Air Law And Procedures Flashcards
Canadian Air Regulations (CARs) are made under the authority of
a.the provincial government.
b.the federal government.
c. Transport Canada.
d. the Aeronautics Act.
D
Which authorities can request aircraft documentation?
Select one:
a.
A peace officer, an immigration officer, or a member of the armed forces.
b.
A peace officer, The Minister, or an immigration officer.
c.
The Minister, an immigration officer, or Nav Canada.
d.
An immigration officer or a peace officer.
B
If a Canadian Aviation Document has been suspended or canceled, the person to whom it was issued shall
return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation.
No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada unless its marks are
Visible and are displayed
In the case of an aircraft registered in a foreign state the aircraft marks have to be displayed in accordance with
the laws of that foreign state
Is there an exception to an aircraft not displaying its marks in Canada?
Yes, if it is submitted in writing and the minister gives written approval for the purpose of exhibition, air shows, tv shows or motion picture productions
No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada other than a foreign registered aircraft unless..
the certificate of registration is issued and carried on board the aircraft.
CAR 202.26
What happens when the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft transfers the legal custody and control of the aircraft?
the certificate of registration of the aircraft is cancelled.
Where the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft transfers the legal custody and control of the aircraft, how long do you have to notify the minister of such transfer?
No later than 7 days
Who has legal custody and control of a Canadian aircraft when the owner has complete responsibility for the operation and maintenance of the aircraft?
The owner
No person who is not the registered owner of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft as part of a leasing operation without an authorization unless..
-The authorization is carried on board.
-The lessor and the lessee each hold a Canadian operator certificate issued in respect of the aircraft type to be operated.
-The lessee is qualified to be the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft.
-The maintenance control system and the maintenance schedule approved by the Minister.
-The crew members of the aircraft are employed by the lessee.
-The registered owner informs the Minister in writing no later than seven days after the term of the lease commences.
What is an airport?
A certified aerodrome
Define aerodrome
-Any area of land or water that is designed for the arrival, departure, movement, and servicing of aircraft.
-Known as a registered aerodrome in the CFS.
What are the requirements to maintain airport status?
-It is Inspected and maintained to TC requirements.
-The current status is to be advertised to all interested aircraft operators through the CFS (Canada Flight Supplement), Canada Air Pilot (CAP), NOTAM, and voice advisory as applicable.
What is the manoeuvring area of an airport?
parts of the aerodrome intended for taxiing, taking off and landing of aircraft
(Taxiways and Runways)
Define apron
The area intended for the loading of cargo, passengers, refueling, parking, etc.
What is the movement area of an airport?
Those parts of an aerodrome used for the surface movement of aircraft, including the manoeuvring areas and aprons.
No person shall walk, drive, or operate any vehicle on any part of an aerodrome or airport used for the movement of aircraft, except with permission from..
The operator, or where applicable the appropriate ATC or FSS
How are runways numbered?
Magnetic bearing rounded off to nearest 10 degrees. ( southern domestic airspace )
How are boundaries of unprepared runways marked?
- conical or gable-type markers (highway-type cone markers are acceptable) or by evergreen trees in winter.
• Not more than 90 m (300 ft) apart along each side of the runway.
• No boundary markers are required if the entire movement area is clearly delineated from that of the surrounding ground.
• The markers are typically coloured international orange and white or solid international orange.
• Airports use international orange and white.
How is a displaced threshold marked?
Line across runway with arrow heads pointing to it
Can be used for taxiing and the takeoff
roll or landing rollout from the opposite direction. IFR MUST KNOW
• Has not met the standard obstacle
clearance requirements for landing according to instrument procedures
• Landing before this mark is at pilot’s discretion, VFR can use.
• NOTE: When the threshold must be displaced for a relatively short period of time, painting a temporary threshold bar is impractical. Instead, flags, cones, or wing bar lights are installed to indicate the position of the displaced threshold.
