increases when outer layers of the epidermis are stripped away (ie: abrasions; burns) Mechanism: unknown; but are regulated some from hormone-like proteins such as_

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86
Q

Dandruff

A

excessive amount of keratinized cells shed from the skin of the scalp

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87
Q

Principle layers of the dermis

A
  1. Papillary Region (thinner; superficial) 2. Reticular region (thicker; deep)
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88
Q

Dermal Papillae

A

small nipple shaped structures that project into the undersurface of the epidermis

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89
Q

Compentents of Dermal Papillae

A

Capillary loops (blood vessels); meissner corpusclues; free nerve endings

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90
Q

Melanin pigment

A

varies skin color from pale yellow to reddish brown

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91
Q

Pheomelanin

A

yellow to red

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92
Q

Eumelanin

A

brown to black

93
Q

Melanocytes

A

melanin-producing cells; most numerous in epidermis of darker skinned area (penis; nipples; areolae); face; limbs; mucus membranes. Same # in everyone; difference is due to the amount of pigment these cells produce and trasfer to keratinocytes

94
Q

Orgin of melanin

A

synthesized from amino acid; tyrosine in the presence of tyrosinase

95
Q

Hemoglobin

A

epidermis; skin color is pink to red depending on the oxygen content of the blood in the capillaries of the skin

96
Q

Carotene

A

[yellow-orange pigment] Pre-curser to vitamin A; used to synthesize pigments for vision

97
Q

Epithelial Root Sheath

A

External Root Sheath + Internal Root Sheath

98
Q

What kind of muscle is arrector pilli?

A

Smooth muscle

99
Q

Lanugo

A

very fine; non-pigmented downy hairs that cover the body of a fetus

100
Q

Terminal Hairs

A

long; coarse; heavily pigmented hairs replacing lanugo; just prior to birth [Location: eyebrows; eyelashes; scalp

101
Q

Vellus Hair

A

peach fuzz_ replaces lanugo of the rest of the body [Eyebrows; scalp and eyelashes are replaced by terminal hairs

102
Q

Dark Hair

A

mostly eumelanin (brown to black)

103
Q

Blonde or Red Hair

A

mostly pheomelanin

104
Q

Grey Hair

A

due to a progressive decline in melanin production; gray hair contains few melanin granules

105
Q

White Hair

A

lacks melanin; accumulation of air bubbles in the shaft

106
Q

Nail Growth Statistics Rate of Nail Growth Determined by:

A
  1. Age 2. Health 3. Nutritional status 4. Season 5. Time of day 6. Environmental temperature
107
Q

Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhan_s cells)

A

alert immune system to presence of potentially harmful microbe invaders; recognize and processes them

108
Q

Macrophages in the dermis

A

phagocytize bacteria and viruses that manage to bypass the intraepidermal macrophages of the epidermis]

109
Q

How much H20 is extreted each day?

A

400 ml of H20 each day

110
Q

Epidermis is derived from?

A

Embryonic Ectoderm (hairs; nails; skin glands are epidermal derivaties)

111
Q

Dermis is derived from?

A

Mesodermal cells

112
Q

When do aging affects start to occur?

A

effects start around 40; will start earlier if tan

113
Q

What are the effects of aging?

A

a. Wrinkling b. Loss of subcutaneous adipose tissue c. Atrophy or sebaceous glands d. Decrease in number of melanocytes e. Decrease in number of intraepidermal macrophages

114
Q

Skin graft

A

Transfer of a patch of healthy skin taken from a donor site to cover a wound. New skin is unable to regenerate if the injury has damaged a large area of the stratum basale and its stem cells.

115
Q

Benefits of skin graft

A
  1. Protects against fluid loss and infection 2. Promotes tissue healing 3. Reduce scar formation 4. Prevent loss of function 5. Cosmetic
116
Q

Complications of skin graft

A

tissue rejection

117
Q

Autograft

A

Transplanted skin is taken from the same person

118
Q

Isograft

A

Taken from an identical twin

119
Q

Psoriasis

A

common/chronic skin disorder in which keratinocytes divide and move more quickly than normal from the stratum basale to the stratum corneum and will be shed prematurely (7-10 days).

