Air Law And Procedures Flashcards
1
Q
Canadian Air Regulations (CARs) are made under the authority of
a.the provincial government.
b.the federal government.
c. Transport Canada.
d. the Aeronautics Act.
A
D
2
Q
Which authorities can request aircraft documentation?
Select one:
a.
A peace officer, an immigration officer, or a member of the armed forces.
b.
A peace officer, The Minister, or an immigration officer.
c.
The Minister, an immigration officer, or Nav Canada.
d.
An immigration officer or a peace officer.
A
B
3
Q
If a Canadian Aviation Document has been suspended or canceled, the person to whom it was issued shall
A
return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation.
4
Q
No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada unless its marks are
A
Visible and are displayed
5
Q
In the case of an aircraft registered in a foreign state the aircraft marks have to be displayed in accordance with
A
the laws of that foreign state
6
Q
Is there an exception to an aircraft not displaying its marks in Canada?
A
Yes, if it is submitted in writing and the minister gives written approval for the purpose of exhibition, air shows, tv shows or motion picture productions
7
Q
No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada other than a foreign registered aircraft unless..
A
the certificate of registration is issued and carried on board the aircraft.
CAR 202.26
8
Q
What happens when the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft transfers the legal custody and control of the aircraft?
A
the certificate of registration of the aircraft is cancelled.
9
Q
Where the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft transfers the legal custody and control of the aircraft, how long do you have to notify the minister of such transfer?
A
No later than 7 days
10
Q
Who has legal custody and control of a Canadian aircraft when the owner has complete responsibility for the operation and maintenance of the aircraft?
A
The owner
11
Q
No person who is not the registered owner of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft as part of a leasing operation without an authorization unless..
A
-The authorization is carried on board.
-The lessor and the lessee each hold a Canadian operator certificate issued in respect of the aircraft type to be operated.
-The lessee is qualified to be the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft.
-The maintenance control system and the maintenance schedule approved by the Minister.
-The crew members of the aircraft are employed by the lessee.
-The registered owner informs the Minister in writing no later than seven days after the term of the lease commences.
12
Q
What is an airport?
A
A certified aerodrome
13
Q
Define aerodrome
A
-Any area of land or water that is designed for the arrival, departure, movement, and servicing of aircraft.
-Known as a registered aerodrome in the CFS.
14
Q
What are the requirements to maintain airport status?
A
-It is Inspected and maintained to TC requirements.
-The current status is to be advertised to all interested aircraft operators through the CFS (Canada Flight Supplement), Canada Air Pilot (CAP), NOTAM, and voice advisory as applicable.
15
Q
What is the manoeuvring area of an airport?
A
parts of the aerodrome intended for taxiing, taking off and landing of aircraft
(Taxiways and Runways)
16
Q
Define apron
A
The area intended for the loading of cargo, passengers, refueling, parking, etc.
17
Q
What is the movement area of an airport?
A
Those parts of an aerodrome used for the surface movement of aircraft, including the manoeuvring areas and aprons.
18
Q
No person shall walk, drive, or operate any vehicle on any part of an aerodrome or airport used for the movement of aircraft, except with permission from..
A
The operator, or where applicable the appropriate ATC or FSS
19
Q
How are runways numbered?
A
Magnetic bearing rounded off to nearest 10 degrees. ( southern domestic airspace )
20
Q
How are boundaries of unprepared runways marked?
A
- conical or gable-type markers (highway-type cone markers are acceptable) or by evergreen trees in winter.
• Not more than 90 m (300 ft) apart along each side of the runway.
• No boundary markers are required if the entire movement area is clearly delineated from that of the surrounding ground.
• The markers are typically coloured international orange and white or solid international orange.
• Airports use international orange and white.
21
Q
How is a displaced threshold marked?
A
Line across runway with arrow heads pointing to it
Can be used for taxiing and the takeoff
roll or landing rollout from the opposite direction. IFR MUST KNOW
• Has not met the standard obstacle
clearance requirements for landing according to instrument procedures
• Landing before this mark is at pilot’s discretion, VFR can use.
• NOTE: When the threshold must be displaced for a relatively short period of time, painting a temporary threshold bar is impractical. Instead, flags, cones, or wing bar lights are installed to indicate the position of the displaced threshold.
-A NOTAM or voice advisory warning of the temporary displacement will contain a description of the markers and the expected duration of the displacement in addition to the length of the closed portion and the remaining usable runway.
22
Q
How is a stopway marked?
A
marked with yellow chevrons when its length exceeds 60 m.
• This area is not available for taxiing, the initial take-off roll, or the landing rollout.
MUST KNOW
• Pre-Threshold areas and Stopways are paved but non-load bearing.
• These are designed to stop an aircraft from overrunning the runway.
• Provides room to stop if an aircraft abandons takeoff
• The chevron markings may also be used on blast pads.
23
Q
How is a taxiway marked?
A
Yellow line down the centre.
24
Q
If there is no hold short line, how far back from the edge of the runway should you hold?
A
200ft, helicopters should hold 700 ft from operations.
25
Can you cross a runway without a clearance?
No
26
What side of a hold short line should you hold before entering runway?
Solid line side
After landing you may cross the line and hold on taxiway side until further instruction has been given.
27
What can you ask ATC for if you’re unfamiliar with the taxiways at an airport?
A progressive taxi
28
How are closed taxiway and runway markings identified?
Large white crosses (X) on the runway and yellow crosses (X) at each end of the taxiway
29
A horizontal windsock will indicate what wind speed?
At least 15 KT
30
Runways greater than …… require a windsock at each end.
1200 m or 4000 ft
31
How are night operation runways lighted?
two parallel rows of white lights or retro-reflective markers visible at least 2 miles in all directions. MUST KNOW
• Each line of lights or markers is not less than 420 m (1 377 ft) in length and contains no fewer than eight lights or markers.
• The lights mentioned above must be spaced at the same distance and not more than 60 m (200 ft) apart. CAR 301.07
32
What colours are night operation airport lights? (Runways, taxiway, and threshold light colours)
Runways - white
Taxiways - blue
Threshold - green or red when viewed from back.
33
How do you use an ARCAL System?
Key mic ( J ) 5 times
( K ) 7 times for max intensity, may also key 3 or 5 times on type k for low and medium intensity
It is advised that pilots re-key lights before approach to ensure reset of full 15 minute lighting period
34
What is a standard circuit?
1000 ft AGL left hand turns, UNLESS specified in CFS then use that.
35
Unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate air traffic control
(ATC) unit or except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at…
Less than 2000 ft AGL
• If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the aerodrome before joining the circuit to check the winds and traffic, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least 500 feet above the circuit altitude.
36
How often is the CFS updated?
Every 56 days
37
RSC (Runway surface condition) report must be provided when:
•There is frost, snow, slush, or ice on a runway.
• There are snow banks, drifts, or windrows on or adjacent to a runway.
• Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to a runway.
• The cleared runway width falls below the published width.
• The runway lights are obscured or partially obscured by contaminants.
• There is a significant change in runway surface conditions including a return to bare and dry conditions.
• As per the required minimum inspection frequency.
38
CRFI (Canadian runway friction index) is reported when:
• There is ice or frost on the runway.
• There is wet ice on the runway.
• There is slush over the ice on the runway.
• Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to the runway.
• There is a chemical solution on the ice on the runway.
• There is compacted snow on the runway.
• There is dry snow not exceeding a depth of 2.5 cm (1 in.) on the runway.
39
no person shall act as a flight crew member or exercise the privileges of a flight crew permit, license, or rating unless..
• the person holds the appropriate permit, license, or rating;
• the permit, license or rating is valid;
• the person holds the appropriate medical certificate; and
• the person can produce the permit, license or rating, and the certificate when exercising those privileges.
40
No person should act as a flight crew member of a foreign registered aircraft unless they hold and can produce while exercising such privilege:
• A Canadian license or permit, or
• A flight crew license or a document equivalent to a foreign license validation certificate, that is issued under the laws of the contracting state.
41
CPL-H privileges:
By day or night,
• (a) exercise the privileges of a ppl - helicopter
• (b) while engaged in providing a commercial air service by means of a helicopter of a type in respect of which the licence is endorsed with ratings, act as pilot-in-command of the helicopter, if the minimum flight crew document for the helicopter specifies a minimum flight crew of one pilot, or
• ii) co-pilot of the helicopter;
• (c) if qualified as a flight instructor in accordance with section 425.21 of Standard 425 - Flight Training, conduct flight instruction; and
• (d) exercise private pilot licence — helicopter privileges until the end of the medical validity period specified for the private pilot licence.