-A NOTAM or voice advisory warning of the temporary displacement will contain a description of the markers and the expected duration of the displacement in addition to the length of the closed portion and the remaining usable runway.
How is a stopway marked?
marked with yellow chevrons when its length exceeds 60 m.
• This area is not available for taxiing, the initial take-off roll, or the landing rollout.
MUST KNOW
• Pre-Threshold areas and Stopways are paved but non-load bearing.
• These are designed to stop an aircraft from overrunning the runway.
• Provides room to stop if an aircraft abandons takeoff
• The chevron markings may also be used on blast pads.
How is a taxiway marked?
Yellow line down the centre.
If there is no hold short line, how far back from the edge of the runway should you hold?
200ft, helicopters should hold 700 ft from operations.
Can you cross a runway without a clearance?
No
What side of a hold short line should you hold before entering runway?
Solid line side
After landing you may cross the line and hold on taxiway side until further instruction has been given.
What can you ask ATC for if you’re unfamiliar with the taxiways at an airport?
A progressive taxi
How are closed taxiway and runway markings identified?
Large white crosses (X) on the runway and yellow crosses (X) at each end of the taxiway
A horizontal windsock will indicate what wind speed?
At least 15 KT
Runways greater than …… require a windsock at each end.
1200 m or 4000 ft
How are night operation runways lighted?
two parallel rows of white lights or retro-reflective markers visible at least 2 miles in all directions. MUST KNOW
• Each line of lights or markers is not less than 420 m (1 377 ft) in length and contains no fewer than eight lights or markers.
• The lights mentioned above must be spaced at the same distance and not more than 60 m (200 ft) apart. CAR 301.07
What colours are night operation airport lights? (Runways, taxiway, and threshold light colours)
Runways - white
Taxiways - blue
Threshold - green or red when viewed from back.
How do you use an ARCAL System?
Key mic ( J ) 5 times
( K ) 7 times for max intensity, may also key 3 or 5 times on type k for low and medium intensity
It is advised that pilots re-key lights before approach to ensure reset of full 15 minute lighting period
What is a standard circuit?
1000 ft AGL left hand turns, UNLESS specified in CFS then use that.
Unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate air traffic control
(ATC) unit or except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at…
Less than 2000 ft AGL
• If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the aerodrome before joining the circuit to check the winds and traffic, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least 500 feet above the circuit altitude.
How often is the CFS updated?
Every 56 days
RSC (Runway surface condition) report must be provided when:
•There is frost, snow, slush, or ice on a runway.
• There are snow banks, drifts, or windrows on or adjacent to a runway.
• Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to a runway.
• The cleared runway width falls below the published width.
• The runway lights are obscured or partially obscured by contaminants.
• There is a significant change in runway surface conditions including a return to bare and dry conditions.
• As per the required minimum inspection frequency.
CRFI (Canadian runway friction index) is reported when:
• There is ice or frost on the runway.
• There is wet ice on the runway.
• There is slush over the ice on the runway.
• Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to the runway.
• There is a chemical solution on the ice on the runway.
• There is compacted snow on the runway.
• There is dry snow not exceeding a depth of 2.5 cm (1 in.) on the runway.
no person shall act as a flight crew member or exercise the privileges of a flight crew permit, license, or rating unless..
• the person holds the appropriate permit, license, or rating;
• the permit, license or rating is valid;
• the person holds the appropriate medical certificate; and
• the person can produce the permit, license or rating, and the certificate when exercising those privileges.
No person should act as a flight crew member of a foreign registered aircraft unless they hold and can produce while exercising such privilege:
• A Canadian license or permit, or
• A flight crew license or a document equivalent to a foreign license validation certificate, that is issued under the laws of the contracting state.
CPL-H privileges:
By day or night,
• (a) exercise the privileges of a ppl - helicopter
• (b) while engaged in providing a commercial air service by means of a helicopter of a type in respect of which the licence is endorsed with ratings, act as pilot-in-command of the helicopter, if the minimum flight crew document for the helicopter specifies a minimum flight crew of one pilot, or
• ii) co-pilot of the helicopter;
• (c) if qualified as a flight instructor in accordance with section 425.21 of Standard 425 - Flight Training, conduct flight instruction; and
• (d) exercise private pilot licence — helicopter privileges until the end of the medical validity period specified for the private pilot licence.
