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A&P 1 > Final Exam:Final > Flashcards

Final Exam:Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the divisions of the Nervous System?

A

Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous system (PNS)

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2
Q

What are the components of the CNS?

A

Brain (85 billion neurons) Spinal Cord (100 billion neurons)

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3
Q

What are the functions of the CNS?

A

process incoming sensory info; source of thoughts; emotions; memories; stimulate muscle contraction and glandular secretion.

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4
Q

What are the components of the PNS?

A

Nerves- bundles of hundreds to thousands of axons; 12 pairs cranial; 31 pairs spinal cord.

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5
Q

Ganglia

A

small masses of nervous tissue primarily nerve cell bodies; outside brain and cord.

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6
Q

Enteric plexus

A

extensive network of neurons in walls of organs of GI tract; regulate digestion.

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7
Q

Sensory receptions

A

monitors change in internal/external environment.

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8
Q

What are the divisions of the PNS?

A

Somatic NS and Autonomic NS

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9
Q

Somatic NS

A

sensory neurons take info from somatic receptors _ CNS; motor neurons conduct impulses from CNS _ skeletal mm only. (voluntary)

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10
Q

Autonomic NS

A

info flows from sensory receptors in visceral organs _ CNS; motor neurons conduct impulses from CNS _ smooth and cardiac mm and glands (involuntary)

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11
Q

What are the divisions of the motor portion of the ANS?

A

sympathetic; parasympathetic

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12
Q

Sympathetic

A

fight or flight

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13
Q

Parasympathetic

A

rest and digest

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14
Q

Enteric NS

A

brain of the gut - over 1 mil neurons in plexuses extend throughout GI tract.

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15
Q

What is nervious tissue composed of?

A

Neurons and Neuroglia.

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16
Q

Neurons

A

form complex processing network in brain and spinal cord; connect all regions of body to the brain and spinal cord; highly specialized cells; can reach great lengths; unique functions (sensing; thinking; remembering; control muscle activity; regulate gland secretions. Unable to undergo cell division (mitosis)

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17
Q

Neuroglia

A

smaller; greatly outnumber neurons; support; nourish; protect and maintain interstitial fluid that bathe neurons; can continue to divide throughout lifetime. _ Glue that holds nervous tissues together._

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18
Q

Cell Body

A

contains nucleus cytoplasm; with typical organelles; also free ribosomes and rough ER ( nissl bodies)

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19
Q

Axon

A

propagate nerve impulses toward another neuron; muscle fiber or gland.

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20
Q

Dendrite

A

receiving portion of neuron.

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21
Q

Neurofibrils

A

bundles of intermediate filaments provide cell shape and support.

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22
Q

Microtubles

A

assist in moving materials between cell body and axon.

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23
Q

Lipofuscin

A

yellow/brown clumps of pigmentin cytoplasm of aging neurons.

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24
Q

Nerve Fiber

A

any neuronal process that emerges from cell body of a neuron.

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25
Q

Axon hillock

A

cone shaped elevation where cell body joins axon.

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26
Q

Axoplasm

A

cytoplasm of an axon.

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27
Q

Axolemma

A

plasma membrane of an axon.

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28
Q

Axon Terminal

A

branching off of the axon collateral into fine processes.

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29
Q

Synapse

A

site of communication between 2 neurons of neuron and effector cell.

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30
Q

Synaptic end bulbs

A

swellings at tips of axon terminals

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31
Q

Synaptic vesicles

A

tiny membrane enclosed sacs store chemicals.

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32
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

chemical/molecule released from synaptic vesicle excites or inhibits another neuron; m fiber; or gland.

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33
Q

Describe slow axonal transport

A

1-5 mm per day; one direction; axoplasm from cell body toward axon terminals; supplies new axoplasm to developing axons; replenishes I for growing neurons.

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34
Q

Describe fast axonal transport

A

200-400 mm/day; proteins function as motors to move substances along surfaces of the microtubules of neurons cytoskeleton. BOTH directions- anterograde (forward cell body_axon terminals) Retrograde (backward; materials from axon terminals_cell body) Substances: trophic chemicals (nerve growth factor); harmful agents (tetanus toxin; viruses that cause rabies; herpes simplex; and polio)

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35
Q

What are the structural classifications of neurons?

A

multipolar; bipolar; unipolar; purkinji cells; and pyrmidal cells

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36
Q

What are the funtional classifications of neurons?