• Section (2), (3), and (4) address the possibility of a daylight-only restriction.
The holder of a CPL Helicopter may exercise the privileges of
• PIC of a helicopter with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, or
SIC of a helicopter requiring a minimum flight crew of two pilots
• Night rating
• PPL and fly at night.
• The holder of a Restricted CPL Helicopter can only fly during daylight hours and may also exercise the privileges of a PPL during daylight.
42
CPL-H requirements: age, medical fitness, knowledge, experience
-18 years
-cat 1 medical
-40 hrs CPL-H ground school
-60% on CPHEL Exam
-additional 40 hrs groschool no ppl-h
-100 hours flight time in helicopters
• 35 hours PIC
• 10 hours X/C
• (b) hold a PPL-H?
• 37 hours dual including:
• 15 hours adv. dual, incl. 5 hours X/C
• 5 hours night, incl 2 hours X/C
• 10 hours instrument
• 23 hours solo including:
• 2 hours X/C (dist: 45 min flight time) with 3 landings at other than departure
• 5 hours at night, incl. 10 takeoffs, ccts, and landings
• flight test Within 12 months of application
43
No person shall exercise the privileges of a license, permit, or rating unless they have acted as PIC or Co-pilot of an aircraft in the previous
5 years
44
Within ____ months preceding the flight you must complete a recurrent training program. What are your options?
24
• A flight review with an instructor.
• Attend a safety seminar conducted by TC.
• Participate in an TC approved recurrent training program.
• Complete the self-paced study program.
• Complete a training program or PPC.
• Complete the requirements for the issuance or renewal of a license permit or rating.
• Complete the written exam for a license, permit or rating..
45
How many takeoffs/landings must you complete in order to carry passengers?
5 takeoffs or landings within the last 6 months in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
• during the day or at night, if the flight is conducted by day;
• at night, if the flight is conducted wholly or partly by night.
46
To act as a flight crew member in commercial operations complete
3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
• Helicopters have to transition to forward flight in order for one takeoff and landing to count.
47
What do you need in order to execute instrument privileges?
you must complete an instrument flight test in an aircraft or approved flight training device within the previous 24 months.
• After the first 12 months, the pilot must complete 6 hours of instrument time including 6 approaches to minimums in the past 6 months to be able to use the privilege of an instrument rating.
48
All applicants and holders of a permit, license, or rating must maintain a personal log which must include
• The date of flight.
• Aircraft type and registration.
• Flight crew position.
• Flight conditions (VFR, IFR, Day, Night).
• Point of departure and arrival.
• Flight time.
49
When do you need a hearing test for cat 1 medical?
At initial exam for cat 1 medical, and not again until first medical after age 55 unless done within preceding 60 months
50
When do you need an ECG for a cat 1 medical
For a Category 1 medical, an ECG is required
• at the initial exam when under 30;
• within 24 months preceding the exam age 30 to 40;
•within 12 months preceding the exam when over 40.
51
What day of the month does your medical expire?
The last day of the month of expiry on your medical
52
How long is cpl medical valid for?
Cpl - 12 months, reduced to 6 if you’re OVER 40 and engaged in passenger operations, as well as 6 months if you’re over 60
Pplh - 60 months under 40
24 months over 40
The holder of a CPL or ATPL may exercise the privileges of a PPL until the end of the validity period for PPL** exam question?
53
You may not exercise privileges if you are taking drugs, have received medical treatment, have entered the 30th week of pregnancy or prior to 6 weeks after giving birth unless
Authorized in writing by the minister
54
The class of airspace, the dimensions of this airspace, and the VHF frequencies for high density airports in Canada are given in what publications?
• The VFR Navigation Charts (VNC)
• The VFR Terminal Area Chart (VTA)
• The Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS).
55
Who has the responsibility to avoid other aircraft, maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, adhere to minimum altitudes over built-up areas and non-built-up areas, and to remain in VFR weather in all classes of airspace?
Pilot in Command
56
Define controlled airspace
airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided.
57
Define a control zone (CZ)
controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface up to and including 3 000 feet AAE (above aerodrome elevation) - unless otherwise specified.
58
Define transition area
airspace with defined dimensions
• Often used to get into or out of a Control Zone.
• Based at 700 feet AGL
unless otherwise specified
• Caution! Sometimes it can be described with an ASL floor.
• Normally it will be placed at a radius of 15 NM from the aerodrome coordinates.
59
What are dimensions of LLA? (Low Level Airspace)
Surface to below 18,000 feet ASL
60
What is a control area extension?
controlled airspace of defined dimensions within the low-level airspace extending upwards from 2 200 feet AGL - unless otherwise specified.
61
Where would you see a TCA (Terminal Control Area)?
high volume traffic airports to provide an IFR control service to arriving, departing and en route aircraft. Rules are established by the classification of the airspace within the TCA.
The Area Control Center ACC will control a TCA during periods when a TCU is not in operation;
The floor of a TCA shall not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
62
A TCA and the associated CZ could be classified as what airspace?
Class B, C, or D airspace.
• No Class B TCA is Canada at this time.
63
In what airspace is a transponder mandatory?
All Class A, B and C airspace require a
transponder and as specified in the
Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH).
• Class D and E airspace MAY require a transponder
64
What do you do if a transponder with mode c fails?
Proceed to aerodrome of intended landing
65
Can you operate in transponder airspace without a mode c if ATC provides a service?
Yes, only if approval was requested in advance of entering the airspace and aviation safety is not likely to be affected.
• This approval may be given to allow an aircraft with transponder failure to proceed to a maintenance facility.
66
What airspace could a TCA be listed as?
• A Terminal Control Area could be listed as Class B, C, D, or E. remember it is based around bigger, busier airports in Canada
67
Define class G airspace
•Surface up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL
•It will be uncontrolled.
• In uncontrolled airspace, Air Traffic Control (ATC) has neither the authority nor the responsibility to exercise control over air traffic.
• No traffic separation - pilots must see and avoid using the right of way rules.
• Pilots broadcast en route on 126.7 MHz.
• Class G is 99% of Canadian Airspace.
68
Define class F airspace
Special use Advisory airspace - Although not specifically restricted from operating within, all aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless they are participating in the activity taking place. MUST KNOW
• If necessary, pilots of non-participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, extra vigilance is recommended.
• Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
• Advisory areas are numbered.
• Example: CYA 402(M).
• Unless otherwise specified, when in a Class F advisory uncontrolled airspace area, 126.7 MHz would be an appropriate frequency.
• Pilots should broadcast their intentions when entering and leaving the area, and communicate, as necessary, with other users to ensure flight safety in the airspace.
• NOTE: Military operations in Class F airspace may be UHF only.
• This means that you might not hear their broadcasts on a civilian (VHF) radio.
69
Define each of the class f symbols
(A)
(F)
(H)
(M)
(P)
(S)
(T)
70
Can you fly in a class f cyR restricted advisory airspace?
• No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace unless permission has been obtained from the user agency.
71
Way are two additional methods in which airspace can become restricted?
• For a forest fire.
• Any other means that the Minister deems worthy.
72
What happens when CAR 601.16 is invoked? Is it class f airspace?
No it is unclassified, it allows the minister to restrict flight around/over forest fire areas. It allows it to be invoked quickly via a NOTAM issued by TC
Section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act allows the Minister to restrict flight in any airspace, for any purpose, by NOTAM.
• This authority is delegated by the Minister to cover specific situations for a temporary period, such as wild fires, disaster areas, etc., for the purpose of ensuring safety of flight for air operations in support of the occurrence.
73
How far from a forest fire must you stay away at minimum?
5 nm and 3,000 ft AGL, unless otherwise stated by a NOTAM
74
Define class E airspace
• Airspace that is designated where an operational need exists for controlled airspace but does not meet the requirements for Class A, B, C, or D.
• VFR aircraft do not require permission to enter and are not required to establish communication with an ATS unit prior to entering.
• Except for mandatory frequency (MF) areas within a CZ.
• Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or control zones that are established without an operating control tower may be classified as Class E airspace.