• Section (2), (3), and (4) address the possibility of a daylight-only restriction.
The holder of a CPL Helicopter may exercise the privileges of
• PIC of a helicopter with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, or
SIC of a helicopter requiring a minimum flight crew of two pilots
• Night rating
• PPL and fly at night.
• The holder of a Restricted CPL Helicopter can only fly during daylight hours and may also exercise the privileges of a PPL during daylight.
CPL-H requirements: age, medical fitness, knowledge, experience
-18 years
-cat 1 medical
-40 hrs CPL-H ground school
-60% on CPHEL Exam
-additional 40 hrs groschool no ppl-h
-100 hours flight time in helicopters
• 35 hours PIC
• 10 hours X/C
• (b) hold a PPL-H?
• 37 hours dual including:
• 15 hours adv. dual, incl. 5 hours X/C
• 5 hours night, incl 2 hours X/C
• 10 hours instrument
• 23 hours solo including:
• 2 hours X/C (dist: 45 min flight time) with 3 landings at other than departure
• 5 hours at night, incl. 10 takeoffs, ccts, and landings
• flight test Within 12 months of application
No person shall exercise the privileges of a license, permit, or rating unless they have acted as PIC or Co-pilot of an aircraft in the previous
5 years
Within ____ months preceding the flight you must complete a recurrent training program. What are your options?
24
• A flight review with an instructor.
• Attend a safety seminar conducted by TC.
• Participate in an TC approved recurrent training program.
• Complete the self-paced study program.
• Complete a training program or PPC.
• Complete the requirements for the issuance or renewal of a license permit or rating.
• Complete the written exam for a license, permit or rating..
How many takeoffs/landings must you complete in order to carry passengers?
5 takeoffs or landings within the last 6 months in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
• during the day or at night, if the flight is conducted by day;
• at night, if the flight is conducted wholly or partly by night.
To act as a flight crew member in commercial operations complete
3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
• Helicopters have to transition to forward flight in order for one takeoff and landing to count.
What do you need in order to execute instrument privileges?
you must complete an instrument flight test in an aircraft or approved flight training device within the previous 24 months.
• After the first 12 months, the pilot must complete 6 hours of instrument time including 6 approaches to minimums in the past 6 months to be able to use the privilege of an instrument rating.
All applicants and holders of a permit, license, or rating must maintain a personal log which must include
• The date of flight.
• Aircraft type and registration.
• Flight crew position.
• Flight conditions (VFR, IFR, Day, Night).
• Point of departure and arrival.
• Flight time.
When do you need a hearing test for cat 1 medical?
At initial exam for cat 1 medical, and not again until first medical after age 55 unless done within preceding 60 months
When do you need an ECG for a cat 1 medical
For a Category 1 medical, an ECG is required
• at the initial exam when under 30;
• within 24 months preceding the exam age 30 to 40;
•within 12 months preceding the exam when over 40.
What day of the month does your medical expire?
The last day of the month of expiry on your medical
How long is cpl medical valid for?
Cpl - 12 months, reduced to 6 if you’re OVER 40 and engaged in passenger operations, as well as 6 months if you’re over 60
Pplh - 60 months under 40
24 months over 40
The holder of a CPL or ATPL may exercise the privileges of a PPL until the end of the validity period for PPL** exam question?
You may not exercise privileges if you are taking drugs, have received medical treatment, have entered the 30th week of pregnancy or prior to 6 weeks after giving birth unless
Authorized in writing by the minister
The class of airspace, the dimensions of this airspace, and the VHF frequencies for high density airports in Canada are given in what publications?
• The VFR Navigation Charts (VNC)
• The VFR Terminal Area Chart (VTA)
• The Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS).
