TC Exam Practice Questions Flashcards
A Control Zone is
(1) the same as a Control Area.
(2) controlled airspace about an airport that extends upward, vertically from the surface to 3,000 feet AGL.
(3) always Class D Airspace.
(4) controlled airspace along airways above 2,200 feet ASL.
2
Would the regulations be violated, if a pilot voluntarily landed an aircraft in bright moonlight at an aerodrome where the length of the landing area was indicated by a single row of white lights?
(1) There would be no violation, provided the lights were in the centre of the landing area.
(2) There would be no violation, provided the aircraft was equipped with a functioning landing light.
(3) Yes, the CAR for aerodrome minimum lighting would have been violated.
(4) There would be no violation, provided air to ground communication was available.
3
No person shall fly an aircraft in Canada unless
(1) it is registered.
(2) there is in force with respect to the aircraft a flight authority or permit.
(3) its nationality and registration marks are affixed to the aircraft in a proper manner, and are clear and visible.
(4) all of the above conditions are met.
4
No person shall, walk, drive or park a vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled aerodrome used for the movement of aircraft except in accordance with permission given by
(1) the operator of the aerodrome.
(2) a qualified representative of a commercial air service being operated from the aerodrome.
(3) a Federal Peace Officer.
(4) the aerodrome UNICOM operator.
1
No person shall fly or attempt to fly as a flight crew member of an aircraft if that person
(1) is less than 18 years of age.
(2) has consumed alcohol or drugs within the 72 hour period prior to take-off.
(3) is aware of being under any physical disability that might render that person unable to meet the requirements for the issue or renewal of their licence or permit.
(4) is over 60 years of age.
3
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way excepting that
(1) aeroplanes shall give way to rotary wing aircraft.
(2) helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
(3) gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
(4) power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
4
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall
(1) alter heading to the right.
(2) alter heading to the left.
(3) avoid the other by changing altitude.
(4) turn on the anti-collision lights.
1
Except as provided by the CARs, unless taking off, landing or attempting to land, no person shall fly an helicopter over a built-up area or over any open air assembly of persons unless the helicopter is operated at an altitude from which, in the event of an emergency necessitating an immediate landing, it would be possible to land the helicopter without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface, and, in any case, at an altitude that is not lower than blank space for the answer . . . . . above the highest obstacle within a radius of blank space for the answer . . . . . from the aircraft.
(1) 500 feet, 500 feet.
(2) 1,000 feet, 500 feet.
(3) 2,000 feet, 1,000 feet.
(4) 3,000 feet, 1 mile.
2
The amount of fuel carried on board any helicopter,at the commencement of any day VFR flight shall be sufficient, anticipated wind and other weather conditions having been considered, to fly
(1) from point of departure to destination at minimum cruising speed.
(2) to the destination, and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
(3) to the destination, and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.
(4) to the destination, thence to a specified alternate, and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
3
The signal to an aircraft in flight which means “give way to other aircraft and continue circling” is
(1) a steady red light.
(2) a series of green flashes.
(3) an intermittent white light.
(4) a succession of pyrotechnics showing red and green stars on bursting.
1
Any person holding a licence, permit or certificate issued under the authority of the CARs shall produce such document for inspection, upon demand by
(1) an airport owner or operator.
(2) any pilot holding a senior licence.
(3) a peace officer, or immigration officer.
(4) a pilot holding a valid instructor rating.
3
If your Private Pilot Licence is endorsed for night flying you may carry passengers at night provided you have completed at least blank space for the answer . . . . . take-offs and landings by night in the same category and class of aircraft during the blank space for the answer . . . . . months immediately preceding the flight.
(1) 2, 3.
(2) 3, 4.
(3) 5, 6.
(4) 10, 12.
3
An ATC clearance authorizing SVFR
(1) relieves the pilot of the responsibility for avoiding weather conditions beyond the pilot’s own flying capabilities.
(2) relieves the pilot of the responsibility of avoiding other aircraft.
(3) relieves the pilot of the responsibility of complying with the CARs.
(4) permits a pilot to fly in below VFR weather conditions without complying with the instrument flight rules.
4
An aircraft is in level cruising VFR flight above 3,000 feet AGL in Class E airspace. As the track is 315°, the aircraft shall be operated at an
(1) even thousand foot altitude.
(2) odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
(3) odd thousand foot altitude.
(4) even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
4
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight in a Control Area is
(1) 1 mile.
(2) 2 miles.
(3) 3 miles.
(4) 4 miles.