• there are no special communication requirements for VFR in Class E controlled airspace.
• That said, VFR aircraft are required to meet the controlled airspace weather minimums.
75
What type of stations are commonly associated with class E control zones?
• FSS - flight service station
• RCO - remote communication outlet
• AAS - aerodrome advisory service
• RAAS - remote aerodrome advisory service
• CARS - community aerodrome radio station
• UNICOM - universal communication
76
Do VFR pilots need to meet control zone weather minimums in a class E control zone?
Yes
77
When a class E CZ ground station is in operation, what are the procedures? What if not in operation?
When a ground station is in operation, for example: a FSS, a RCO through which RAAS is provided, a CARS, or an Approach UNICOM, then the aircraft reports that are required for operating within, and prior to entering a MF area, shall be directed to the ground station.
• However, when the ground station is not in operation, then the aircraft reports that are required for operating within and prior to entering an MF area shall be broadcast!!
78
When ATC is not in operation in class c or d airspace, what class does it become? Is it still controlled? What about weather minima?
Class D or C airspace will change to class E airspace when the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation.
• yes it is still controlled airspace and you still need to maintain vfr weather minimums for a CZ
• Use ATF (aerodrome traffic frequency) or MF (mandatory frequency) procedures, as appropriate to the location.
79
What is traffic information? (Given by ATC)
advises pilots of known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to their aircraft's position or intended route of flight warranting their attention.
80
What is conflict resolution? (Given by ATC)
resolution of potential conflicts between IFR and VFR aircraft and between VFR aircraft that are identified and in communication with ATC.
81
Define class D airspace
Controlled airspace within which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
• VFR flights must establish two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit prior to entering the airspace.
MUST KNOW
• Aircraft will be provided with traffic information.
• Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will be provided between VFR and IFR aircraft, and upon request between VFR aircraft.
MUST KNOW
• Runway separation is provided between all aircraft.
• A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class D airspace shall ensure that:
(a) the aircraft is equipped with:
radio communication equipment capable of two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and (ii) where the Class D airspace is specified as transponder airspace, a transponder and automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment; and
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
82
Can you fly NORDO in class D?
Yes, in daylight, in VMC if they have prior permission to enter from ATC unit
Best to call in advance as they may or may not approve your plan.
83
Define class C airspace
• Controlled airspace both IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
• VFR require a clearance from ATC to enter.
• Conflict resolution is provided, when necessary, to resolve possible conflicts between VFR and IFR aircraft.
• All aircraft will get traffic information.
• Conflict resolution between VFR aircraft provided upon request, after VFR aircraft are provided with traffic information.
• Runway separation is provided between all aircraft.
• aircraft in VFR flight in Class C airspace must have
• two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit.
• transponder and automatic pressure-altitude (Mode C or Mode S) reporting equipment, and
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
84
Can you fly NORDO into class C airspace?
Yes, in daylight, in VMC, you may fly without radio or transponder but permission MUST BE OBTAINED PRIOR TO THE OPERATION BEING CONDUCTED.
Call before departure, with time of arrival. They may or may not approve your plan
85
Define Class B airspace
• Is designated where an operational need exists to provide Air Traffic Control (ATC) service to IFR and to Control VFR (CVFR) aircraft.
• This is all low level controlled airspace above 12 500 feet ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL.
MUST KNOW
• Control Zones and associated Terminal Control Areas may also be classified as Class B airspace (but there are none in Canada at this time).
• All aircraft are subject to ATC clearances and instructions.
• ATC separation is provided between all aircraft.
• Pilots intending to fly CVFR shall file a flight plan and obtain an
ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace.
• The ATC clearance will not normally be issued prior to takeoff unless the airspace is within a control zone that is Class B.
• The clearance will normally be issued upon receipt of a position report filed by the pilot upon reaching the last 1 000 feet altitude below the base of Class B or before entering it laterally.
• This procedure is intended to ensure that the radio equipment is operating and to remind the pilots that, while outside of Class B airspace, ATC separation is not provided and that they must maintain a vigilant watch for other traffic.
• The ATC clearance will contain the phrase "MAINTAIN VFR".
86
What is a low level Airway?
• Controlled low-level airspace that extends upward from 2 200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18 000 feet ASL.
• Pilots operating VFR on an airway should continuously monitor 126.7 MHz when not communicating on a MF or ATF.
• VFR must maintain the controlled airspace weather minimums.
• 3 miles visibility day and night
• 1 mile horizontally from and 500 feet vertically above or below cloud (only FEW or SCT layers)
87
What are the 3 types of low level airways?
T-route
LF/MF
VHF/UHF
88
What are the dimensions of each of the 3 low level airways?
VHF/UHF ( VOR-VOR ) 4 nm each side of centre line (victor airway) black solid line centre lo chart,
solid line vnc
LF/MF (NDB-NDB, NDB-VOR) 4.34 nm each side of centre line (shaded green centre line lo chart)
see thru line, shaded borders at edge of airway vnc
T-Route 10 nm each side of centre line, line not shown on VNC BUT AIRWAY IS
•Dashed black line, starts with T lo chart
No centre VNC have to look for edges.
89
What do solid green, green/white hatched, white, and grey mean on a LO chart?
Solid green- uncontrolled airspace
Gr/wh hatch- class B above 12,500 ft ASL
White- controlled airspace
Grey- bodies of water
90
What is a low level air route?
• Extends upward from the surface of the earth, and for which ATC service is not provided, up to but not including 18 000 feet
ASL.
• Low-level air routes are contained within Class G airspace.
• They are basically the same as a low-level airway, except that they extend upwards from the surface of the earth and are not controlled, and ATC separation is not provided to VFR or IFR aircraft.
• The lateral dimensions are identical to those of a low-level airway.
Look like this below..
— • — • — • — • —
91
Who is exempt from entering a forest fire area?
Aircraft, operated by a Department of Transport personnel, involved with surveillance and enforcement of Aviation Legislation, are not prohibited from entering, with permission of the fire control authority.
92
No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless
• The pilot's seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft; or,
• Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving.
93
Can you refuel an aircraft while an engine of the aircraft is running and passengers are on board the aircraft or are embarking or disembarking?
Yes as long as proper cars are followed (703,704,705)
94
No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless..
• The pilot's seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft
• Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving.
95
No person shall leave an engine of an aircraft running unless..?
• A pilot's seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft;
• Where no persons are on board the aircraft precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving and the aircraft is not left unattended.
96
Can you take off if any critical surfaces have snow or frost on them?
No
97
What are some examples of critical surfaces?
• Wings
• Control surfaces
• Rotors
• Propellers
• Horizontal and vertical stabilizers
• Any other stabilizing surface(s)
• In an aircraft with a rear mounted jet engine - the upper area of the fuselage
98
No person shall over fly a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons unless
the aircraft is operated at an altitude from which in the event of an engine failure it would be possible to land the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
It is a takeoff, landing, or approach
99
What is the built-up area minimum distance and altitudes for a helicopter?
What about non built up areas?
Height above national parks?
1,000 feet above highest obstacle and 500 feet horizontally (Airplanes are 1,000 vertical and 2,000 horizontal)
500ft from person, vessel, vehicle, structure
2,000 feet AGL
100
An aircraft may be permitted to fly below permissible low altitude if..?
• During a Police Operation
• To Save a Human Life
• Fire-fighting or Air Ambulance Operations
• For the purpose of Flight Inspection
• An Aerial Application
• Helicopters - external load operations
• Flight training conducted by or under the supervision of a qualified flight instructor.
101
When is it prohibited to perform a parachute descent? And when can an exception be made?
• Will drop into or operate in either controlled airspace or an air route.
• Over or into a built-up area.
• Over an open-air assembly of persons.
• An exception can be made for the above if the pilot applies for and receives a Special Flight Operating Certificate. (SFOC) MUST KNOW
102
No PIC of an aircraft shall permit a person to leave the aircraft during flight unless
• special permission for air shows;
• the person leaves for the purpose of making a parachute descent.
103
Where is it allowed to conduct aerobatic manoeuvres?
• Over a built-up area or open-air assembly of persons.
• In controlled airspace unless it is in accordance with a special flight operations certificate.
• When the visibility is greater than 3 miles.
• Below 2 000 feet AGL except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate.