Who has the responsibility to avoid other aircraft, maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, adhere to minimum altitudes over built-up areas and non-built-up areas, and to remain in VFR weather in all classes of airspace?
Pilot in Command
Define controlled airspace
airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided.
Define a control zone (CZ)
controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface up to and including 3 000 feet AAE (above aerodrome elevation) - unless otherwise specified.
Define transition area
airspace with defined dimensions
• Often used to get into or out of a Control Zone.
• Based at 700 feet AGL
unless otherwise specified
• Caution! Sometimes it can be described with an ASL floor.
• Normally it will be placed at a radius of 15 NM from the aerodrome coordinates.
What are dimensions of LLA? (Low Level Airspace)
Surface to below 18,000 feet ASL
What is a control area extension?
controlled airspace of defined dimensions within the low-level airspace extending upwards from 2 200 feet AGL - unless otherwise specified.
Where would you see a TCA (Terminal Control Area)?
high volume traffic airports to provide an IFR control service to arriving, departing and en route aircraft. Rules are established by the classification of the airspace within the TCA.
The Area Control Center ACC will control a TCA during periods when a TCU is not in operation;
The floor of a TCA shall not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
A TCA and the associated CZ could be classified as what airspace?
Class B, C, or D airspace.
• No Class B TCA is Canada at this time.
In what airspace is a transponder mandatory?
All Class A, B and C airspace require a
transponder and as specified in the
Designated Airspace
Handbook (DAH).
• Class D and E airspace MAY require a transponder
What do you do if a transponder with mode c fails?
Proceed to aerodrome of intended landing
Can you operate in transponder airspace without a mode c if ATC provides a service?
Yes, only if approval was requested in advance of entering the airspace and aviation safety is not likely to be affected.
• This approval may be given to allow an aircraft with transponder failure to proceed to a maintenance facility.
What airspace could a TCA be listed as?
• A Terminal Control Area could be listed as Class B, C, D, or E. remember it is based around bigger, busier airports in Canada
Define class G airspace
•Surface up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL
•It will be uncontrolled.
• In uncontrolled airspace, Air Traffic Control (ATC) has neither the authority nor the responsibility to exercise control over air traffic.
• No traffic separation - pilots must see and avoid using the right of way rules.
• Pilots broadcast en route on 126.7 MHz.
• Class G is 99% of Canadian Airspace.
Define class F airspace
Special use Advisory airspace - Although not specifically restricted from operating within, all aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless they are participating in the activity taking place. MUST KNOW
• If necessary, pilots of non-participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, extra vigilance is recommended.
• Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
• Advisory areas are numbered.
• Example: CYA 402(M).
• Unless otherwise specified, when in a Class F advisory uncontrolled airspace area, 126.7 MHz would be an appropriate frequency.
• Pilots should broadcast their intentions when entering and leaving the area, and communicate, as necessary, with other users to ensure flight safety in the airspace.
• NOTE: Military operations in Class F airspace may be UHF only.
• This means that you might not hear their broadcasts on a civilian (VHF) radio.
Define each of the class f symbols
(A)
(F)
(H)
(M)
(P)
(S)
(T)
Can you fly in a class f cyR restricted advisory airspace?
• No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace unless permission has been obtained from the user agency.
Way are two additional methods in which airspace can become restricted?
• For a forest fire.
• Any other means that the Minister deems worthy.
What happens when CAR 601.16 is invoked? Is it class f airspace?
No it is unclassified, it allows the minister to restrict flight around/over forest fire areas. It allows it to be invoked quickly via a NOTAM issued by TC
Section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act allows the Minister to restrict flight in any airspace, for any purpose, by NOTAM.
• This authority is delegated by the Minister to cover specific situations for a temporary period, such as wild fires, disaster areas, etc., for the purpose of ensuring safety of flight for air operations in support of the occurrence.
How far from a forest fire must you stay away at minimum?
