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A&P 1 > Appendicular Skeleton > Flashcards

Appendicular Skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

Function of the pectoral girdle (shoulder)

A

to connect the upper limbs to the axial skeleton

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2
Q

Bones of the pectoral girdle (shoulder)

A

Clavicle and Scapula

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3
Q

Joint that connects sternal end of the clavicle with manubrium of sternum

A

sternoclavicular joint

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4
Q

Joint that connects scapula with the clavicle

A

acromioclavicular joint

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5
Q

Joint that connects scapula with the humerus

A

glenohumeral (shoulder) joint

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6
Q

Clavicle

A

Collarbone

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7
Q

Clavicle shape description (medial; lateral)

A

S-shaped [medial half curves toward you; lateral half curves away from you]

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8
Q

Sternal End (medial end) of Clavicle: Characteristics

A

rounded; forms the sternoclavicular joint when it articulates with the manubrium

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9
Q

Acromial end (lateral end) of Clavicle: Characteristics

A

broad; flat; forms the acromioclavicular joints when it articulates with the acromion of the scapula

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10
Q

Acromial end forms what joints?

A

Acromioclavicular joint

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11
Q

Sternal end forms what joints?

A

sternoclavicular joint

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12
Q

Causes of fractured clavicle?

A
  1. FOOSH can also cause a fractured clavicle; force transmitted can travel throughout the arm 2. Blow to the superior part of the anterior thorax [MVA]
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13
Q

Scapula

A

(aka: shoulder blade): large triangular; flat bone situated in the superior part of the posterior thorax between ribs 2 and 7

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14
Q

Scapula Spine

A

Prominent ridge running along the posterior surface of the scapula

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15
Q

Acromion (Scapula)

A

Flattened; expanded process; found at the lateral end of the spine

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16
Q

Glenoid Cavity

A

Found the lateral aspect of the scapula; accepts the head of the humerus

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17
Q

What joint does the Glenoid Cavity Form?

A

glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint)

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18
Q

Medial (vertebral) Border (Scapula)

A

Thin edge closer to the spinal cord

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19
Q

Lateral (axillary) Border (Scapula)

A

Thick edge closer to the arm (humerus)

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20
Q

Superior border (Scapula)

A

Superior edge of the scapula

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21
Q

Superior angle (Scapula)

A

Joining of the superior border and the medial border

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22
Q

Inferior angle (Scapula)

A

Joining of the medial and lateral borders

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23
Q

Scapular notch

A

Prominent indentation along the superior border; Passage: scapular nerve

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24
Q

Coracoid process

A

Projection off the anterior surface; off the lateral end of the superior border

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25
Q

What attaches to the coracoid process?

A
  1. Tendons of pectoralis minor; coracobrachialis; biceps brachii; 2. Ligaments of corocoacromial; conoid and trapezoid
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26
Q

Supraspinous fossa

A

Surface for attachment for supraspinatus muscle

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27
Q

Infraspinous fossa

A

Surface for attachment of the infraspinatus muscle

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28
Q

Subscapular fossa

A

Surface for attachment of the subscapularis muscle

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29
Q

How many bones are in the upper limb extremity; where?

A

Comprised of 30 bones in 3 locations: 1. The humerus in the arm; 2. The ulna and radius in the arm; 3. 8 carpals in the wrist; 4. 5 metacarpals in the palm ; 5. 14 phalanges in the digits

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30
Q

Describe the articulation of the humerus.

A
  1. Proximally with the scapula [shoulder joint]; 2. Distally with ulna and radius [forms elbow joint]
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31
Q

Head of the Humerus

A

end of the humerus; articulates with the glenoid cavity to form glenohumeral joint.

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32
Q

Anatomical Neck

A

former site of the epiphyseal plate; visible as an oblique groove

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33
Q

Greater Tubercle

A

lateral projection; distal to the anatomical neck; most laterally palpable bony landmark of the shoulder

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34
Q

Lesser tubercle

A

anterior projection

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35
Q

Intertubercular groove

A

found between the tubercles

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36
Q

Surgical neck

A

constriction on the humerus; just distal to the tubercles; where the head tapers to the shaft. [Named surgical neck because fractures often occur here]

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37
Q

Humerus body

A

shaft

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38
Q

Deltoid tuberosity

A

V-shaped area on the shaft that serves as a point of attachment for the tendons of the deltoid muscle

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39
Q

Radial Groove

A

posterior surface of the humerus; runs along the deltoid tuberosity; Structure: radial nerve

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40
Q

Capitulum

A

rounded knob on the lateral aspect of the bone; articulates with: head of the radius.