A

sensory; motor; interneurons

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37
Q

Multipolar neurons

A

several dendrites 1 axons; mostly in brain and cord and all motor neurons.

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38
Q

Bipolar neurons

A

1 main dendrite 1 axon; in retina; inner ear; olfactory area of brain.

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39
Q

Unipolar neurons

A

dendrites and 1 axon; fused form continuous process emerges from cell body AKA pseudounipolar; most act as sensory receptors that detect stimulus.

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40
Q

Purkinji cells

A

in cerebellum.

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41
Q

Pyrimdal cells

A

found in cerebral cortex.

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42
Q

Sensory function

A

afferent - receptors at distal ends of cells; most unipolar.

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43
Q

Motor function

A

efferent -Conveys AP away from CNS to effectors; multipolar.

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44
Q

Interneurons function

A

AKA association nerves; mainly in CNS between sensory and motor neurons; most multipolar.

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45
Q

What are the types of neuroglia?

A

Astrocytes; oligodendrocytes; microglia; ependymal cells; shwann cells; satellite cells

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46
Q

Nueroglia

A

glue that holds nervous tissue together; make up ¬ volume of CNS; do not generate/propagate AP; can multiply and divide in mature nervous system.

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47
Q

Astrocytes

A

star shaped; many processes; supporting cells for neurons; create blood brain barrier between blood and interstitial fluid; secrete chemicals in embryo to regulate growth; maintain appropriate chemical environment for generation of nerve impulse; influencing formation of neural synapses.

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48
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

smaller than astrocytes fewer processes; processes form myelin sheaths around CNS axons.

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49
Q

Microglia

A

small cells slender processes spine like projections; phagocytes.

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50
Q

Ependymal cells

A

cuboidal to columnar; microvilli and cilia; line ventricles of brain and central canal of spinal cord; circulation of CSF; blood CSF fluid barrier.

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51
Q

Schwann cells

A

in PNS; around PNS axons; form myelin sheaths around axons; axon regeneration.

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52
Q

Satelite cells

A

around cells bodies of neurons on PNS ganglia; structural support; regulate exchange of material between neuronal cell bodies and interstitial fluid.

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53
Q

What is myelin comprised of?

A

multi-layered protein and lipid covering

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54
Q

What are the similarities and differences between schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

A

Schwann cells form myelin sheaths around axons in the PNS; have ganglion cell bodies (clusters) and nerves (bundle of axons in PNS) contain neurolemma (only on axons of PNS); Oligodendrocytes processes form myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS; have nucleus cell bodies and tracts; no neurolemma. Both have nodes of Ranvier (gaps in sheaths) but less numerous in oligodendrocytes.

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55
Q

Compare and contrast clusters of neuronal cell bodies. What are they? Where are they found?

A

Ganglion- cluster of cell bodies in the PNS associated with spinal/cranial nerves; found in Schwann cells.; Nucleus- cluster in bodies of CNS; found in oligodendrocytes.

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56
Q

Know the difference between white and grey matter. Know where they will be found.

A

White matter- primarily mylenated axons.; Gray matter- primarily cell bodies dendrites; unmylenated axons; axon terminals and neuroglia; appears gray due nissl bodies and lack of myelin.; Spinal cord- white matter outside; gray inside. Brain- gray outside; white outside.

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57
Q

Where is white matter found?

A

outside

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58
Q

Where is grey matter found?

A

inside

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59
Q

What is the difference between an upper and lower motor neuron?

A

Upper motor neuron- a motor neuron that synapses with a lower motor neuron farther down in the CNS as opposed to the brain. Lower Motor Neuron- motor neuron that directly supplies skeletal muscle fibers.

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60
Q

What is resting membrane potential?

A

the voltage (charge) difference across the cell membrane when the cell is at rest. Its created by a small build-up of negative ions in the cytosol along the inside surface of the membrane and an equal build up of positive ions in the ECF along the outside surface of the membrane.

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61
Q

What is the typical RMP of a nueron

A

.-70 mV.

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62
Q

What are the factors that determine resting membrane potential?

A

3 factors-unequal distribution of ions in the ECF/cytosol; inability of most cytosolic anions to leave the cell; electrogenic nature of the Na+ -K+ ATPase_s.

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63
Q

What are the four types of a ion channel?