104
Can you jettison fuel from an aircraft?
Only if
• It is necessary to do so in order to ensure aviation safety.
• All appropriate measures are taken to minimize danger to human life and damage to the environment, insofar as the circumstances permit.
105
What is an ATC clearance?
• An Air Traffic Control Clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed with a certain action.
• Example GGGP you are cleared to land runway 18.
• You must comply with all of the Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearances received and accepted by the PIC and in the case of a VFR flight, read back to the appropriate ATC unit the text of any ATC clearance received, when so requested by the ATC unit.
• Acknowledge that a clearance has been accepted by using the aircraft call sign.
• Remember to read back all hold short clearances and to HOLD SHORT where you are supposed to.
106
What is an ATC instruction?
• An ATC instruction is a directive which a PIC must acknowledge and comply with.
• Comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate ATC unit, all of the ATC instructions directed to and received by the PIC
• While a clearance requires a read back, when so requested by ATC, "CLEARED TO DESCEND TO 3 000, ZULU YANKEE INDIA"; VS
• An instruction "ZULU YANKEE INDIA" to acknowledging a new heading.
• You must comply with all instructions provided that safety is not jeopardized.
107
What are the airspeed limitations below 10,000 ft ASL?
What about below 3,000 and within 10 nm of an airport?
250 KT Below 10,000 ASL
200 KT within 10 nm of a controlled airport unless authorized otherwise by ATC
108
Cruising altitudes are based on what track and altitudes?
NDA - true track
SDA - magnetic track
Start at 3,000 ft AGL
0-179 odd thousands plus 500 VFR
180-359 even thousands plus 500 VFR
• The PIC shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at an altitude or FL appropriate to the track unless assigned an altitude or FL by an ATC or by permission from the Minister.
• RVSM flight levels appropriate to aircraft track are applicable in designated RVSM airspace.
109
What is the standard pressure region?
• This includes the Northern Domestic Airspace and all airspace at and above 18 000 feet ASL (aka High Level Airspace).
• In this region the altimeter is set to 29.92 inches of mercury for cruise flight.
• Pilots MUST reset the altimeters AFTER entering and BEFORE leaving the Standard Pressure Region.
• When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from an airport within the Standard Pressure Region change the altimeter immediately prior to reaching desired flight level.
• When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from the Altimeter Setting Region change the altimeter immediately after ascending through 18 000 feet ASL.
• When descending out of Standard Pressure Region change to the nearest current en route altimeter setting immediately before passing through FL180.
110
What is the altimeter setting region?
• This region is in the Southern Domestic Airspace up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL.
• Altimeters must be set to the current altimeter setting or to the elevation of the airport before taking off.
• In cruise altimeters should be set to the nearest station along the route of flight and when approaching an airport to land it should be set to the current setting of that airport.
111
When does “flight” time start?
• Flight Time starts as soon as the aircraft is first moved under its own power for the purpose of a flight.
• Flight Time ends once the aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight.
112
What is air time?
• Air Time starts once the wheels become airborne and it ends once the wheels touch the ground again.
• Air Time is what is recorded in the aircraft's Journey Logbook.
• It determines when the next inspection is due.
• Flight Time is what you get to record in your Pilot Logbook.
• It determines your level of experience.
113
Can you operate a class b,c, or d external load over a built up assembly of persons?
No, only class a
114
What is an example of a class A external load?
A load that does not go below the skids ( cargo rack mounted to skids )
115
What is an example of a class B external load?
Load that does not touch the ground ( long line load )
116
What is an example of a class C external load?
Load that is in contact with the ground (cable/wire pull)
117
What is an example of a class D external load?
A Person (hoisting operations)
118
What are the exceptions to carrying a class B, C, or D load over a built up assembly of persons?
- SFOC
- Authorization from minister
- Authorized in your AOC
- Complies with CASS (commercial air service standards)
119
Can you carry a passenger on board during aerial application at less than 500 ft other than a flight crew member?
No, unless they are essential to the operations.
120
When can the PIC of a helicopter permit a person to enter or leave during flight?
- low hover
- person is asked to enter alight or directly onto the surface
- it is in your AOC and you’re authorized to do so.
-operator complies with CASS
- if helicopter is equipped for hoisting / rappelling
121
Proper ways to enter/leave a helicopter
- keep head down for maximum rotor clearance
- Always approach from front or sides where pilot can see you
- Always approach or leave from downslope side
- Wait for pilots signal to approach or instructions to enter or leave.
122
What is flight level expressed as?
100’s of ft
123
FL050 is what altitude?
FL290
FL004
5,000 ft
29,000 ft
400 ft
124
What do you set altimeter to in altimeter setting region before departure?
What about en route?
On arrival?
How long is an altimeter setting considered current?
When should you take caution with current altimeter settings?
Current setting of aerodrome. If not available, use field elevation of aerodrome.
En route: nearest station along route of flight. If farther than 150 nm, the station closest to the route
On arrival: set to current aerodrome of landing
Considered current up to 90 minutes
Take care after 60 minutes or when pressure is reported as falling rapidly.
125
What altitude is the standard pressure region found?
What is a general operating rule?
18,000 ft ASL (FL180)
No person shall operate in SPR unless altimeter is set to 29.92 (1013.2 mb)
126
What do you set altimeter for standard pressure region before departure?
En route?
On arrival?
Departure: current alt setting of that aerodrome
En route: immediately before reaching FL 180, set to standard pressure. Or if below, set just before flight level.
On arrival: before descending in SPR set altimeter to current aerodrome of landing. If doing a hold, must be kept at SP until just before descending from hold.
127
Where do you make change of altimeter setting when transitioning from SPR to ASR?
Must change on SPR side, either after entering or before leaving
128
What are the rules for changing altimeter setting descending into ASR?
- Set altimeter JUST before entering ASR
- setting should be given by ATC in clearance, if not, request it
129
What are the rules in regards to operating a helicopter with emergency equipment on board?
Cannot operate without emergency equipment, must be functional and meet airworthiness standards
130
What equipment MUST be on board for power driven aircraft?
-Checklist
-current charts, and charts of diversion airports
-hand held fire extinguisher
-timepiece
-first aid kit
- NIGHT requires flashlight for each crew member
131
What is the requirement for survival equipment for each person on board?
Where can you find the lists for each geographical region?
Means for:
-starting a fire
-providing shelter
-providing or purifying water
-visually signalling distress
Company procedures may differ.
The lists can be found in the AIM (survival advisory info)
132
When do you need to carry life preservers?
How do they need to be stowed?
What is the distance for a single/multi engine helicopter from shore?
What are the exceptions?
Beyond a point you could safely reach shore if engine fails.
Must be stowed so each passenger can reach when seated.
25 nm or 15 minutes of flight at cruising speed as indicated on flt plan or itinerary, whichever is less.
Exception is if you carry a life raft on board and are rated to carry all pax on the raft
133
What are the rules for transportation suits over water?
Less than 10 degrees Celsius, must be worn by all passengers.
134
Whose responsibility is it to ensure aircraft is safe for flight?
Who has the final authority?
What must the pilot be aware of prior to the flight?
PIC for both, they must be aware of all information and weather relevant to intended flight.
135
When do you need to file a flight plan or itinerary?
What is one of the main reasons to file a plan?
-Beyond 25 nm from departure aerodrome
-Flying into or within an ADIZ
Main reason is for search and rescue
136
Who do you file a flight plan/itinerary with?
What is a responsible person?
When does a SAR commence on both?
Filed with FIC/FSS
A responsible prison is someone who has agreed to report the aircraft overdue.
Flight plan- once the SAR time specified has been exceeded
Flight itinerary- once time has been exceeded in other cases 24 hours after ETA
137
When do you close a flight plan and where?
-If towered, they will auto close it, but always good to check
- if controlled but not towered, close with FSS by phone or frequency if in range
138
What are the fuel requirements for a helicopter by day and night?
-Day or night VFR - to fly to the destination aerodrome then fly for a period of 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.
-Commercial operations night VFR 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
139
What is reserve fuel?
What is contingency fuel?
What are some examples of contingency fuel?
- Reserve Fuel - extra fuel carried for the unforeseeable, what cannot be planned for.
- Contingency Fuel - extra fuel carried for the foreseeable, what can be planned for.
-Weather, traffic, extra taxiing, unfamiliar with area.