5 nm and 3,000 ft AGL, unless otherwise stated by a NOTAM
Define class E airspace
• Airspace that is designated where an operational need exists for controlled airspace but does not meet the requirements for Class A, B, C, or D.
• VFR aircraft do not require permission to enter and are not required to establish communication with an ATS unit prior to entering.
• Except for mandatory frequency (MF) areas within a CZ.
• Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or control zones that are established without an operating control tower may be classified as Class E airspace.
• there are no special communication requirements for VFR in Class E controlled airspace.
• That said, VFR aircraft are required to meet the controlled airspace weather minimums.
What type of stations are commonly associated with class E control zones?
• FSS - flight service station
• RCO - remote communication outlet
• AAS - aerodrome advisory service
• RAAS - remote aerodrome advisory service
• CARS - community aerodrome radio station
• UNICOM - universal communication
Do VFR pilots need to meet control zone weather minimums in a class E control zone?
Yes
When a class E CZ ground station is in operation, what are the procedures? What if not in operation?
When a ground station is in operation, for example: a FSS, a RCO through which RAAS is provided, a CARS, or an Approach UNICOM, then the aircraft reports that are required for operating within, and prior to entering a MF area, shall be directed to the ground station.
• However, when the ground station is not in operation, then the aircraft reports that are required for operating within and prior to entering an MF area shall be broadcast!!
When ATC is not in operation in class c or d airspace, what class does it become? Is it still controlled? What about weather minima?
Class D or C airspace will change to class E airspace when the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation.
• yes it is still controlled airspace and you still need to maintain vfr weather minimums for a CZ
• Use ATF (aerodrome traffic frequency) or MF (mandatory frequency) procedures, as appropriate to the location.
What is traffic information? (Given by ATC)
advises pilots of known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to their aircraft’s position or intended route of flight warranting their attention.
What is conflict resolution? (Given by ATC)
resolution of potential conflicts between IFR and VFR aircraft and between VFR aircraft that are identified and in communication with ATC.
Define class D airspace
Controlled airspace within which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
• VFR flights must establish two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit prior to entering the airspace.
MUST KNOW
• Aircraft will be provided with traffic information.
• Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will be provided between VFR and IFR aircraft, and upon request between VFR aircraft.
MUST KNOW
• Runway separation is provided between all aircraft.
• A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class D airspace shall ensure that:
(a) the aircraft is equipped with:
radio communication equipment capable of two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and (ii) where the Class D airspace is specified as transponder airspace, a transponder and automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment; and
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
Can you fly NORDO in class D?
Yes, in daylight, in VMC if they have prior permission to enter from ATC unit
Best to call in advance as they may or may not approve your plan.
Define class C airspace
• Controlled airspace both IFR and VFR flights are permitted.
• VFR require a clearance from ATC to enter.
• Conflict resolution is provided, when necessary, to resolve possible conflicts between VFR and IFR aircraft.
• All aircraft will get traffic information.
• Conflict resolution between VFR aircraft provided upon request, after VFR aircraft are provided with traffic information.
• Runway separation is provided between all aircraft.
• aircraft in VFR flight in Class C airspace must have
• two-way communication with the appropriate ATC unit.
• transponder and automatic pressure-altitude (Mode C or Mode S) reporting equipment, and
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
Can you fly NORDO into class C airspace?
Yes, in daylight, in VMC, you may fly without radio or transponder but permission MUST BE OBTAINED PRIOR TO THE OPERATION BEING CONDUCTED.
Call before departure, with time of arrival. They may or may not approve your plan
Define Class B airspace
• Is designated where an operational need exists to provide Air Traffic Control (ATC) service to IFR and to Control VFR (CVFR) aircraft.
• This is all low level controlled airspace above 12 500 feet ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL.
MUST KNOW
• Control Zones and associated Terminal Control Areas may also be classified as Class B airspace (but there are none in Canada at this time).
• All aircraft are subject to ATC clearances and instructions.
• ATC separation is provided between all aircraft.