120
Q

Pathology of Psoriasis

A

immature keratinocytes make an abnormal keratin; which forms flaky; silvery scales at the skin surface; most often on the knees; elbows and scalp.

121
Q

Treatment of Psoriasis

A

topical ointments and UV phototherapy; Anything that will suppress cell division; decrease the rate of cell growth or inhibit keratinization

122
Q

Albinism

A

The inherited inability of an individual to produce melanin.

123
Q

Vitiligo

A

the partial or complete loss of melanocytes from patches of skin; producing irregular white spots

124
Q

Cynotic

A

blue)-blood does not pick up adequate oxygen from the lungs (most apparent in the mucous membranes; nail beds and skin)

125
Q

Jaundice

A

yellowish)-build-up of the yellow pigment; known as bilirubin in the skin; yellowish skin and sclera; likely indicates liver disease

126
Q

Erythema

A

redness)-engorgement of the capillaries in the dermis with blood due to skin injury; exposure to heat; infection; inflammation or allergic reactions

127
Q

Pallor

A

paleness)-may occur in conditions such as shock or anemia.

128
Q

Transdermal

A

enables a drug contained within an adhesive skin patch to pass across the epidermis and into the blood vessels of the dermis. The drug has a controlled release over a period of one to several days.

129
Q

acromioclavicular joint

A

scapula with the clavicle

130
Q

glenohumeral (shoulder) joint

A

scapula with the humerus

131
Q

sternoclavicular joint

A

articultes with the manubrium

132
Q

CLINICAL CORRELATION: Fractured Clavicle

A

Causes: _ FOOSH can also cause a fractured clavicle; force transmitted can travel throughout the arm _ Blow to the superior part of the anterior thorax [MVA] One of the most frequently fractured bones in the body The junction of the two curves is the weakest part of the clavicle; therefore the Clavicular mid-region is the most common fracture site Even without fracture; compression of the clavicle can cause damage to the brachial plexus (a series of nerves that supply the arm). This structure lies between the 2nd rib and the clavicle. Treatment: Figure 8 sling to keep arm from moving outward.

133
Q

Supraspinous fossa

A

Surface for attachment for supraspinatus muscle

134
Q

Infraspinous fossa

A

Surface for attachment of the infraspinatus muscle

135
Q

Subscapular fossa

A

Surface for attachment of the subscapularis muscle

136
Q

Sytloid Process of Ulna Attachment

A

located on a posterior side of ulna_s distal end. Attachment of the ulnar collateral ligament

137
Q

Sytloid Process of Radius Attachment

A

lateral side of the radius; attachment for the bracioradialis muscle; attachment of radial collateral ligament

138
Q

Proximal radioulnar joint

A

Head of the radius + ulnar notch

139
Q

Distal radioulnar joint

A

Head of the ulna + radial notch

140
Q

Some Lovers Try Positions They Can’t Handle

A

Scaphoid; Lunate; Triquetrum; Pisiform; Trapezium; Trapezoid; Capitate; Hamate

141
Q

Fingers I - V

A

I=Thumb II=Index finger III=Middle finger IV=Ring finger V=little finger

142
Q

Arched lines on the lateral surface of Illium

A
  1. Posterior gluteal line 2. anterior gluteal line 3. inferior gluteal line
143
Q

Patella

A

Knee Cap

144
Q

Dips

A

Most Distal

145
Q

Pips

A

Most Proximal

146
Q

Tall Centers Never Take Shots From Corners

A

Talus; Calcaneus; Navicular; Lateral Cuniforms; Intermediate Cuniforms; Medial Cuniforms; Cuboid

147
Q

Axial skeleton

A

80 bones

148
Q

Appendicular Skeleton

A

126 bones

149
Q

Fissure

A

[narrow slit between two adjacent pairs of bone through which BV or nerves pass. Ex: superior orbital fissure]

150
Q

Foramen

A

[opening through which BV; nerves or ligaments pass ex: optic foramen]