140
What do you need to do if you divert from an aerodrome of intended landing?
Why do you inform them?
You must inform FSS, ATC, FIC asap.
You inform them because your flight plan is the main source of info for SAR. They will search usually max 15 nm from each side of your route, from last known point to destination.
141
Do you need to file a flight plan to fly from Canada to a foreign state?
Yes, VFR and IFR must file a flight plan. Contact customs 2 hours in advance. You must file a flt plan to acceptable customs destination and contact CBP to make arrangements before flight. If not you can get penalized
142
The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that each crew member has been instructed with respect to:
• The duties that the crew member is to perform.
• The location and use of all of the normal and emergency exits and of all of the emergency equipment that is carried on board the aircraft.
143
What is included in a passenger briefing?
- dangers of rotor and tail rotor areas.
- Location and means of operation of emergency and normal exits.
• Location and means of operation of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and restraint devices.
• Positioning of seats and the securing of seat backs and chair tables.
• Stowage of carry-on baggage.
• no smoking.
144
What is an MF area?
Will there be a ground station on site
What type of ground stations are there in an mf area?
-Mandatory frequency area, will be implemented if it benefits safety based on mix and volume of air traffic.
- not always, but sometimes
-FSS, RCO, CARS, UNICOM
145
What is required to operate in an MF area for VFR and IFR?
What is the responsibility of the PIC?
-Functioning two way radio.
-maintain a listening watch on the MF frequency
146
what is the normal MF area dimensions?
What class airspace?
-5 nm and 3,000 ft AAE
- usually class e, or at C or D control zones when tower is NOT in operation
147
What letter on the VNC or VTA is used for an MF area?
M
148
Can nordo aircraft operate in an mf area?
Only if they have prior permission
149
How do you address the ground in an MF area?
-Radio for FSS or RAAS
-location name if uncontrolled
150
MF area departure procedure?
-before entering runway, announce intentions
-before takeoff, ensure radio and visual that there is no collision possibility
-after takeoff, report departure of circuit and maintain listening watch of mf freq into clear of area
-fly runway heading until circuit altitude then you are free to intercept en route leg.
151
Mf area arrival procedure?
-observe traffic and conform to circuit by other traffic. If no traffic present, you may choose which runway suits you best
- report AT LEAST 5 mins prior to entering MF area, with position, altitude, eta and intentions. If there is a ground station they will provide known traffic and the numbers
-when joining circuit, give position in circuit
-when on downwind, final, and clear of active runway.
152
Flying through an MF area procedures?
- advise 5 mins prior to entry of area, giving position, altitude and intentions
- notify when clear of area
153
NORDO operation procedure in MF area?
-ground station must be in operation
-prior notice has been given
-when taking off, visually ensure no traffic
-when approaching circuit, must enter from a position that will complete two sides of rectangular circuit before final approach path.
154
What is an ATF?
What is the circuit required to fly?
-at aerodromes where MF is not established, or the ground station is closed.
- standard circuit
155
ATF operations - dimensions?
Height of crossover?
Descent into circuit and joining circuit?
Left or right turns?
NORDO ops permitted?
-5 nm, 3,000 ft AGL
-500 feet above circuit height
-upwind side to cross field at circuit height or join straight in downwind at circuit height
-left turns unless otherwise stated in CFS
-yes, but must use standard circuit procedures and complete two full legs and maintain constant lookout
156
Frequency of uncontrolled aerodromes with no MF or ATF?
123.2 MhZ
157
112.1R frequency, what does the R mean?
Receive only frequency for flight service briefers. Set VOR to listen to this frequency. Use mf or atf freq to transmit.
158
Who to direct ground calls in an MF area?
- if ground station is in operation, example “Brandon radio”
- if not in operation, example “traffic advisory/traffic in the Brandon area“
159
What does VFR mean?
How should you operate?
-visual flight rules, operated with reference to the ground at all times.
160
VFR minima in controlled airspace for helicopters?
-1 mile horizontally from cloud
-3 miles visibility day or night
-500 feet vertical from clouds above or below
-500 feet AGL in a control zone ONLY
161
Requirements for SVFR?
Day operations?
Night operations?
Weather minima?
Obstacle clearance built up area and non built up area?
-If weather falls below VFR, you must request SVFR, it will never be offered.
-can only be requested in a control zone, which touches the surface.
- during day, can be conducted for takeoffs and landings
- during night, other than helicopters, landing only
- 1/2 SM visibility, clear of cloud
- 1,000 feet above highest obstacle within 500 feet horizontal.
- 500 feet from any person, vehicle in non built up area.
162
Uncontrolled airspace weather minima at and above 1,000ft AGL?
-2,000 ft horizontal from clouds
-500 ft vertical from cloud above or below.
-1 SM visibility day
-3 SM visibility night
163
Uncontrolled airspace below 1,000 ft AGL minima?
-clear of cloud
-1 SM visibility Day
-3 SM visibility night
164
VFR OTT requirements?
Forecast requirements?
Weather requirements must be occurring when in the TAF? GFA?
- must have VFR OTT rating, or IFR rating, or CPL-aeroplane
-must be operated 1,000 feet vertical from cloud
-day only during cruise portion of flight
-if operated between two cloud layers, must be 5,000 ft vertical distance between layers
-visibility at cruising altitude is minimum 5 sm
-forecast destination weather must be:
-sky condition of scattered, few or clear
-ground visibility 5 sm or more
-no precip, no fog, no thunderstorms or blowing snow
-TAF: 1 hour before until 2 hours after
-GFA: 1 hour before until 3 hours after
165
Communication failure - VFR: what should you check to fix?
-what to do if in uncontrolled airspace?
- controlled airspace?
- control zone?
-control zone with tower?
1.- check frequency, radio volume, headset volume, check plugs or try different headset, try a different radio, check audio settings, attempt relay through another aircraft, know where to find phone numbers in CFS for ATC
2. Avoid mf areas and divert to airport where clearance not needed. A cell phone may be used to receive clearance from ATC of FSS in class e. If low on fuel, enter controlled airspace if needed and follow comm failure procedures.
3. If B,C, or D airspace, leave airspace. If in control zone, land at airport of control zone, otherwise leave by shortest route possible. Set transponder to 7600, inform ATC asap of actions taken.
4. Control zone- squawk 7600
-land at aerodrome, maintain lookout
5. If towered, observe traffic pattern, enter pattern and lookout for steady green light to be authorized to land.
166
Light signals in the air:
Steady green?
Flashing green?
Steady red?
Flashing red?
Red pyro? (Military only)
How can you acknowledge signals from air?
Green - Clear to land
Flash green - Return for landing
Red - Give way and continue circling
Flash red - Airport unsafe, do not land
Red pyro- do not land for time being.
Rock wings or flash landing lights
167
Light signals on the ground:
Steady green?
Flashing green?
Steady red?
Flashing red?
White?
Blinking runway lights?
Green - cleared to takeoff
Flash green - clear to taxi
Red - stop
Flash red - taxi clear of landing area in use
White - return to starting point
Blinking runway lights - vacate runway immediately
168
When can you abbreviate registration numbers?
If first initiated by ATC
169
What is the emergency frequency?
121.5
170
Who can you receive interception signals from?
Peace officer, police authority officer, Canadian forces or anyone authorized by the minister
171
What should you do if you’re intercepted?
What frequency should you use to communicate?
Maintain steady course, if they rock their wings or flare you must follow them and indicate so by rocking wings and flashing nav lights at irregular intervals.
They are listening on 121.5
172
What is an ADIZ?
Entry procedures?
Operating in ADIZ procedures?
Flying through an ADIZ?
-flight plan is mandatory before entering or prior to taking off in an ADIZ. You can file with ATC, FSS, or CARS
- must indicate entry time, and asap after takeoff must report position, location, altitude, aerodrome of departure and entry time and entry point of ADIZ
-you shall revise eta and point of entry time if you will not make it within: plus or minus 5 minutes of eta at reporting point, ADIZ entry point, or destination within ADIZ. or 20 nm from centreline of route as indicated on flight plan, or from the estimated ADIZ point of entry.
If VFR taking off from ADIZ, must report location, altitude and aerodrome of departure via radio asap after takeoff.
173
What is an ESCAT?
What do you do during a test?
What do you do in a real ESCAT?
