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CPL-H Exam prep > Navigation And Radio Aids > Flashcards

Navigation And Radio Aids Flashcards

1
Q

• Low Frequency radio waves (LF/MF) operate from ____ to ____ KHz.
• These frequencies have the ____ wavelengths.
• Remember that the lower the frequency the ____ the wavelength.

A

30-3,000 KHz
Largest/longest
Larger

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2
Q

What frequencies are used by NDB’s?
What about AM radio?

A

> 190 to 415 and 510 to 535 KHz are used by NDBs
• 550 to 1 750 KHz are used by AM radio.

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3
Q

The High Frequency range operates from _____ to _____ KHz.

HF wavelength is _____

What is a good saying to remember with HF?

A

3,000 - 30,000 KHz
Short
Sun up, frequency up. Sun down, frequency down.

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4
Q

High frequency radio is used mainly for long range air and ground communications, as well as transatlantic flight. True or false?

A

True

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5
Q

Very high frequencies (VHF) operate from ___ to ____ MHz

A

30-300 MHz

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6
Q

VHF bands: what are the frequencies for the following?

___-___ TV
___-___ FM Radio
___-___ ILS
___-___ VOR Canada
___-___ aviation voice comms

A

> 50.00 to 88.00 MHz for TV
88.1 to 107.9 MHz for FM Radio
108.10 to 111.95 ILS

KNOW THESE
> 112.00 to 117.95 Mhz VOR (Canada).
> 118.00 to 137.00 MHz for Aviation Voice Communications

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7
Q

VHF operates from ___-___ MHz
Who mostly uses this frequency?

A

300-3,000
Mostly used by military/government however sometimes used by DME

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8
Q

What is a ground wave?

A

Radio waves that follow the surface of the earth. They can bend along the curvature of the earth.

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9
Q

What is a sky wave?

A

Radio waves sent up towards space and reflected back to earth through the ionosphere. This allows it to travel very far. It can become erratic where it touches back down at the surface.

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10
Q

Sky waves will travel further in the ___ than during the ___.

A

Night, day

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11
Q

____ waves are line of sight only. It is relatively free of atmospheric and precipitation static

A

VHF

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12
Q

The type of navigational aid that operates in the low and medium frequency range is

a. VOR.
b. DME.
C. NDB.
d. all of the above.

A

C

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13
Q

Low and medium frequencies operate in the range of
Select one:

a. 30 to 3 000 KHz.
b. 3000 to 30 000 KHz.
c. 10 to 1 000 KHz.
d. 10 to 100 KHz.

A

A

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14
Q

The high frequency range is used by

a. ILS.
b. VOR.
c. CB radios.
d. long range air/ground communications.

A

D

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15
Q

High frequency operates in the range of

a. 3 000 to 10 000 KHz.
b. 1 000 to 3 000 KHz.
c. 3 000 to 30 000 KHZ.
d. 30 to 300 MHz.

A

C

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16
Q

The very high frequency range is used by

a. VOR.
b. aviation radio communications.
C. ILS.
d. all of the above.

A

D

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17
Q

Who generally uses equipment that operates in the ultra high frequency range?

a. Military and government agency aircraft
b. General aviation aircraft
c. Ground crews
d. None of the above

A

A

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18
Q

Reserved for navigational aids such as ILS and VOR
systems is the VHF band width of

a. 88.1 to 107.9 MHz.
b. 108.0 to 117.95 MHz.
c. 118.0 to 136.0 MHZ.
d. 50 to 88 MHZ.

A

B

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19
Q

Reserved for aviation voice communications is the VHF band width of

a. 200 to 600 KHZ.
b. 118.0 to 137.0 MHz.
c. 108.0 to 117.95 MHz.
d. 88.1 to 107.9 MHZ.

A

B

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20
Q

A NDB uses a frequency band of

a. 190 to 415 KHz and 510 to 535 KHz. V
b. 300 to 600 KHz.
c. 100 to 300 KHz and 415 to 510 KHz.
d. 600 to 1 600 KHz.

A

A

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21
Q

All aircraft that are operated more than __ NM from home base require an ELT.

A

25

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22
Q

ELTs powered by non-water-activated batteries shall be maintained at intervals not exceeding ___ months.