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41
Q

Radial Fossa

A

anterior depression above the capitulum that articulates with the head of the radius when the forearm is flexed (bent).

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42
Q

Trochlea

A

medial to the capitulum; spool-shaped surface that articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna

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43
Q

Coronoid fossa

A

anterior depression that receives the coronoid process of the ulna when flexed.

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44
Q

Olecranon fossa

A

large posterior depression that receives the olecranon of the ulna when the forearm is extended (straightened)

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45
Q

Medial and lateral epicondyle

A

rough projections on either side of the distal end of the humerus. Tendons of most muscles of the forearm attach here.

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46
Q

Where can the ulner nerve be palpated?

A

Ulnar nerve can be palpated just above medial epicondyle [pain experienced when you hit your funny bone]

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47
Q

Ulna

A

bone of the forearm found on the �little finger� side

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48
Q

Which ends are narrow and wide on the ulna?

A

Narrow at the distal end; widen at proximal end

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49
Q

Head of Radius

A

proximal

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50
Q

Neck of Radius

A

Inferior to the head of the radius

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51
Q

Radial Tuberosity

A

point of attachment for tendons of the biceps brachii muscle

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52
Q

Styloid process of the radius

A

lateral side of the radius; attachment for the bracioradialis muscle; attachmen of the radial collateral ligament

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53
Q

Ulnar Notch

A

Articulates with the head of the Ulna

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54
Q

Olecranon

A

forms the prominence of the elbow

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55
Q

Coronoid Process

A

anterior projection articulates with the trochlear of the humerus

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56
Q

Trochlear notch

A

large curved area between the olecranon and coronoid process; which forms the elbow joint.

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57
Q

Radial Notch

A

articulates with the head of the radius

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58
Q

Ulnar tuberosity

A

biceps brachii muscle tendon attaches here

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59
Q

Styloid process of the ulna

A

located on a posterior side of ulna�s distal end. Attachment of the ulnar collateral ligament

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60
Q

Head of ulna

A

Distal

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61
Q

Radius

A

smaller bone of the forearm; located on the thumb side

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62
Q

Which ends are narrow and wide on the radius?

A

Narrow at the proximal end and widens at the distal end

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63
Q

Where do a majority of 50+ adults fracture radius?

A

Fracture of the distal end of the radius is the m/c fracture in adults >50 yrs secondary to falls.

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64
Q

Where are the 3 joints found that articulate with the radius and ulna?

A
  1. Ulna; Radius & humerus [Elbow Joint]; 2. Head of the radius + ulnar notch [proximal radioulnar joint]; 3. Head of the ulna + radial notch [Distal radioulnar joint]
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65
Q

Interosseus Membrane

A

broad; flat fibrous connective tissue found between the shafts of the radius and ulna; site of attachment for deep muscles of the forearm

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66
Q

Radiocarpal joint (wrist) joint

A

Distal end of radius + 3 wrist bones [lunate; scaphoid triquetrum]

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67
Q

Carpus

A

proximal regions of the hand consisting of eight small bones called carpal bones

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68
Q

How is the carpus arranged?

A

two transverse rows of four bones each; their names reflect shapes

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69
Q

Intercarpal joints

A

Articulations among carpal bones

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70
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the carpus organization?

A

Stop Letting Those People Touch the Cadever’s Hand

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71
Q

What are the bones of the wrist or within the carpus?

A

Scaphoid; Lunate; Triquetrum; Pisfiorm; Trapezium; Trapezoid; Capitate; Hamate

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72
Q

What are the structures that pass through the Carpal Tunnel?

A
  1. Flexor tendons of the digits and thumbs; 2. median nerve
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73
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Narrowing of the carpel tunnel due to factors such as inflammation.

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74
Q

Metacarpals

A

bones of the palm (intermediate region of the hand)

75
Q

What are the Components of the Metacarpals?

A
  1. proximal base; 2. intermediate shaft; 3. distal head
76
Q

How are metacarpals labeled?