• Pilots intending to fly CVFR shall file a flight plan and obtain an
ATC clearance prior to entering Class B airspace.
• The ATC clearance will not normally be issued prior to takeoff unless the airspace is within a control zone that is Class B.
• The clearance will normally be issued upon receipt of a position report filed by the pilot upon reaching the last 1 000 feet altitude below the base of Class B or before entering it laterally.
• This procedure is intended to ensure that the radio equipment is operating and to remind the pilots that, while outside of Class B airspace, ATC separation is not provided and that they must maintain a vigilant watch for other traffic.
• The ATC clearance will contain the phrase “MAINTAIN VFR”.
What is a low level Airway?
• Controlled low-level airspace that extends upward from 2 200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18 000 feet ASL.
• Pilots operating VFR on an airway should continuously monitor 126.7 MHz when not communicating on a MF or ATF.
• VFR must maintain the controlled airspace weather minimums.
• 3 miles visibility day and night
• 1 mile horizontally from and 500 feet vertically above or below cloud (only FEW or SCT layers)
What are the 3 types of low level airways?
T-route
LF/MF
VHF/UHF
What are the dimensions of each of the 3 low level airways?
VHF/UHF ( VOR-VOR ) 4 nm each side of centre line (victor airway) black solid line centre lo chart,
solid line vnc
LF/MF (NDB-NDB, NDB-VOR) 4.34 nm each side of centre line (shaded green centre line lo chart)
see thru line, shaded borders at edge of airway vnc
T-Route 10 nm each side of centre line, line not shown on VNC BUT AIRWAY IS
•Dashed black line, starts with T lo chart
No centre VNC have to look for edges.
What do solid green, green/white hatched, white, and grey mean on a LO chart?
Solid green- uncontrolled airspace
Gr/wh hatch- class B above 12,500 ft ASL
White- controlled airspace
Grey- bodies of water
What is a low level air route?
• Extends upward from the surface of the earth, and for which ATC service is not provided, up to but not including 18 000 feet
ASL.
• Low-level air routes are contained within Class G airspace.
• They are basically the same as a low-level airway, except that they extend upwards from the surface of the earth and are not controlled, and ATC separation is not provided to VFR or IFR aircraft.
• The lateral dimensions are identical to those of a low-level airway.
Look like this below..
— • — • — • — • —
Who is exempt from entering a forest fire area?
Aircraft, operated by a Department of Transport personnel, involved with surveillance and enforcement of Aviation Legislation, are not prohibited from entering, with permission of the fire control authority.
No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless
• The pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft; or,
• Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving.
Can you refuel an aircraft while an engine of the aircraft is running and passengers are on board the aircraft or are embarking or disembarking?
Yes as long as proper cars are followed (703,704,705)
No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless..
• The pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft
• Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving.
No person shall leave an engine of an aircraft running unless..?
• A pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft;
• Where no persons are on board the aircraft precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving and the aircraft is not left unattended.
Can you take off if any critical surfaces have snow or frost on them?
No
What are some examples of critical surfaces?
• Wings
• Control surfaces
• Rotors
• Propellers
• Horizontal and vertical stabilizers
• Any other stabilizing surface(s)
• In an aircraft with a rear mounted jet engine - the upper area of the fuselage
No person shall over fly a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons unless
the aircraft is operated at an altitude from which in the event of an engine failure it would be possible to land the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.
It is a takeoff, landing, or approach
What is the built-up area minimum distance and altitudes for a helicopter?
What about non built up areas?
Height above national parks?
1,000 feet above highest obstacle and 500 feet horizontally (Airplanes are 1,000 vertical and 2,000 horizontal)
500ft from person, vessel, vehicle, structure
2,000 feet AGL
An aircraft may be permitted to fly below permissible low altitude if..?
• During a Police Operation
• To Save a Human Life
• Fire-fighting or Air Ambulance Operations
• For the purpose of Flight Inspection
• An Aerial Application
• Helicopters - external load operations
• Flight training conducted by or under the supervision of a qualified flight instructor.