A

12 months

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23
Q

• ELTs powered by water-activated batteries shall be maintained at intervals not exceeding ___ years.

A

5

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24
Q

To prevent an unnecessary Search and Rescue mission, all accidental ELT activations should be reported as soon as possible to the nearest ____

A

ATS unit

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25
Q

An old style ELT transmits on

a. 121.5 and 243 MHz.
b. 121.5, 406, and 243 MHZ.
c. 243 MHZ.
d. 406 MHz.

A

A

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26
Q

Testing of an old style ELT may be done in

a. the first five minutes of any UTC hour for not longer than five seconds.
b. the first five minutes of any hour for not longer than five seconds.
c. accordance with the manufacturers recommendations.
d. an avionics shop only.

A

A

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27
Q

When a 406 MHz ELT is activated for more than 50 seconds

a. an alert will be sent to the nearest JRCC Joint Rescue Coordination Centre) and it will be interpreted as an emergency.
b. an alert will be sent to the nearest FSS and it will be interpreted as an emergency.
c. an alert will be sent to the nearest SAR and it will be interpreted as an emergency.
d. nothing will happen until 60 seconds to initiate a distress message.

A

A

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28
Q

In the ARM position the ELT

a. will not activate.
b. will activate following an accident.
c. is transmitting.
d. is in warm-up mode.

A

B

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29
Q

In the event of an accident

a. it is best to assume the ELT automatically activated.
b. it is best to assume the automatic ELT activation feature has failed.
c. there is an automatic ELT activation feature that is designed to sense crash forces caused by acceleration.
d. there is a G sensor that senses deceleration and will not fail.

A

B

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30
Q

If an ELT becomes unserviceable

a. the aircraft may be operated for up to 30 days without it.
b. it must be removed at the first aerodrome at which repairs and removal may be made.
c. it is sent to a maintenance facility and a placard is displayed in the cockpit stating that the ELT has been removed.
d. all of the above shall be met.

A

D

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31
Q

A radio magnetic indicator (RMI) can point up to how many stations?

A

2

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32
Q

VOR NAVAID data is indicated by the color ____ on aviation charts

The removal of the aural identification feature means?

What if the frequency is underlined on the chart?

A

Black

navaid is undergoing maintenance and should not be considered reliable.

Underlined means there is no voice comms on the VOR

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33
Q

Relative bearing is in relation to the _____, not ___ north

A

Nose of the airplane
Magnetic

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34
Q

NDB’s are always ____ on the chart

A

Green

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35
Q

How to test the VOR?

A

VOR test frequency is in the CFS
> Spin OBS to 360 the CDI must centre +/- 4° with a FROM flag.
> Spin OBS to 180 the CDI must centre +/- 4° with a TO flag.

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36
Q

The shorter the distance, the longer the TO or FROM flag will indicate OFF as the aircraft moves between the TO and FROM envelopes.
True or false?

A

False. It is the greater the distance.

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37
Q

Does aircraft heading have an effect on a VOR reading?

A

No

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38
Q

NDB stands for
Select one:
a. non directional base.
b. navigational direction beacon.
c. non directional beacon.
d. navigation and distance beacon.

A

C

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39
Q

An error or limitation of the ADF could be

a. electrical storms.
b. aircraft’s bank angle.
c. mountains.
d. any of the above.

A

D

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40
Q

The ADF is affected at night by the radio waves

a. reflecting off the ionosphere and returning to the earth 30 to 60 miles away causing the ADF needle to fluctuate.

b. being reflected by the lowered ionosphere at night causing ADF needle fluctuations when nearer than 30 miles from the station.

c. reflecting off mountains causing errors in the signal.

d. from the station bouncing off of other radio waves causing the ADF to fluctuate.

A

A

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41
Q

Night effect affects the ADF the most within

a. 30 minutes of sunset or sunrise at a distance less than 50 NM from the station.

b. 60 minutes of sunset or sunrise at a distance less than 50 NM from the station.

c. 30 minutes of sunset or sunrise at distances greater than 30 NM.

d. 60 minutes of sunset or sunrise at distances greater than 30 NM.

A

D

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42
Q

It is true about night effect that NDB frequencies

a. above 500 kHz should be used.
b. below 350 kHz have very little night effect.
c. above 350 kHz have the greatest night effect.
d. will all have the same night effect.