A

metacarpals are labeled I-V (Thumb side is I)

77
Q

Carpometacarpal Joints

A

base articulating with the distal row of carpal bones

78
Q

Metacarpophalangeal joints

A

heads articulating with proximal phalanges AKA. Knuckles

79
Q

Phalanges

A

14 bones of the digits; digits are labeled I-V (1-5) beginning with the thumb (lateral to medial)

80
Q

Phalanx

A

a single bone of a digit

81
Q

What does each phalanx consist of?

A
  1. Proximal base; 2. Intermediate shaft; 3. Distal head
82
Q

Describe the phalanges in the Thumb (pollex)

A

has a distal and proximal phalanges

83
Q

What are the other four digits philanges called?

A

proximal; middle and distal

84
Q

What does the complete ring of the pelvic girdle consist of?

A

hip bones; pubic symphysis; sacrum; coccyx

85
Q

What does the perlvic girdle consist of?

A

Pelvic (hip) girdle consist of two hip bones [AKA: coxal or pelvic bones or os coxa]

86
Q

Anterior joint of the pelvic girdle

A

pubic symphysis

87
Q

Posterior Joint of the pelvic girdle

A

Sacroiliac Joints

88
Q

Bony Pelvis

A

deep basin like structure is called a bony pelvis

89
Q

What are the functions of the bony pelvis?

A
  1. provides strong/stable support for vertebral column and pelvis; 2. protection of lower abdominal organs
90
Q

Pelvic girdle (of bony pelvis) function

A

Connects bones of the lower limbs to axial skeleton

91
Q

Illium

A

Largest of the three components of the hip bone

92
Q

Acetabulum

A

socket for head of the femur

93
Q

Greater Sciatic Notch

A

Sciatic nerve passes through this region

94
Q

Iliac Fossa

A

concavity where tendons of the iliacus muscle attaches

95
Q

Iliac tuberosity

A

point of attachment for sacroiliac ligament

96
Q

auricular surface

A

articulates with the sacrum; forms the sacroiliac (SI) joint

97
Q

What are the three arched lines on the lateral surface of the Ilium?

A
  1. Posterior gluteal line; 2. anterior gluteal line; 3. inferior gluteal line
98
Q

Ischium

A

inferior; posterior portion of the hip bone

99
Q

What is the ischium comprised of?

A
  1. Superior body; 2. Inferior ramus [part of the ischium that fuses with the pubis]
100
Q

What are the features of the Ischium?

A
  1. Ischial Spine; 2. Lesser sciatic notch; 3. Ischial tuberosity
101
Q

Obturator foramen

A

largest foramen in the body; ramus and pubis form this structure. It has nerves and blood vessels that pass through it; but it is also completely enclosed by a fibrous obturator membrane.

102
Q

Pubis

A

Anterior and inferior part of the hip bone

103
Q

What are the compoents of the Pubis?

A
  1. Superior ramus; 2. Inferior ramus; 3. Body [found between the superior and inferior ramus]
104
Q

True Pelvis

A

(Lesser pelvis): portion of the bony pelvis inferior to the pelvic brim

105
Q

What are the borders of the true pelvis?

A

Anterior: pubic bones; Posterior: sacrum and coccyx; inferiorly: ilium and ischium

106
Q

What are the contents enclosed in the true pelvis?

A
  1. Rectum; 2. Bladder; 3. Vagina (females); 4. Cervix of the uterus (females); 5. Prostate (males)
107
Q

Superior opening of true pelvis?

A

bordered by pelvic brim AKA: pelvic inlet

108
Q

Inferior opening of true pelvis?

A

pelvic outlet (covered by muscles at the floor of the pelvis)

109
Q

Pelvic azis of the true pelvis?

A

imaginary line that curves through the true pelvis from the central point of the plane of pelvic inlet to the central point of the pelvic outlet. This is the route a child takes in childbirth.

110
Q

False Pelvis

A

(greater pelvis): portion of the bony pelvis that is superior to the pelvic brim.

111
Q

Borders of False Pelvis

A

Anterior: abdominal wall; Posterior: Vertebral Canal; Lateral: upper portion of the hip bones

112
Q

What are the contents enclosed in the false pelvis?