- Emergency security control of air traffic plan
-during a test, acknowledge and continue flying
- during a real event, you MUST in uncontrolled airspace report every 30 mins and comply with ATC instructions
-must land at nearest aerodrome
-before takeoff ATC must give approval
174
What is a recurring defect?
What is the procedure?
One that occurs 3 times in 15 flight segments
Aircraft is removed from service for investigation, and will remain off line until maintenance manager is satisfied problem is resolved.
175
Can you take off in an aircraft that has removed or unserviceable equipment?
Not if safety is affected. It is up to PIC if aircraft is safe for flight.
176
What do you do if defect happens during flight? Where do you record it?
Journey log book as soon as practical but before the next flight
177
Who is responsible for investigating all aviation related accidents and occurrences?
What is the purpose of investigating?
Where can you find contact info?
-TSB
-To prevent recurrence
- AIM, CFS, through local FSS
178
Reportable aviation accident criteria?
-person sustains serious injury or death occurs
-aircraft sustains substantial damage (that affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics)
-aircraft is missing or inaccessible
179
What is the purpose of ATC?
To prevent collisions and expedite traffic
180
What is an FIC?
What are the 4 regions?
What services do they provide?
What can you submit to an FIC?
What are the main frequencies?
- flight information centre
- Quebec, London, Edmonton, Kamloops
- flight information services en route: upon request, all meteorological info, METAR, TAF etc.
-aeronautical info ie. notam, rsc, crfi etc
-relay of comms with ATC, IFR clearance and SVFR authorization
You can submit pireps, urgent pireps, IFR and VFR reports,
-broadcast sigmet, PIREP etc
-123.275
-123.375
-123.475
-123.55
181
What is an FSS?
What class airspace is it located within?
What do they provide?
-flight service station
-class e control zones
-aerodrome advisory service, info pertinent to arrival and departure phases of flight and for transit through MF area.
- upon INITIAL communications, they provide:
I. runway;
ii. wind direction and speed;
ili. air traffic that warrants attention; iv. vehicle traffic;
v. wake turbulence cautionary;
vi. aerodrome conditions;
vii. weather conditions;
viii. additional information of interest for the safety of flight.
182
Who operates lighting at an aerodrome?
FSS, unless otherwise indicated in CFS
183
What is a DRCO?
How do you activate it?
Where can you find the frequency?
-Dial-up radio comms outlet
-key mic 4 times on DRCO comm frequency. You can find it in the CFS
184
What does an airport radio/cars provide for services?
-emergency service, communication service. Weather observation
-flight planning/flight info service
-monitor equipment / navaid
-malfunctions will be reported to nav Canada and notam will be issued
185
What is a Unicom?
Is the information received mandatory to follow?
Where is it typically is
Implemented?
Can you make a call to announce your intentions and position?
air-to-ground communications facility operated by a private agency that provides private advisory station service to aircraft at uncontrolled aerodromes.
No, the info is to be used entirely at the pilots discretion.
airports with low traffic volume and where, typically, no control tower is in operation.
Yes but if it isn’t staffed no acknowledgement may follow the call
186
The clock position given by ATC sky about other traffic is relative to the aircraft's _______ - not _______.
If no altitude is given it is _______.
Track, Heading, unknown
187
• ATC will apply a ______ minute separation interval to any aircraft that takes off into the wake of a known _____ aircraft.
• ATC will issue wake turbulence advisories to _____ aircraft that are taking off behind a ______ aircraft.
• If the pilot is not comfortable with the wake turbulence situation, they may ______ ______ ______.
Two minute, heavy
Light, medium
Request more time
188
Controllers generally apply the following radar separation minima between a preceding IFR/VFR aircraft and an aircraft vectored directly behind it and at less than 1 000 feet below
• Heavy behind a Heavy - __ miles
• Light behind a Heavy - __ miles
• Medium behind a Heavy - __ miles
• Light behind a Medium - __ miles
• Heavy behind a Heavy - 4 miles
• Light behind a Heavy - 6 miles
• Medium behind a Heavy - 5 miles
• Light behind a Medium - 4 miles
189
VFR en route frequency is _____ MhZ
126.7
190
VFR position report format?
• Identification
• Position
• Time Over
• Altitude
• VFR
• Destination
191
in many locations 126.7 MHz is being used for broadcast information only, such as ___ and ___ from the nearest FIC.
SIGMETS, AIRMETS
192
When orbiting, Aircraft should remain within ____ of the assigned VFR Call-up/Checkpoint.
2 NM
193
What is SIRO?
Simultaneous intersecting runways operations
194
What is LAHSO?
What is LDA?
Weather minima?
-Land and hold short operations
-landing distance available
-1,000 ft ceilings and 3sm visibility
- runway must be bare except winter where it can be 100 feet from centreline
-tailwind of less than 5 kts is acceptable
-The maximum allowable crosswind component for dry runways is 25 KT and 15 KT for LAHSO;
195
• Having accepted the hold-short clearance, pilots are obligated to remain ____ feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected.
• If, for any reason, a pilot is unsure of being able to comply with a hold-short clearance, the pilot must advise ATC ______ of non-acceptance of the clearance,
-200
-immediately
196
For simultaneous operations involving helicopters, if the arriving helicopter has a hold-short clearance its point of landing is at least ____ feet from the centreline of the other runway.
700
197
• Whenever a pilot is given "_____ _____" on a taxi or landing clearance, the VFR pilot must _____ _____ the clearance and/or repeating the hold point.
• For all other clearances and instruction the pilot can just use the aircraft's ____ _____
Hold Short, read back
Call sign
198
An aircraft is "CLEARED TO THE CIRCUIT" where a left-hand circuit is in effect,
• without further approval from ATC a ____ turn may be made to join crosswind or a partial _____ turn to join ____-hand circuit provided the turn can be done safely.
Right, right, left
199
When the reported ceiling is 1 000 feet overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR an aircraft cleared to the circuit must?
• Remain VFR and join the circuit at 500 feet below cloud base.
200
When instructed to continue an approach to a runway which is not clear of traffic or clear of traffic but no clearance to land?
The pilot should continue and request landing clearance, or go around if unable to get a clearance.
201
A pilot on final approach is requested by ATC to reduce airspeed?
The pilot should comply, except if the safe maneuvering speed of the aircraft is less than assigned, notify ATC.
202
A pilot is cleared to land but is concerned about the high cross-wind component?
• If it appears the crosswind is too strong the pilot may overshoot and request an alternate runway or destination airport.
• If no alternates are available the pilot may reattempt the landing after a period of time when the winds have become less.
203
A pilot on a VFR flight is being vectored by ATC towards an extensive unbroken layer of cloud?
Pilots responsibility to remain VFR, shall notify ATC that a deviation will be necessary.
204
An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for a STRAIGHT IN approach. Because of low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity. Whose responsibility is it to avoid tower?
Pilots responsibility
205
A pilot on a VFR flight in Class C airspace is advised by ATC to maintain a specific heading.
• In the pilot's opinion this heading will cause a conflict with another aircraft. The pilot should?
Alter heading to avoid other aircraft and advise ATC.
206
What aircraft require a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
Aircraft over 12 500 lb and turbine powered.
207
Which airborne incident would require that the nearest TSB field office immediately be notified?
A.Aircraft experiences a loss of separation.
B.Cabin door opened in-flight.
C.A person is killed by operation of the aircraft.
D.Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.
A
208
An aircraft is required to enter a control towered airport's traffic pattern at the altitude
A.of 1 500 feet AAE.
B.as directed by the tower.
C.appropriate to the aerodrome circuit height as indicated in the CFS.
D.of 2 000 feet AAE.
B
209
You are planning a departure in a helicopter from a controlled airport at night where the ATIS states clouds are 900 feet broken and visibility 4 miles. As the PIC you would:
a.wait for weather to improve in order to be able to depart.
b.request SVFR for departure.
c.request a regular departure since all minimums are met.
d.contact the company office and request for special authorization to depart.
B.
Only helis can request svfr to depart at night
210
A heliport FATO (final approach and take-off area) is
a.sized at 1.2 times the longest helicopter certified for.
b.sized at 1.5 times the longest helicopter certified for.
c.sized at one-third times the longest helicopter certified for.
d.sized at 1.3 times the longest helicopter certified for.