151
Q

Fossa

A

[shallow depression. Ex: coronoid fossa of humerus]

152
Q

Sulcus

A

[furrow along bone surface that accommodates BV; nerve or tendon]

153
Q

Meatus

A

[tube-like opening; auditory meatus]

154
Q

Condyle

A

large; round protuberance with a smooth articular surface at the end of a bone ex: lateral condyle of the femur

155
Q

Facet

A

smooth; flat slightly concave or convex articular surface Ex: superior articular facet of vertebrae

156
Q

Head

A

Usually rounded articular projection supported on neck (constricted portion) of bone ex: head of the femur

157
Q

Crest

A

prominent ridge or elongated projection; ex: iliac crest of the hip bone

158
Q

Epicondyle

A

typically roughened projection above the condyle; ex: medial epicondyle of the femur]

159
Q

Line

A

long; narrow ridge or border (less prominent than crest); ex: linea apsera of femur

160
Q

Spinous Process

A

sharp; slender projection; ex: spinous process of vertebrate

161
Q

Trochanter

A

very large projection; ex: greater trochanter of the femur]

162
Q

Tubercle

A

variably sized round projection; ex: greater tubercle of the humerus]

163
Q

Tuberosity

A

variable sized projection with a rough; bumpy surface; ex. Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis

164
Q

Zygomatic Arch

A

Formed from zygomatic process of the temporal bone + temporal process of the zygomatic bone

165
Q

Components of the Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A
  1. mandibular fossa 2. articular tubercle articulate 3. mandible (lower jawbone)
166
Q

Mastodioditis

A

Mastoid [contains mastoid air cells] to middle ear infections that go untreated can spread to the mastoid air cells. This can cause a painful inflammation called mastoiditis.

167
Q

Structures that transverse through internal/external auditory meatus

A

Facial Nerve (CN VII) and Vestibulocochlear (CNVIII)

168
Q

Structures that transverse through foramen magnum

A

medulla oblongata (inferior part of the brain that connects with the spinal cord); vertebral A/V.; accessory nerve (CN XI)

169
Q

What attaches to the EOP External Occipital Protuberance

A

ligamentum nuchae [ligament that stretches from EOP to C7 to support the head]

170
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint

A

allows for yes nod

171
Q

Structures that pass through hypogassal canal

A

hypoglossal nerve; branch of ascending pharyngeal artery

172
Q

Attachment of Crista Galli

A

falx cerebri (membrane that separates the two sides of the brain)

173
Q

Coronoid Process attachment

A

attachment of temporalis muscles]

174
Q

Mental foramen structures

A

mental nerve; artery and vein

175
Q

Mandibular foramen structures

A

carries inferior alveolar nerve and blood vessels

176
Q

Components of Nasal Septum

A
  1. Vomer 2. Septal cartilage 3. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
177
Q

Broken Nose

A

damage to septal cartilage rather than nasal bones

178
Q

Optic formamen structures

A

optic nerve (CN II); ophthalmic artery; central retinal vein]

179
Q

Superior orbital fissue

A

Cranial nerves (CN) III; IV; and VI; Lacrimal nerve; Frontal nerve; Nasociliary nerve; Orbital branch of middle meningeal artery; Recurrent branch of lacrimal artery; Superior orbital vein; Superior ophthalmic vein

180
Q

Inferior orbital fissure

A

[Infraorbital nerve; Zygomatic nerve; Parasympathetics to lacrimal gland; Infraorbital artery; Infraorbital vein] 4. Inferior ophthalmic vein branch to pterygoid plexus

181
Q

Anterior Fontanel

A

unpaired): largest; midline between the parietal & frontal bones; diamond shaped; closes approximately 18-24 mo

182
Q

Posterior Fontanel

A

(unpaired): midline between parietal and occipital bones; closes around 2 mo

183
Q

Anterolateral fontanel

A

paired) located laterally among the frontal; parietal; temporal; sphenoid bones; close approx. 3 mo.