A

B

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43
Q

A pilot is flying in a mountainous area and the NDB station being used is blocked by a mountain. The pilot should be aware

a. that mountains can reflect the radio waves and cause fluctuations in the ADF needle.

b. the ADF needle can point to the magnetic deposits in the mountain.

c. stations obstructed by mountains should not be used.

d. of all of the above.

A

D

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44
Q

Shorelines affect the ADF

a. by bending the low frequency waves as V they pass from land to water giving incorrect information to the pilot.
b. in no way. DME is most affected by shorelines.
c. radio waves passing over water weakening them and causing the ADF needle to fluctuate.
d. as the NDB’s radio waves can not travel over water, so aircraft over water will not be able to pick up any signal.

A

A

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45
Q

If there is a lightning storm nearby

a. the ADF needle will fluctuate because the lightning blocks the signals from the NDB.

b. because the lightning is sending out radio waves the ADF needle will point to the storm.

c. they generally do not affect the ADF.

d. it can damage the ADF because of the increased energy in the radio waves.

A

B

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46
Q

NDB frequency range is from

a. 100 to 2 000 MHz.
b. 190 to 415 MHz and 510 to 535 MHz.
c. 190 to 415 KHz and 510 to 535 KHz.
d. 100 to 2 000 KHz.

A

C

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47
Q

A NDB with a Class H power output would be operating at

a. a minimum of 1 000 watts.
b. a minimum of 2 000 watts.
c. 50 to 1 000 watts.
d. 50 watts and/or more.

A

B

48
Q

Relative Bearing is the

a. magnetic bearing from the station to the position of the aircraft.

b. bearing to the aircraft relative to magnetic north.

c. magnetic bearing to the station.

d. angle measured clockwise from the nose of the aircraft to the station.

A

D

49
Q

Given: Magnetic heading 230°
Relative bearing 140° degrees
The magnetic bearing to the station would be

a. 010°.

b. 140°.

с. 190°.

d. 230°.

A

A

MH + RB = BTS
230° + 140° = 370° - 360° = 010° BTS

50
Q

Given: Magnetic heading 119°
Relative bearing 080°
The magnetic bearing from the station would be

а. 199°.

b. 019°.

c. 119°.

d. 080°.

A

B

51
Q

The formula for calculating the bearing to the station

a. relative bearing plus magnetic heading.
b. magnetic heading plus relative bearing then plus or minus 180°.
c. magnetic heading minus relative bearing.
d. relative bearing minus magnetic heading.

A

A

52
Q

When using the ADF as the primary navigational instrument while en route or on approach the pilot must

a. listen to the identifier the whole time in case there is a failure.
b. watch for flags on the fixed card ADF.
c. listen to the ident only when on an instrument approach for landing.
d. apply all of the above.

A

A

53
Q

While maintain a constant heading as the aircraft is homing to a beacon the ADF needle continues to move to the left of 360° on the fixed card. This is an indication of

a. a wind coming from the right of the aircraft.
b. the ADF not being tuned correctly.
c. a wind coming from the left of the aircraft.
d. an unserviceable ADF.

A

C

54
Q

While doing a time check, 90° to the BTS, it takes 0+03 to cross 10 radials. It will take the aircraft approximately how long to reach the station?

a. 0.3 minutes
b. 18 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 180 seconds

A

B

time in second / degrees crossed = time to station in minutes
3 minutes x 60 = 180 seconds
180 / 10° = 18 minutes
The correct answer is: 18 minutes

55
Q

18 minutes to station. With a TAS of 100 KT the aircraft’s distance from the station is

a. 41 NM.
b. 23 NM.
c. 10 NM.
d. 30 NM.

A

D

time to station in minutes x speed / 60 = distance to station
18 minutes x 100 KT / 60 = 30 NM

56
Q

When tracking to or from a VOR which will cause an error?

a. Thunderstorms
b. Night effect
c. Precipitation static
d. None of the above

A

D

57
Q

Given: Altitude 12 500 feet ASL
Elevation 500 feet ASL

Can the aircraft’s VOR receive a signal at a distance of 132 NM from the station?

a. No only as far away as 100 NM.
b. Yes as far away as 190 NM.
c. Yes as far away as 136 NM.
d. No only as far away as 57 NM.