When is it prohibited to perform a parachute descent? And when can an exception be made?
• Will drop into or operate in either controlled airspace or an air route.
• Over or into a built-up area.
• Over an open-air assembly of persons.
• An exception can be made for the above if the pilot applies for and receives a Special Flight Operating Certificate. (SFOC) MUST KNOW
No PIC of an aircraft shall permit a person to leave the aircraft during flight unless
• special permission for air shows;
• the person leaves for the purpose of making a parachute descent.
Where is it allowed to conduct aerobatic manoeuvres?
• Over a built-up area or open-air assembly of persons.
• In controlled airspace unless it is in accordance with a special flight operations certificate.
• When the visibility is greater than 3 miles.
• Below 2 000 feet AGL except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate.
Can you jettison fuel from an aircraft?
Only if
• It is necessary to do so in order to ensure aviation safety.
• All appropriate measures are taken to minimize danger to human life and damage to the environment, insofar as the circumstances permit.
What is an ATC clearance?
• An Air Traffic Control Clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed with a certain action.
• Example GGGP you are cleared to land runway 18.
• You must comply with all of the Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearances received and accepted by the PIC and in the case of a VFR flight, read back to the appropriate ATC unit the text of any ATC clearance received, when so requested by the ATC unit.
• Acknowledge that a clearance has been accepted by using the aircraft call sign.
• Remember to read back all hold short clearances and to HOLD SHORT where you are supposed to.
What is an ATC instruction?
• An ATC instruction is a directive which a PIC must acknowledge and comply with.
• Comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate ATC unit, all of the ATC instructions directed to and received by the PIC
• While a clearance requires a read back, when so requested by ATC, “CLEARED TO DESCEND TO 3 000, ZULU YANKEE INDIA”; VS
• An instruction “ZULU YANKEE INDIA” to acknowledging a new heading.
• You must comply with all instructions provided that safety is not jeopardized.
What are the airspeed limitations below 10,000 ft ASL?
What about below 3,000 and within 10 nm of an airport?
250 KT Below 10,000 ASL
200 KT within 10 nm of a controlled airport unless authorized otherwise by ATC
Cruising altitudes are based on what track and altitudes?
NDA - true track
SDA - magnetic track
Start at 3,000 ft AGL
0-179 odd thousands plus 500 VFR
180-359 even thousands plus 500 VFR
• The PIC shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at an altitude or FL appropriate to the track unless assigned an altitude or FL by an ATC or by permission from the Minister.
• RVSM flight levels appropriate to aircraft track are applicable in designated RVSM airspace.
What is the standard pressure region?
• This includes the Northern Domestic Airspace and all airspace at and above 18 000 feet ASL (aka High Level Airspace).
• In this region the altimeter is set to 29.92 inches of mercury for cruise flight.
• Pilots MUST reset the altimeters AFTER entering and BEFORE leaving the Standard Pressure Region.
• When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from an airport within the Standard Pressure Region change the altimeter immediately prior to reaching desired flight level.
• When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from the Altimeter Setting Region change the altimeter immediately after ascending through 18 000 feet ASL.
• When descending out of Standard Pressure Region change to the nearest current en route altimeter setting immediately before passing through FL180.
What is the altimeter setting region?
• This region is in the Southern Domestic Airspace up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL.
• Altimeters must be set to the current altimeter setting or to the elevation of the airport before taking off.
• In cruise altimeters should be set to the nearest station along the route of flight and when approaching an airport to land it should be set to the current setting of that airport.
When does “flight” time start?
• Flight Time starts as soon as the aircraft is first moved under its own power for the purpose of a flight.
• Flight Time ends once the aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight.
What is air time?
• Air Time starts once the wheels become airborne and it ends once the wheels touch the ground again.
• Air Time is what is recorded in the aircraft’s Journey Logbook.
• It determines when the next inspection is due.
• Flight Time is what you get to record in your Pilot Logbook.
• It determines your level of experience.