B
211
Helicopter parking position marking uses
Select one:
a.Two concentric yellow circles, the outer 1.5 times the longest helicopter, inner circle one-third the size the outer.
b.Two concentric white circles, the outer 1.2 times the longest helicopter, inner circle one-third the size the outer.
c.Two concentric white circles, the outer 1.5 times the longest helicopter, inner circle one-third the size the outer.
d.Two concentric yellow circles, the outer 1.2 times the longest helicopter, inner circle one-third the size the outer.
D
212
The TLOF (touchdown and lift-off area) is
a.Always outlined with a solid white line.
b.Outlined when not obvious by a solid white line.
c.Always outlined with a solid yellow line.
d.Outlined when not obvious by a solid yellow line.
B
213
Which is true regarding the letter H used at heliports?
a.Centered within the TLOF, white in colour unless at a hospital which is red on a white cross, outlined with a dashed triangle to enhance visibility.
b.Centered within the FATO, white in colour unless at a hospital which is red on a white cross, outlined with a dashed triangle to enhance visibility.
c.Centered within the TLOF, always aligned with magnetic north, outlined with a dashed triangle to enhance visibility.
d.Centered within the FATO, always aligned with magnetic north, outlined with a dashed triangle to enhance visibility.
A
214
Describe H1 heliport?
H2
H3
(Single/multi)
H1 - no emergency landing areas within 625 m of FATO area. Multi engine only that are capable of maintaining at least 4.5 m above all obstacles with one engine inoperative.
H2 - available emergency landing areas, due to high approach angles, multi engine only.
H3 - available emergency landing areas within 625 and no obstructions, may be used by single/multi engine helis
215
What is an SFOC?
When do you need one?
-Special flight operations certificate
- parachute descents into open air assembly of persons, controlled airspace or air route
-operation other than a balloon to take off or land in a built up area other than airport/heliport
-aerial application, photography etc at distances lower than normal altitude
-heli ops with class b,c,d external load over built up area
- operation of uav
-aerobatics in controlled airspace, air route or below 2,000 ft agl
216
What aircraft and personal documents must you have to fly?
AROWJIL:
-c of a
-c of r
-pilot operator flight manual
-weight and balance report
-journey log book
- insurance
-licenses: medical, radio, pilot license
217
What are the conditions of c of a validity?
-aircraft must remain in airworthy state, all equipment serviceable and functioning, inspections carried out and entered in journey logbook
-AD’s completed and up to date
-aircraft must be operated in accordance with flight manual and within weight and balance requirements
-if any conditions are not met the c of a will expire.
218
How long is the c of r valid for?
What are the conditions?
How long to get new c of r?
What is the only proof of ownership?
-As long as there is no change of owner, address, or purpose.
-If the airplane is leased, the lessee or operator of the aircraft is on the c of r
- expires if any changes to the above are made.
-transport Canada must be notified within 7 days
-new c of r sent in 90 days
-only proof of ownership is bill of sale
219
When would the weight and balance report expire?
If a moderate or major repair changes c of g
220
What types of insurance must be carried on board?
-Liability/third party liability - damage done by exterior of aircraft - must carry
-passenger liability - injuries to passengers on board - optional private mandatory commercial
-hull insurance - damage to aircraft itself - optional
221
What is a journey logbook?
When is it to be carried on board?
What are the exceptions?
What do you need to do if starting a new logbook?
When do you make entries?
What do you do if a mistake is made?
-logs all flight information
-carried at all times on board
-exception is if the aircraft is not travelling anywhere other than point of departure
- or if in a balloon
-you must input enough entries as to maintain an unbroken chronological record
- entries must be made after every flight by competent person, in ink.
-if a mistake is made, cross out with single line so it is still legible.
222
When do you need to carry your pilot license?
Anytime you act as a flight crew member
223
What are the equipment requirements for a power-driven day VFR flight?
• Magnetic compass;
• Airspeed indicator;
• Sensitive altimeter (two needles);
• Timepiece;
> Engine Instruments
• Tachometer;
• Oil Pressure;
• Oil Temp;
• Fuel Gauges for each main tank;
• MP Gauge (for aircraft with variable-pitch propellers, supercharged or turbocharged engines, or helicopters).
• Radio if operating in a MF or Class B, C, or D airspace;
224
In addition to required day VFR equip, what do you need for VFR OTT?
• a means of preventing malfunction caused by icing for each airspeed indicating system;
• gyroscopic direction indicator or a stabilized magnetic direction indicator;
• an attitude indicator;
• a turn and slip indicator--or a turn coordinator;
• radio communication equipment adequate to permit two-way communication on the appropriate frequency; and
• radio navigation equipment adequate to permit the aircraft to be navigated safely - when in the Northern Domestic Airspace, we must have a means of establishing direction that is not dependent on a magnetic source.
225
In addition to required VFR day flight, what Additional equipment do you need for NIGHT VFR?
• a turn and bank indicator or turn coordinator;
• gyroscopic direction indicator or stabilized magnetic direction indicator (when the aerodrome is not visible from the aircraft);
• means of illuminating the instruments; adequate source of electrical energy;
>
spare fuses (50% of total) unless breakers are used instead; position and anti-collision lights; and
• when carrying passengers, a landing light.
• If this is for Private, 702, 703, 704 and 705 operators, also require:
• an attitude indicator;
Vertical Speed Indicator VSI;
• Outside Air Temperature gauge; and
• pitot heat.
226
Flying at night with passengers also requires a ______
Functioning landing light
227
Aircraft high intensity ____ ____ should not be used on taxiways as they adversely affect ground personnel or other pilots.
• Also strobes should not be used in flight when there are adverse reflection from ____.
Strobe lights
Clouds
228
When can you use a restraining system instead of seat belts?
For the purpose of parachuting from the aircraft
229
When do you need oxygen?
10,000-13,000 asl for 30 minutes or more
13,000 and above all the time
230
When can you test an ELT?
First 5 minutes of any hour UTC for not more than 5 seconds
231
When do you NOT require an ELT?
Flights less than 25 nm from home base, balloons, gliders, ultra lights, large commercial jets over Canada
232
What to do if ELT becomes unserviceable?
-can operate up to 30 days if it is removed at first aerodrome where repairs can be completed, it is promptly sent to maintenance facility, and that a placard is displayed with date of removal.
233
No person shall conduct a takeoff in an aircraft that has undergone maintenance unless a
a.maintenance release has been signed by an AME.
b.pilot determines that the maintenance has been completed.
c.mechanic says the job has been finished.
d.pilot feels it is safe to fly the aircraft.
A
234
No person shall conduct a takeoff in any aircraft when equipment has been removed if the:
a.equipment is on the MEL.
b.PIC feels that aviation safety is affected.
c.equipment has not been removed by an AME.
d.chief pilot authorizes it.
B
235
When a test flight is required after maintenance
a.only the flight crew may be carried on board.
b.persons required for observation may be carried on board.
c.the chief pilot must conduct the flight.
d.only the director of maintenance may be on board with the pilot(s).
B
236
Who may conduct elementary maintenance on a Flight Training Unit's aircraft?
a. A person who has received training from a qualified AME.
b.Any person who has legal custody and control of the aircraft.
c.The chief pilot and operations manager.
d.Only the pilot-in-command.
A
237
What are the required technical records for an aircraft?
Journey logbook
Separate tech record for
-airframe
-each engine installed
-each variable pitch propeller installed
238
Is it permitted for an aircraft owner to keep their technical records in a single logbook?
No, separate tech logs must be kept
239
Is it permitted to write in the technical records with pencil?
No, ink only
240
it is permitted to make a single entry for a series of flights in the journey log book when
all flights are completed by the same pilot or an approved daily flight sheet is used.
241
A deferred item should be recorded in the
Journey log and DML
242
If you wanted to find the inspection schedule for a particular out of phase maintenance item, you would look in the
Select one:
a.MSA form.
b.MPM.
c.DML.
d.Journey log.
A
243
The purpose of the Maintenance Policy Manual (MPM) is to explain
a.when maintenance should be done.
b.how maintenance should be done.
c.why maintenance should be done.
d.how to use the MEL.
B
244
Flight simulators and flight training devices must be certified annually by
Transport Canada
245
Which document is not required to be carried on board the aircraft during a commercial flight?
a.Certificate of Registration
b.Certificate of Airworthiness
c.Operations Manual
d.Maintenance Control Manual
D
246
The Certificate of Registration does not show the
a.purpose (private or commercial).
b.aircraft's serial number.
c.owner's telephone number.
d.aircraft's registration.