A

Leak channels; ligand gated channels; mechanically gated channels; and voltage gated channels

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64
Q

Leak channels

A

randomly alternate between open and closed positions; nearly all cells.

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65
Q

Ligand gated channels

A

opens and closes in response to binding of a ligand (chemical) stimulus; dendrites of some sensory neurons such as pain receptors.

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66
Q

Mechanically gated channels

A

opens or closes in response to mechanical stimulation in the form of stretching of internal organs; touch/pressure receptors in skin.

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67
Q

Voltage gated channels

A

opens in response to a change in membrane potential (voltage) all neurons.

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68
Q

What is a graded potential?

A

small deviation from resting membrane potential that makes a membrane either more polarized (inside more negative) or less polarized (inside less negative).

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69
Q

Hyperpolarizing GP

A

response makes inside more negative.

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70
Q

Depolarizing GP

A

response makes membrane less polarized.

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71
Q

What is the sequence of an action potential?

A
  1. Depolarization- reversal of the membrane polarization from -70mV to +30mV 2. Repolarization- recovery of the resting membrane potential from +30mV to -70mV 3. Absolute refractory period- during first part of this period; no matter how strong an impulse is another impulse cannot be stimulated. 4. Relative refractory period- a little later; an AP can be generated if it is larger than normal stimulus.”
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72
Q

What is salutatory conduction?

A

Action potentials can travel long distances w/ out getting small (unlike graded potentials) nerve impulses are able to jump from one node of Ranvier to another along a mylenated axon. This allows for faster than normal; continuous conduction and is called salutatory conduction.

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73
Q

What are the factors that affect the speed of propagation?

A
  1. Amount of myelination; myelination= faster speed 2. Axon diameter; larger = faster speed 3. Temperature; Cooler = slower speeds”
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74
Q

What are the classifications of nerve fibers?

A

A fibers; B fibers; and C fibers

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75
Q

A fibers

A

largest diameter; +myelination; 27-290 mph; sensory neurons associated with touch; pressure; pain and temp.

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76
Q

B fibers

A

medium diameter; +myelination; 34 mph; sensory nerve impulse from viscera to brain and spinal cord; autonomic nervous system.

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77
Q

C fibers

A

smallest diameter; all unmyelinated; 1-4 mph. Conduct some sensory (pain and temp) autonomic fibers that extend from autonomic ganglia to stimulated heart; smooth mm and glands.

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78
Q

What are the classifications of neurotransmitter recepters?

A

Iontropic recepters; and metabotropic receptors

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79
Q

What neurotransmitter interacts with an ionotropic receptor?

A

ligand-gated channel

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80
Q

What neurotransmitter interacts with an metabotropic receptor?

A

contains NT binding site but lacks an ion channel

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81
Q

What are the effects of the specific neurotransmitters.

A

Some NT are excitatory at some synapses and inhibitory at others; depends on the structure of the NT receptor it binds to. Ach can bind to ionotropic receptors containing cation channels and generate EPSP in the postsynaptic cell. Some inhibitory synapses Ach binds to metabotropic receptors couples to G proteins that open K+ channels_IPSP.

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82
Q

How is a nuerotransmitter removed from the synaptic cleft; name the different ways?

A

NT removed in 3 ways: 1. Diffusion (diffuse away from cleft); 2. Enzymatic degradation (ex. Acethycholinesterase) 3. Uptake by cells (active transport back into neuron by membrane proteins.”

83
Q

What is summation of a potential?

A

process by which graded potentials add together. The greater summation of EPSP_s the greater the chance that threshold will be reached.

84
Q

What is the difference between spatial and temporal summation?

A

Spatial Summation- summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time.

85
Q

What are the names of the enzymes that breaks down epinephrine norepinephrine and dopamine?

A

All are broken down by same enzyme catechol-omethyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO)

86
Q

What are the small molecule neurotransmitters?

A

Acetycholine; Amino acids; bigenic amines; ATP and other purines; Nitric oxide; and carbon monoxide

87
Q

Acetycholine basic function

A

excitatory and inhibitory.

88
Q

Amino acids basic function

A

glutamine and aspartate; inhibitory- GABA; glycine

89
Q

Bigenic amines basic function

A

norephinepherine (arousal/waking from sleep); epinephrine; dopamine (emotional response; addictive behaviors)

90
Q

ATP and other purines basic function

A

excitatory in both PNS and CNS

91
Q

Nitric oxide basic function

A

free radical; released by endothelial cells to cause vasodilation of blood vessels (Viagra)

92
Q

Cabon monoxide basic function

A

formed as needed; may protect against excess neuronal activity.