3
Pilots of aircraft are responsible for taking such action as is necessary to avoid a collision
(1) unless flying in accordance with an ATC clearance.
(2) only when flying in VFR conditions.
(3) except when within visual range of the control tower.
(4) at all times.
4
When in VFR flight within an “Altimeter Setting Region”, the altimeter should be set to
(1) the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight.
(2) 29.92 in. Hg. or 1013.2 mb.
(3) the station pressure of the nearest weather reporting station.
(4) the standard altimeter setting.
1
Runways at Canadian airports and aerodromes in the Southern Domestic Airspace are numbered to indicate, to the nearest even 10°, the runway bearing in degrees
(1) true.
(2) magnetic.
(3) compass.
(4) grid.
2
Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C TCA must
(1) request SVFR whenever the weather deteriorates below VFR limits.
(2) establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated Control Zone.
(3) receive a clearance from the appropriate ATC unit.
(4) contact Radar Service only when taking off or landing at the major airport concerned.
2
The holder of a student pilot permit may for the sole purpose of the holder’s own flight training, act as PIC of an aircraft
(1) only when accompanied by a flight instructor.
(2) by day and night.
(3) by day only.
(4) while carrying passengers.
3
Explosives or other dangerous articles shall not be carried on board any aircraft
(1) except as authorized by the Minister.
(2) unless the appropriate ATC unit is advised.
(3) in which passengers are carried.
(4) except weapons or ammunition required for warfare.
1
The manoeuvring area of an aerodrome is that area
(1) used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
(2) which includes the apron, taxiways and runways.
(3) used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
(4) normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
1
Any Canadian aviation document that has been cancelled or suspended under the CARs
(1) is valid for a further period of 30 days without penalty.
(2) may not be revalidated under any circumstances.
(3) shall be destroyed by the holder of the certificate or licence.
(4) shall be surrendered to the Minister.
4
“Operator”, in respect of an aircraft, always means the
(1) owner.
(2) lessee.
(3) person in possession of the aircraft.
(4) person renting the aircraft.
3
The east end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
(1) 090.
(2) 09.
(3) 270.
(4) 27.
4
If a heading of 250°M maintains your outbound track of 242°M, the required heading to maintain the reciprocal track back to your departure point would be
(1) 078°M.
(2) 070°M.
(3) 062°M.
(4) 054°M.
4
Refer to Appendix: CFS - Lindsay, Ont. (CNF4)
Select the correct statements regarding the aerodrome information.
A. Circuits are right hand on runway 13 and 20.
B. Aircraft radio controlled aerodrome lighting is available.
C. There are PAPI lights on both runway 31 and 13.
D. Customs service is available.
E. The Control Zone extends for 7 NM.
F. There is an FSS at the aerodrome.
G. Aviation gasoline is available.
(1) A, B, D, G.
(2) B, E, F.
(3) B, D, E, F.
(4) A, D, C.
1
- 5,500 feet
Outside Air Temperature (OAT)
+ 15° C
Indicated airspeed (IAS)
100 kt
Assuming indicated airspeed (IAS) is equal to calibrated airspeed (CAS), the true airspeed (TAS) would be closest to
(1) 90 kt.
(2) 94 kt.
(3) 107 kt.
(4) 110 kt.
4
Where a VFR flight plan has been filed and no search and rescue time has been specified in the flight plan, the pilot-in-command shall report the arrival to the appropriate ATS unit not later than
(1) 30 minutes after the last reported ETA.
(2) 1 hour after the last reported ETA.
(3) 12 hours after landing.
(4) 24 hours after landing.
2
The reported ceiling is 1,000 feet broken and visibility is 4 miles. To remain VFR, an aircraft cleared to the circuit must join
(1) at 500 feet below cloud base.
(2) at 700 feet AGL.
(3) in accordance with special VFR.
(4) as high as possible without entering cloud.
1
The smaller arc of the equator intercepted between the Prime Meridian and the Meridian of a place is a definition of
(1) longitude.
(2) local hour angle (LHA).
(3) Greenwich hour angle (GHA).
(4) latitude.
1
One minute of latitude is equal to
(1) one minute of longitude.
(2) one statue mile.
(3) one nautical mile.
(4) 5,000 feet.
3
An isogonal is a line on a map
(1) used to indicate deviation.
(2) joining points of equal variation.
(3) joining points of equal elevation.
(4) used to indicate compass direction.
2
An agonic line is as line of
(1) zero deviation.
(2) zero variation.
(3) mean sea level contours.
(4) equal contour heights.
2