A
  1. superior portion of the urinary bladder; 2. lower intestines; 3. uterus; 4. ovaries; 5. uterine tubes in females
113
Q

How does a male pelvis compare to a females?

A

Bones are heavier; larger; ? Larger surface markings

114
Q

Femur

A

thigh bone

115
Q

General Characteristics of the Femur

A
  1. Longest; heaviest bone in the body; 2. Proximal end forms the hip joint; 3. Distal end forms the knee joint
116
Q

Articulations of the femur.

A
  1. Femoral head + acetabulum (proximal) [forms the coxal or hip joint]; 2. Distal Femur + Tibia + Patella (distal)
117
Q

Body (shaft) of the femur

A

angled medially; knees are closer to the midline than hip joints

118
Q

Angle of convergence

A

angle of the shaft of the femur; greater in females d/t a broader pelvis

119
Q

Head of femur

A

rounded; articulates with the acetabulum

120
Q

Fovea capitus

A

central depression found on the head of the femur; ligament of the head of femur attaches here to attach femur to acetabulum

121
Q

Neck of the femur

A

Constricted region distal to the head; most common location of a hip fracture

122
Q

Greater Trochanter

A

larger projection from the junction of the femoral neck; attachment of tendons; landmark used for IM injections

123
Q

Lesser Trochanter

A

larger projection from the junction of the femoral neck; attachment of tendons; inferior medial to the G. trochanter

124
Q

Intertrochanteric Line

A

narrow line found between the anterior surface of the greater and lesser trochanter

125
Q

Intertrochanteric crest

A

[ridge located between the posterior surfaces of the trochanters

126
Q

Gluteal tuberosity

A

vertical ridge inferior to intertrochanteric crest on posterior surface of the femur; attachment of several thigh muscles

127
Q

Linea aspera

A

vertical ridge; attachment of several thigh muscles

128
Q

Medial condyle

A

articulate with the medial condyle of the tibia

129
Q

Lateral condyle

A

articulate with the lateral condyle of the tibia

130
Q

Medial epicondyle

A

found superior to medial condyle; ligaments of the knee attach here

131
Q

Lateral epicondyle

A

found superior to lateral condyle; ligaments of the knee attach here

132
Q

Intercondylar fossa

A

area between the condyles on the posterior surface

133
Q

Patellar surface

A

located between the condyles; anterior surface

134
Q

Adductor tubercule

A

roughened projection; site of attachment for the adductor magnus mm

135
Q

Patella

A

Knee cap; small triangular bone located anterior to the knee joint

136
Q

Patellofemoral ligament

A

located between the posterior surface of the patella and patellar surface of the femur. This is the intermediate component of the tibiofemoral knee joint.

137
Q

Base of the Patella

A

proximal end that develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris mm.

138
Q

Apex of the Patella

A

pointed distal end

139
Q

Two Articular facets of the Patella

A

Found on the posterior surface of the bone; 1. medial condyle ; 2. lateral condyle

140
Q

Functions of the Patella

A
  1. increases leverage of the tendon of the quadriceps femoris mm; 2. maintains position of the tendon when the knee is flexed (bent) 3. protects the knee joint
141
Q

Tibia

A

shin-bone; larger; medial; weight bearing bone of the lower leg

142
Q

What are the articulations of the tibia?

A
  1. proximal: femur + fibula; 2. Distal: fibula + talus
143
Q

What is the membrane called between the tibia and fibula?

A

interosseus membrane located between the tibia and fibula

144
Q

tibiofemoral knee joint

A

formed by the medial & lateral condyles of the tibia with the medial and lateral condyles of the femur

145
Q

intercondylar eminence

A

upward projection found between the condyles

146
Q

tibial tuberosity

A

anterior surface: attachment of the patellar ligament

147
Q

Anterior border

A

(crest) [found inferior and continuous with the tibial tuberosity]

148
Q

Medial malleolus

A

articulates with the talus of the ankle; forms prominence that can be felt on the medial surface of the ankle

149
Q

Fibular notch

A

articulates with the distal end of the fibula; forms distal tibiofibular joint

150
Q

Out of all the long bones in the body; which bone is fractured the most?

151
Q

Where is the site for the most frequenr site for open compound fractures?