93
Q

What are neuropeptides?

A

3-40 amino acids linked by peptide bonds; CNS and PNS; excitatory and inhibitory; bind to metabotropic receptors; formed in the neuron cell body packaged into vesicles and transported to axons.

94
Q

Name 3 naturally occurring neuropeptides.

A

Enkephalins; opioids; substance P

95
Q

Enkephalins function

A

potent natural analgesic; 200x more potent than morphine.

96
Q

Opioids function

A

endorphins/dynorphins-thought to be case with acupuncture.

97
Q

Substance P function

A

enhances perception of pain; counters effects of nerve damaging chemicals; potential treatment for nerve degeneration.

98
Q

Plasticity

A

ability to change based on experience. In NS individual neurons can undergo change.

99
Q

Regeneration

A

ability to replicate or repair themselves.

100
Q

Neurogenesis

A

the birth of new neurons from undifferentiated stem cells.

101
Q

Epidermal growth factor

A

hormone like protein that stimulates cells taken from the brains of adult mice to proliferate into both neurons and astrocytes; also found important in wound healing and tissue regeneration.

102
Q

Which part of the brain can undergo neurogensis?

A

Hippocampus (site crucial for learning)

103
Q

Why is the rest of the brain and spinal cord not able to undergo neurogenesis?

A

Nearly complete lack of neurogenesis in other regions of the brain and spinal cord 2 factors: 1. Inhibitory influences from neuroglia- CNS myelin found on oligodendrocytes inhibits regeneration of neurons. 2. Absence of growth stimulating cues- present during fetal development.”

104
Q

What is the cause of MS?

A

autoimmune disease leading to progressive destruction of the myelin sheaths surrounding neurons in the CNS; Myelin deteriorates to sclerosis (hardened scars or plaques) genetic susceptibility; environmental exposure; possibly viral (herpes);

105
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of MS?

A

feeling heaviness/weakness in muscles; abnormal sensations; and double vision.

106
Q

What is the most common form of MS?

A

relapsing remitting; appears in early adulthood; attack followed by period of remission in which symptoms temporarily disappear; attack every year or two.

107
Q

Who is affected by MS?

A

Females 2:1; white; ages 20-40 yrs.

108
Q

What is the treatment for MS?

A

beta-interferon; lengthens time between relapse; decrease severity.

109
Q

What is Guillian-Barre’ Syndrome?

A

acute demyelinating disorder in which macrophages strip myelin from axons in the PNS.

110
Q

What is the cause of Guillian-Barre’ Syndrome?

A

likely the result of the immune system response to a bacterial infection.

111
Q

What is the manifestations of Guillian-Barre’ syndrome?

A

Ascending paralysis; most common cause of acute paralysis.

112
Q

What is giloma?

A

a malignant tumor affecting the brain or spine.

113
Q

What is nueroblastoma?

A

malignant tumor consisting of immature nerve cells (neuroblasts); most common in abdomen in adrenal glands; rare but most common tumor in infants.

114
Q

What is neuropathy?

A

disorder that affects the nervous system; particularly a cranial or spinal nerve; caused by b12 deficiency or diabetes.

115
Q

What are the brain vesicles that give rise to adult structures?

A

Telencephalon; diencephalon; mesencephalon; metencephalon; myeloencephalon

116
Q

Telencephalon

A

cerebrum and lateral ventricles

117
Q

Diencephalon

A

thalamus; hypothalamus; epithalamus; third ventricle

118
Q

Mesencephalon

A

midbrain; cerebral aquaduct

119
Q

Metencephalon

A

pons; cerebellum; upper part of 4th ventricle

120
Q

Myelencephalon

A

medulla oblongata; lower part of the 4th ventricle

121
Q

What are the major parts of the brain?

A

brainstem; cerebellum; diencephalon; cerebrum

122
Q

What are the major parts of the brain stem?

A

pons; midbrain; medulla oblongata

123
Q

What are meninges?

A

Meninges are the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

124
Q

What is the general difference between cranial and spinal meninges?