A

C

58
Q

The azimuth received from a VOR station is also known as a

a. beacon.
b. radial.
c. bearing.
d. signal.

A

B

59
Q

The Omni Bearing Selector (OBS) on the VOR

a. adjusts the volume of the VOR receiver.
b. changes the track bar so it is centered.
c. tunes in the correct frequency.
d. rotates the azimuth ring which displays the selected VOR radial.

A

D

60
Q

The flag indication on a VOR when out of range from the selected station will be

a. FROM.

b. OFF.

с. ТО.

d. TO or FROM.

A

B

61
Q

The aircraft is on a heading of 270° with the VOR tuned and the OBS set on the 360° radial. The aircraft is directly south of the station giving an indication on the VOR of the track bar

a. centered with a TO flag.
b. centered with a FROM flag.
c. fully deflected right with an OFF flag.
d. fully deflected left with an OFF flag.

A

A

62
Q

The aircraft is on a heading of 019° with the VOR tuned and the OBS set on the 180° radial. The aircraft is directly south of the station giving an indication on the VOR of the track bar

a. centered with a TO flag.
b. centered with a FROM flag.
c. fully deflected right with an OFF flag.
d. fully deflected left with a TO flag.

A

B

63
Q

The aircraft’s VOR is tuned and the OBS set on the 100° radial. The aircraft is directly west of the station giving an indication on the VOR of the track bar

a. left with a TO flag.
b. left with a FROM flag.
c. right with a TO flag.
d. is unable to be determined without an aircraft heading.

A

A

64
Q

With the aircraft’s VOR OBS set to 360° an OFF indication will be given with the aircraft positioned

a. directly north of the station.
b. directly south of the station.
c. directly east of the station
d. 25 NM to the southeast of the station.

A

C

65
Q

It is true regarding the area of ambiguity that

a. it widens as the aircraft approaches closer to the station.
b. it widens as the aircraft flies further away from the station.
c. the closer the aircraft is to the station the longer the VOR will get an OFF flag when passing the station.
d. when inside the area the VOR will indicate a TO flag.

A

B

66
Q

To determine the aircraft’s position without the use of a DME

a. use a single VOR turn the OBS until the track bar is centered with a TO flag.
b. use two VORs and two stations turn the OBS on both until the track bar is centered with a FROM flag. Then plot both lines on a map and the point of intersection is the position.
c. cannot be determine.
d. none of the above apply.

A

B

67
Q

When using a VOT frequency with the OBS set to 360° the indication with the needle centered should be

a. +/- 4° with a FROM flag.
b. +1-6° with a FROM flag.
c. +/- 4 degrees with a TO flag.
d. +/- 6° with a TO flag.

A

A

68
Q

What is DME?
What does it do?
What stations can you get this from?
What frequency band does it operate in?
Is it line of sight only?
What is the inherent error?

A

Distance measuring equipment.
It provides distance to the station in nautical miles.
You can get it from VORTAC, TACAN, and DME installations.
Operates in the UHF frequency
Yes line of sight only.
1/2 nm or 3% of distance, whichever is greater.

69
Q

DME is measured in a slant range. True or false?

A

True

70
Q

DME Slant range error is greatest under what circumstances?

A

High altitudes
Close to the station

71
Q

If an aircraft were directly over the DME station at 6 100 ft AGL, the distance indicator would read what?

A

One mile

72
Q

Can a DME receiver express ground speed?
When is it only accurate?

A

Yes
It’s only accurate if the aircraft is flying directly to or from the station

73
Q

In addition to distance from the station the DME can give

a. ground speed.
b. true airspeed.
c. actual distance over the ground.
d. fuel burn.

A

A

74
Q

The frequency band that DME systems use to operate on is the

a. UHF.
b. VHF.
C. LF.
d. L/MF.