152
Q

Fibula

A

smaller bone of the lower leg; parallel and lateral to the tibia. This bone does not articulate with the femur; but helps stabilize the ankle joint

153
Q

Is the fibula lateral or medial?

A

lateral: FibuLA is lateral

154
Q

Head of fibula

A

articulates with the lateral condyle of the tibia: forms the proximal tibiofibular joint

155
Q

Lateral malleolus articulation

A

with tibia at the fibular notch: forms distal tibiofibular joint. Lateral malleolus also articulates with the talus at the ankle.

156
Q

Tarus

A

proximal region of the foot

157
Q

What bones are composed in the foot

A

Calcaneus; Navicular; Three cuniforms (lateral; intermediate; medial); cuboid; talus

158
Q

Calcaneus

A

largest and strongest; posterior foot

159
Q

Navicular

A

anterior foot

160
Q

Three cuniforms

A

lateral; intermediate; medial; anterior foot

161
Q

Cuboid

A

anterior foot

162
Q

Talus

A

posterior foot; only bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula; articulates with the medial malleolus of the tibia and lateral malleolus of fibula] AKA: talocrual joint

163
Q

Intertarsal joints

A

joints between the tarsal bones

164
Q

Metatarsus

A

Intermediate region of the foot [contains a base; shaft and a head; articulate with cuneiforms to form tarsometatarsal joints] Numbered I-V

165
Q

Phalanges

A

distal component; numbered I-V Components: on phalanx has [head; base and shaft] [1st digit has a proximal and distal portion; II-V have proximal; intermediate and distal]

166
Q

What are the arches in the foot?

A

Longitudinal arch; transverse arch

167
Q

What structures form the arches?

A

Ligaments and tendons; fully developed by age 12-13 years old

168
Q

What are the functions of the arch?

A
  1. Support weight of the body [ball of the foot carries 40% of the weight; heel carries 60%] [high heels: ball =80%; heel=20%; 2. Provide ideal weight distribution; 3. Provide leverage when walking
169
Q

What are the two types of longitudinal arches?

A

Medial part and later part

170
Q

Medial Part of Longitudinal Arches

A

originates at calcaneus; rises through the talus; descends through the navicular; 3 cuneiforms and heads of the 3 medial metatarsals] This arch is so high; that medial portion of the foot doesn�t touch the ground when walking on a hard surface

171
Q

Lateral Part of Longitudinal Arches

A

begins at the calcaneus; rises at the cuboid; descends to the heads of the 2 lateral metatarsals]

172
Q

Transverse Arch

A

Location: between the medial and lateral aspects of the foot Bones that form this arch: navicular; 3 cuneiforms and bases of the 5 metatarsals

173
Q

Weight distribution

A

Normally: [ball of the foot carries 40% of the weight; heel carries 60%] High heels: ball =80%; heel=20%; can lead to joint pain and dysfunction; structural changes to the foot.

174
Q

Where do most skeletal tissues arise from?

A

cells (connective tissue cells derived from mesoderm)

175
Q

Where do the skulls tiise arise from?

176
Q

Describe the developmetn of the skull.

A

The development of the skull begins at week 4 after fertilization and develops from mesenchyme around the developing brain. There are two major portions of the skull.

177
Q

Neurocranium

A

[mesodermal origin]? forms the bones of the skull

178
Q

Viscerocranium

A

[ectodermal origin]? forms the bones of the face

179
Q

Two parts of the Neurocranium

A

Cartilaginous neurocranium and membranous neurocranium

180
Q

Cartilaginous neurocranium

A

Origin: hyaline cartilage developed from mesenchyme at the base of the developing skull; Process: undergoes endochondral ossification to form bones at the base of the skull

181
Q

Membranous neurocranium

A

Origin: mesenchyme; Process: undergoes intermembranous ossification to form flat bones that make up the roof and sides of the skull

182
Q

Two parts of the Viscerocranium

A

Cartilaginous Viscerocranium and Membranous viscerocranium

183
Q

Cartilaginous Viscerocranium

A

Origin: cartilage of the first and second (branchial) pharyngeal arches; Process: undergoes endochondral ossification to form ear bones and hyoid bone

184
Q

Membranous viscerocranium

A

Origin: hyaline cartilage developed from first (branchial) pharyngeal arch; Process: undergoes intramembranous ossification to form facial bones

A&P 1 (14 decks)

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