A

Cranial meninges- surround and protect brain; Spinal meninges- surround and protect the spinal cord

125
Q

Name the layers of the meninges

A

Dura mater; arachnoid mater; and Pia mater

126
Q

Dura mater

A

outer layer; 2 layers fused together- periosteal (outermost); meningeal layer (internal)

127
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

middle; lace like

128
Q

Pia mater

A

inner most; contains blood vessels

129
Q

Is there epidural space around the brain?

A

No epidural space around brain.

130
Q

Name the 3 extensions of dura mater that separate the different parts of the brain.

A

Falx cerebri; falx cerebelli; and tentorium cerebelli

131
Q

Falx cerebri

A

separate L/R cerebral hemispheres

132
Q

Falx cerebelli

A

separate hemispheres of cerebellum

133
Q

Tentorium cerebellum

A

separate cerebrum & cerebellum

134
Q

What are the general structures of the cerebrum?

A

Gyri; sulci; fissures

135
Q

Gyri

A

elevated ridges

136
Q

Sulci

A

depressions; central; lateral; parieto-occipital; insula

137
Q

Fissures

A

Big depressions; longitudinal fissure; lateral fissure; transverse fissure

138
Q

What is the corpus callosum? What is it composed of?

A

Corpus callosum- large bundle of white matter and axons that internally connects the 2 cerebral hemispheres

139
Q

Name the lobes of the cerebrum

A

Frontal; parietal; temporal; and occipital

140
Q

Function of frontal lobe

A

motor strip location; impulsivity; short-term memory; emotion; voluntary movement; social functioning; creativity; expressive language.

141
Q

Function of parietal lobe

A

sensory strip location; perception; touch (pain & temperature); ability to draw; reading and writing; calculations.

142
Q

Function of temporal lobe

A

hearing; long term memory; verbal and written recognition memory; receptive memory; music; initiation of verbal.

143
Q

Function of occipital lobe

A

perception; vision

144
Q

What are the types of white matter found in the cerebral white matter?

A

Types of fibers: Association; commissural; and projection.

145
Q

Basal ganglia

A

cerebral nuclei; several groups of paired nuclei w/in the white matter of the cerebrum; interconnected by many nerve fibers; receive numerous inputs from cerebral cortex; thalamus; and hypothalamus

146
Q

Basal ganglia function

A

ontrol of large; learned; semi-voluntary skeletal muscle movements; such as swing arms when walking; laughing; and regulation of muscle tone.

147
Q

Functions of cerebellum

A

coordinates skilled movements; regulates posture and balance.

148
Q

Charateristics of cerebellum

A

second largest part; consist of L and R hemispheres-connected by vermis; covered in cerebellar cortex; consists of folia instead of gyri; each hemisphere divided into anterior and posterior lobes by primary fissure.

149
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

The cerebellum is separated from the cerebrum by a fold of dura known as the tentorium cerebelli

150
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

oval structure above the midbrain; forming 4/5 diencephalon; consists of paired masses of gray matter organized into nuclei that form lateral walls of the 3rd ventricle.

151
Q

Why is the thalmus significant?

A

It is the principle relay station for sensory impulses (except smell) that reach the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord; brain stem; and other parts of the cerebrum.

152
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

small portion of the diencephalon 1/5; lies below the thalamus; primarily gray matter dividing into pairs of nuclei; each pair responsible for the control of particular homeostatic function;

153
Q

What is the general function of the hypothalmus?

A

1 of the major controllers of homeostasis

154
Q

What are the specific functions of the hypothalmus?

A
  1. Integration between nervous and endocrine systems 2. Control of autonomic NS 3. Regulation of rage and aggression 4. Regulation of body temp 5. Regulation of food intake 6. Regulation of thirst 7. Regulation of sleep-wake patterns 8. Regulation of sex drive”
155
Q

What are ventricles?

A

holes in the brain that are responsible for the circulation of CSF

156
Q

Trace the flow of CSF through the brain/spinal cord by way of the canals and ventricles. Start at the lateral ventricle.

A

Lateral- found in each cerebral hemisphere ; Third- in diencephalon; Fourth- in between pons and cerebellum; connects central canal and spinal cord”

157
Q

What is CSF?

A

clear fluid mostly water; protects brain and spinal cord from chemical and physical injury.

158
Q

What substances can be found in CSF?

A

Carries glucose; oxygen; electrolytes; cations/anions; proteins and urea.

159
Q

Function of CSF?

A

mechanical protection (shock absorbing medium); homeostatic (ph affects blood flow); circulation (exchange of nutrients and waste products)

160
Q

Where is CSF resorbed?