A

A

75
Q

Which type of station often has DME paired with it?

a. NDB
b. LORAN
c. GPS ground station
d. VOR and ILS

A

D

76
Q

A DME signal is accurate to ….., whichever is greater.

a. 1.5 NM or 2% of the distance
b. 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance
c. 1.0 NM or 2% of the distance
d. 5 NM or 3% of the distance

A

B

77
Q

If an aircraft is directly over a DME station at about 6 100 feet ASL with the station being at sea level, the distance displayed on the DME would be

a. 10 NM.
b. 5 NM.
C. 1 NM.
d. O NM.

A

C

78
Q

If flying a DME arc for an instrument approach while maintaining the same distance from the station, the ground speed indicated would be

a. 10 to 40 KT.
b. 0 KT.
с. 100 KT.
d. dependent on how fast the aircraft is moving.

A

B

79
Q

Civilian aircraft can obtain DME information from a

a. TACAN.
b. VORTAC.
C. LORAN C.
d. VORTAC and a TACAN.

A

D

80
Q

The DME operates in the ….. band and is therefore is line-of-site.

a. UHF
b. VHF
C. HF
d. MF

A

A

81
Q

DME operates by

a. transmitting and receiving paired pulses from the ground station.
b. triangulation.
c. transmitting paired pulses from the ground station.
d. interpolation.

A

A

82
Q

How many satellites must be in view of the receiver to obtain a 2d GPS position?
What about a 3D position?

A

3
4

83
Q

What are some advantages of a GPS over ADF/VOR?
What is the accuracy of GPS?
Should you rely on GPS 100% of the time?

A

• Point to point navigation.
• Not affected by weather.
> Unlimited range.
> Very accurate.
• Economical.

Accuracy up to 1 meter but is 6-8 meters 95% of the time.

No you should also refer to maps and over navaids

84
Q

Is GPS line of sight?

A

Yes

85
Q

How many atomic clocks does each GPS have?
What is the timing accuracy?

A

4
One nanosecond or one - one billionth of a second

86
Q

• GPS accuracy is dependent on the ____ ____ of the satellites.

A

Relative position

87
Q

What are the two types of differential

A

• WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System)
• LAAS (Local Area Augmentation System)

88
Q

How many satellites does each of the following require?
RAIM with baro-aiding
RAIM
advanced RAIM, FDE

A

4
5
6

89
Q

An example of Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) is

a. LAAS
b. WAAS
C. GLONASS
d. GARMIN

A

B

90
Q

How many satellites must be received by the
GNSS/GPS in order to get a 2D image of the aircraft’s position?

a. 2
b. 3
C. 4
d. 5

A

B

91
Q

GNSS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to:

a. 6 and 8 meters respectively, 95% of the time.
b. 6 and 8 meters respectively, 90% of the time.
c. 5 and 10 meters respectively, 95% of the time.
d. 5 and 10 meters respectively, 90% of the time.

A

A

92
Q

GNSS/GPS position is based on
Select one

a. precise timing based on triangulation between satellites to establish position.
b. precise timing.
c. measuring the difference between a sent and returned signal.
d. none of the above.

A

A

93
Q

Each GNSS/GPS satellite has ….. atomic clocks that provide precise timing that guarantees an accuracy of….. of a second.

a. 2, one millionth
b. 4, one billionth
c. 2, one billionth
d. 4, one millionth

A

B

94
Q

Which system would provide the most accurate ground speed information?

a. GNSS/GPS
b. LORAN C
C. DME
d. All of the above are equally accurate

A

A

95
Q

Movement of the CDI off track indicates

a. Degrees off track.
b. Signal strength.
c. Strength of signal
d. Distance off track

A

D

96
Q

RAIM works by

a. using extra satellites to calculate a more accurate position.
b. comparing position solutions using different combinations of satellites.
c. using the master satellite to get a more accurate position.
d. comparing and using only the five best satellites to determine position.

A

B

97
Q

Can a GNSS/GPS be used for primary IFR navigation?

a. No, it can be used as a secondary IFR navigation aid.
b. Yes, all panel mounted GNSS/GPS are certified for IFR.
c. Yes, only if it meets TSO C-129.
d. Yes, only if it meets TSO C-129 and is certified for IFR operations.

A

D

98
Q

What is a VDF steer?
How does it work?

A

VHF Direction finding is a service that provides directional assistance to pilots who are unsure of their location.