C
247
Which equipment is not required for a day VFR flight?
a.Oil pressure gauge
b.Time piece
c.Oil temperature gauge
d.Vertical speed indicator
D
248
For a commercial flight with passengers during night VFR. In addition to the day VFR minimum equipment, the aircraft would need to be equipped with
a.an OAT gauge.
b.a functioning landing light.
c.a vertical speed indicator.
d.all of the above.
D
249
Which is not required equipment for a power-driven aircraft during VFR OTT flights?
a.Mode C transponder.
b.VHF radio communications equipment.
c.Pitot heat.
d.Attitude indicator.
A
250
How often are emergency locator transmitters required to have an operational test done?
Every 12 months
251
The types of operations allowed for an air service are specified in the
Select one:
a.Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM).
b.Air Operator's Certificate (AOC).
c.Statement of Operations.
d.Company Operations Manual (COM).
B
252
You have a commercial pilot licence with a current medical and your friend offers to pay you to fly her to Thunder Bay. Is this legal?
a.No, because you require an Air Operator Certificate as this would be an air taxi service.
b.No, unless the aircraft is commercially registered.
c.Yes, because the commercial pilot licence allows you to fly for hire or reward.
d.Yes, as long as you own the aircraft.
A
253
Helicopters used in a commuter air service are limited to:
a.multi-engined types.
b.multi-engined types with 10 to 19 passengers.
c.10 to 19 passengers.
d.Single pilot, multi-engined types, with 10 to 19 passengers.
B
254
The _____ Will include instructions and information necessary to enable all personnel to pertorm their duties sately and dispatch flights.
COM
255
A private operator wishes to add 4 hours to their employees duty day above and beyond the regular maximum duty time for their shift. Can this be accomplished?
a.
Yes, if the employees are given advanced notice and an 8-hour rest period to the minimum rest period in suitable accommodations and an extension of 4 hours to their next minimum rest period.
b.Yes, if the employees are given advanced notice and are given a 4-hour rest period in suitable accommodations as well as an extension of 4 hours to their next minimum rest period.
c.Yes, if the employees are provided with uninterrupted rest in the staff lounge for at least 8 hours and a 4-hour extension to their next minimum rest period.
d.None of the above.
A
256
A private operator wishes to extend the duty day for their employees by 3 hours due to weather at the destination which required them to do a missed approach. The destination weather was forecast to meet landing requirements prior to the start of the shift. Is this allowable?
a.Yes if the PIC considers it safe to do so.
b.Yes if the next minimum rest period is also extended by 3 hours.
c.No this should not be allowed.
d.Both A and B
D
257
An air operator shall provide a flight crew member with time to eat and to drink for at least ____ minutes every ____ hours within a flight duty period.
a.15; 6
b.45; 8
c.30; 4
d.30; 6
A
258
Flight crew in an air taxi operation may fly up to
a.120 hours in 30 consecutive days.
b.300 hours in 90 consecutive days.
c.8 hours in 24 consecutive hours.
d.1200 hours in 365 consecutive days.
B
259
No private operator shall assign a flight duty period to a flight crew member that would exceed a flight duty period of _______ hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours, or _______ consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours provided the crew member's total flight duty period in the previous 30 consecutive days does not exceed 70 hours, or the rest period before the flight is at least 24 hours.
a.14; 15
b.12; 14
c.13; 14
d.14; 17
A
260
Regarding the flight crew of a private operator, which of the following is correct?
a.Flight duty time shall not exceed 14 consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours.
b.Flight duty time can be up to 15 consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours when a minimum rest of 24 hours is provided before the flight.
c.Flight duty time can be up to 15 consecutive hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours provided the total duty does not exceed 70 hours during the previous 30 days.
d.all of the above are correct.
D
261
The maximum flight time allowed in a 30 day period for a private operator is
a.100 hours.
b.110 hours.
c.120 hours.
d.300 hours.
C
262
The new regulations state that a commercial air operator shall not assign a flight duty period to a flight crew member that exceeds ________ hours of duty depending on start period (and excluding exceptions for extension).
a.8 to 12
b.8 to 14
c.9 to 15
d.9 to 13
D
263
What should be the minimum rest period provided by an air operator to the flight crew at their home base?
a.12 hours
b.11 hours plus travel time to and from the accommodation.
c.10 hours in suitable accommodation provided by the air operator.
d.All of the above are correct.
D
264
When does flight duty time begin?
When crew member reports for a flight
265
What does a helicopter pilot need to fly a new type of helicopter?
A type rating in the new type
266
To fly in a two crew type helicopter a pilot must have?
a.An ATPL helicopter.
b.Has scored at least 70 % on (HATRA) type rating helicopters exam with 166 hours helicopter flight experience.
c.Has scored at least 70 % on HAMRA and HARON ATPL helicopter exams with 166 hours helicopter flight experience.
d.Any one of the above.
D
267
A training program for aerial work must include
Company indoctrination training
268
Aerial work means:
a commercial air service other than air transport or flight training.
269
Aircraft used in aerial work must have
a.dual landing lights.
b.a safety belt and shoulder harness for the front seats.
c.two crew members.
d.a designated second-in-command.
B
270
Instructions on the performance of personnel duties are found in the
Company ops manual - COM
271
A PPC in an Aerial Work operation is required every
24 months
272
In order to be used in an air taxi service a single-engine aircraft shall
Be authorized In the AOC
273
In order to qualify as a flight crew member for an air taxi service
a.the pilot(s) must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings in the previous 90 days.
b.the crew member(s) must have a Pilot Proficiency Check.
c.at least a category 3 medical must be held.
d.an instrument rating is required.
A
274
To fly single-pilot IFR for an air taxi service the
a.pilot requires a PPC and at least 1 000 hours total time.
b.pilot must have 100 hours total time.
c.aircraft must have a functioning landing light.
d.pilot requires 1 000 hours on type.
A
275
What is the goal of a Safety Management System (SMS) program?
a.To create a paper trail so as to alleviate liability in the event of an accident.
b.To identify safety hazards so accidents can be prevented.
c.To analyze accidents for safety hazards that can be eliminated.
d.To create a positive corporate culture in which safety is a key goal.
B
276
The acronym CADORS stands for:
Civil Aviation Daily Occurrence Reporting System.
277
Which scenario would most likely result in the issuance of a CADORS?
a.Flight into a controlled airport's control zone without radio communication.
b.A sick passenger requires a flight to divert and land at a nearby airport.
c.The main wheel on a Cessna 172 blows out on landing. There are no significant injuries and only minor damage to the aircraft occurs.
d.A pilot notices a major nick in the propeller during a pre-flight inspection.
A
278
Which case would not involve the issuance of a CADOR?
a.A Canadian aircraft runs out of fuel and makes a forced landing two miles short of the runway at Calgary's International Airport.
b.A Canadian aircraft flies through a flock of birds while attempting to takeoff from Portugal causing the aircraft engine to shutdown and forcing the aircraft to return to the airport.
c.A European registered airliner slides off the end of the runway in Winnipeg, Canada - no major injuries result.
d.A U.S. registered aircraft experiences a near miss with an ultralight while landing in Texas, U.S.
D
279
The maximum flight time a pilot is allowed to fly in one year with a commercial operator is
A.1 200 hours.
B.900 hours.
C.1 000 hours.
D.1 100 hours.
C
280
Flight duty time
A.begins at engine ON and ends at engine OFF.
B.is the period that starts when a flight crew member reports for a flight or reports as a flight crew member on standby, and finishes at engine(s) OFF or rotors stopped at the end of the final flight.
C.begins at engine ON and ends when all necessary duties have been completed.
D.begins with any preparation for flight and any flight duties, and ends when the engine(s) are shut down.
B
281
For a commercial pilot to carry passengers during commercial operations must complete
a.3 takeoffs transitioning to forward flight and 3 landings within the previous 90 days during the day or night.
b.5 takeoffs transitioning to forward flight and 5 landings within the previous 6 months during the day or night.
c.5 takeoffs and 5 landings within the previous 6 months during the day or night.
d.3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the previous 90 days during the day or night.
A