A

Majority formed in Choroid plexus; and resorbed at arachnoid granulations.

161
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

infants failure to resorb CSF; fluid expands and crushes the brain.

162
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

capillaries of CNS less permeable to substances; endothelial cells linked by tight junctions; astrocytes cover capillary surface.

163
Q

What substances are allowed through this barrier?

A

Only lipid soluble compounds diffuse into CNS; all others have to undergo active transport by astrocytes.

164
Q

What kinds of things can break down this barrier?

A

Inflammation; infection; cancer; immune disorders can break down barrier.

165
Q

What is the reticular activating system (RAS)?

A

sensory axons that ascend to the cerebral cortex traveling through the thalamus

166
Q

What is the function of RAS?

A

visual and auditory stimuli; mental activities; consciousness; prevents sensory overload.

167
Q

What is the result of inactivation of RAS?

A

Inactivation when asleep or a coma.

168
Q

What is the limbric system?

A

a functional region rather than anatomical; between the cerebrum and diencephalon.

169
Q

Function of limbric system

A

establishes emotional states and drives; links conscious functions of the brain stem; facilitates memory storage and retrieval.

170
Q

What are the special regions of the limbric system?

A

Amygdala; hippocampus; cingulate gyrus

171
Q

Amygdala

A

“fight or flight - initiates fear response; links emotion w/memory.

172
Q

Hippocampus

A

memory and learning

173
Q

Cingulate gyrus

A

expressing emotions via gestures and resolves mental conflicts

174
Q

What are the integrative centers of the brain?

A

Wernicke_s Area; Broca_s Area; Pre-frontal cortex.

175
Q

Wernicke_s area

A

general interpretive area; center of left hemisphere; gives meaning to auditory and visual cues

176
Q

Broca_s area

A

_speech center_; left hemisphere superior to lateral; coordinates motor controls for speech

177
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

anterior frontal lobes; prediction; estimation; and related emotion

178
Q

Basic function of left hemisphere

A

language; math; logic

179
Q

Basic function of right hemisphere

A

interprets sensory info; generate emotion; spatial visualization Each hemisphere sends info to the opposite side of the body. Hemispheres communicate for whole thought; if corpus callosum is cut they will work independently from each other; this has been used for treatment for surgeries.”

180
Q

What are the functional areas of the cerebra cortex?

A

Sensory; Motor; and Association areas

181
Q

Sensory areas

A

receive sensory input; and integrate and interpret sensations

182
Q

Motor areas

A

contain neuronal cells bodies; origin for practically all motor activities

183
Q

Association areas

A

make up several main areas that serve to connect the sensory and motor areas; integrative and interpretive functions

184
Q

Cerebrovascular accident

A

stroke; loss of blood supply to the brain; neuronal death occurs within minutes.

185
Q

Name the cranial nerves

A

Olfactory I; Optic II; Oculomotor III; Trochlear IV; Abducent VI; Trigeminal V; Motor muscles of mastification (6); Facial Nerve (VII); Intermediate Nerve; Vestibulocochlear VIII; Glossopharyngeal IX; Vagus X; Accessory XI; Hypoglossal XII

186
Q

Olfactory I

A

sensory

187
Q

Optic II

A

sensory

188
Q

Oculomotor III

A

Motor

189
Q

Trochlear IV

A

Motor

190
Q

Abducent VI

A

Motor

191
Q

Trigeminal V

A

Both

192
Q

Facial Nerve VII

A

Motor

193
Q

Intermediate Nerve

A

Both

194
Q

Vestibulocochlear VIII

A

Sensory

195
Q

Glossopharyngeal IX

A

Both

196
Q

Vagus X

A

Both

197
Q

Acessory XI

A

Motor

198
Q

Hypoglossal XII

A

Motor

199
Q

Function of Trigeminal V

A

sensory to the face; motor for chewing

200
Q

Function of Facial VII

A

motor to the mouth

201
Q

What nerves move the eyeball?

A

CNIII; IV;VI

202
Q

Function of Olfactory CN I?

A

smell

203
Q

Function of Vagus X?

A

sensory- aortic sinus and body related to blood pressure control; mucousa of respiratory and digestive systems Motor-muscles of the bronchial tree; digestive tract; pancreas; liver; and glands of the GI system.”

A&P 1 (14 decks)

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