184
Q

Posterolateral fontanel

A

(paired): located laterally among parietal; occipital; temporal bones; begin to close at 1-2 mo; complete about 12 mo

185
Q

Coronal Suture

A

unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones]

186
Q

Saggital Suture

A

unites the parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull]

187
Q

Lambdoid Suture

A

unites the two parietal bones with the occipital bone]

188
Q

Squamous Suture

A

two; unite the parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspect of the skull.]

189
Q

Primary Curves

A

Thoracic Curve; Sacrococcygeal curve

190
Q

Secondary Curves

A

Cervical Curve; Lumbar Curve

191
Q

When does the cervical spine develop?

A

when child learns to hold head up

192
Q

When does the thoracic spine develop?

A

when child learns to walk

193
Q

of vertebrae in early development

A

33

194
Q

of vertebrae in adult

A

26

195
Q

Kyphosis

A

excessive posterior curvature of the thoracic region

196
Q

Lordosis

A

excessive anterior curvature of the lumbar region

197
Q

Scoliosis

A

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine accompanied by twisting]

198
Q

Allows for pivot for “No”

A

Atlanto-axial joint

199
Q

Parts of Sternum

A

Manubrium; Body; Xiphoid Process

200
Q

True Ribs

A

7-Jan

201
Q

False Ribs

A

10-Aug

202
Q

Spina Bifida

A

Definition: congenital defect of the vertebral column when laminae of L5 and r S1 fail to develop normally and unite at the midline Risk: folate deficiency (B vitamin) during pregnancy

203
Q

Anatomical Neck

A

Prior Epiphyseal Plate

204
Q

Surgical Neck

A

High fracture occurance

205
Q

What structure is found in the hypophyseal fossa?

A

Pituitary Gland

206
Q

Supraorbital foramen

A

Supraorbital N;A;V

207
Q

Foramina of cribriform plate

A

Olfactory Nerve Bundles (CN I)

208
Q

Optic Canal

A

Ophthalmic artery; optic nerve

209
Q

Extension

A

[increase in the angle between articulating bones; most movement along the sagittal plane]

210
Q

Flexion

A

Decrease in the angle between articulating bones; most movement along the sagittal plane]

211
Q

Lateral Flexion

A

[movement of the trunk (waist) or head; sideways to the left or right; movement along frontal plane]

212
Q

Hyperextension

A

[continuation beyond the anatomical position] [example: backbend]

213
Q

Abduction

A

movement away from the midline of the body]

214
Q

Adduction

A

movement toward the midline of the body]

215
Q

Circumduction

A

movement of the distal part of the body in a circle]

216
Q

Elevation

A

(movement of a body part superior: ex: shrugging shoulders)

217
Q

Depression

A

(inferior movement of a body part ex: opening the mouth or depression of the mandible)

218
Q

Protraction

A

(movement of a body part anteriorly in the transverse plane: ex: protraction of the mandible)

219
Q

Retraction

A

(movement of a protracted body part back to the anatomical position)

220
Q

Inversion

A

(movement of the sole medially at the intertarsal joints)

221
Q

Supination

A

(inversion + plantar flexion)

222
Q

Eversion

A

(movement of the sole laterally at the intertarsal joints)

223
Q

Pronation

A

(eversion + dorsiflexion)

224
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

(bending of the ankle or talocrual joint (between tibia; fibula and talus) in the direction of the talus)

225
Q

Plantarflexion

A

bending of the foot at the ankle joint in the direction of the plantar or inferior surface-standing on toes)

226
Q

Supination

A

(movement of the forearm and distal radioulnar joints in which the palm is turned anteriorly. Palm facing up)

227
Q

Pronation

A

movement of the forearm at the proximal and distal radioulnar joints in which the distal end of the ulna and palm is turned posteriorly.

228
Q

Opposition

A

movement of the thumb at the metacarpal joint in which the thumb moves across the palm to touch the fingers of the same hand.

229
Q

Types of Joints

A

Plane joints; hinge joints; pivot joints; condyloid joints; saddle joints; ball and socket joints

A&P 1 (14 decks)

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