Controller will ask pilot to transmit for bearing. Pilot would make a transmission that lasts at least 5 seconds, such as saying callsign slowly. The controller will then know where you are

99
Q

What is primary surveillance radar? (PSR)

A

Displays reflected radio signals from contacts like aircraft and weather without requiring any information from the aircraft.

100
Q

What is secondary surveillance radar? (SSR)

A

Requires a reply from a transponder, known as interrogation, to determine the aircraft’s range.
• Significantly improved range over
PSR.
• This method does not determine the position of an aircraft without a transponder and it does not locate weather.

101
Q

The CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) for RNAV shows distance off track in ____ miles.

A

Nautical miles

102
Q

Only DME info is received from a TACAN, unless military equipment is used.
True or false?

A

True

103
Q

What does a radar altimeter do?

A

Provides the pilot with an absolute altitude (accurate height agl) it sends out a pulsed tone directly downward and the time it takes to receive the reflected tone translates into the height agl.

104
Q

What is ACAS?
TCAS?

A

• ACAS - Airborne Collision Avoidance System
• TCAS - Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

105
Q

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) is not able to return

a. the unique transponder code from nearby aircraft.
b. weather.
c. flocks of birds.
d. nearby aircraft with no transponder.

A

A

106
Q

An aircraft passing at 6 000 feet AGL directly overhead a TACAN station will report a DME distance of

a. 2 NM.
b. 0.5 NM.
C. O NM.
d. 1 NM.

A

D

107
Q

Direction finding assistance (DF Steer) can be provided to a pilot flying an aircraft equipped with a

a. VOR.
b. radio.
c. transponder.
d. ADF.

A

B

108
Q

It is correct regarding radar that

a. secondary surveillance radar has a shorter range than primary surveillance radar.
b. primary surveillance radar is able to detect weather and aircraft without a transponder.
c. secondary surveillance radar is able to detect weather and aircraft with a transponder.
d. primary surveillance radar is unable to detect weather and requires an aircraft to have a transponder.

A

B

109
Q

A navigation system that does not provide RNAV capability is the
Select one:
a. GNSS/GPS.
b. VOR/DME.
c. ADF.
d. INS.

A

C

110
Q

The RHO-THETA system is a RNAV system which relies on

a. VOR/DME.
b. VOR.
C. ADF/DME.
d. GNSS/GPS.

A

A

111
Q

An INS is capable of accurate position displays when

a. within range of the transmitting station.
b. satellite coverage is spread out over a wide area.
c. given accurate starting information.
d. at a low altitude and faraway from the station.

A

C

112
Q

A centralized on board system created for flight planning, navigation, and fuel management is known
as

a. GPWS.
b. FMS.
C. TCAS.
d. INS.

A

B

113
Q

It is incorrect regarding TACANs that
Select one:
a. pilots can obtain DME and azimuth from a TACAN.
b. TACAN operates in the UHF range.
c. military equipment is required to take full advantage of a TACAN.
d. even though a TACAN transmits azimuth radials, civilian users are only able to obtain DME information.

A

A

114
Q

How does a transponder work?

A

• The transponder works by the ground equipment sending out a special interrogation signal asking all aircraft “who they are”.
• The airborne transponder picks up the signal and automatically sends back a strong pulsed signal in reply.
• The reply signal is computed into distance and direction, in addition to a pressure altitude when using Mode C.
• This information is then displayed on the air traffic controller’s scope.
> NOTE: The pressure altitude readout is provided by an encoding internal pressure altimeter (blind encoder) - one that is independent of the aircraft altimeter.

115
Q

What is a mode A, mode C, and mode S transponder?

A

• Mode A asks for identification/squawk code (provides position information only)

• Mode C asks for identification/squawk code and altitude information (provides position and aircraft pressure altitude).
• Mode C uses an encoded altimeter. MUST KNOW

> Mode S asks for unique signature, altitude, and limited data.

116
Q

What does the following transponder phraseology mean?
SQUAWK (CODE)
SQUAWK IDENT
SQUAWK STANDBY
STOP SQUAWK

A

• Squawk (code) - Operate the transponder on the specified code
• Squawk ident - Push the IDENT button (positively identifies your aircraft on the scanning screen)
• Squawk standby - Switch transponder to standby position
• Stop squawk - Switch off transponder

CPL-H Exam prep (16 decks)

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