Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine and Surgery Mushkies > Talley and O'Connor Mushkies > Flashcards

Talley and O'Connor Mushkies Flashcards

1
Q

What are the CAGE questions?

A

Cut down
Annoyed
Guilty
Eye opener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the AUDIT-C questions?

A
  1. How often do you have a drink containing alcohol?
  2. How many drinks containing alcohol do you have on a typical day when you are drinking alcohol?
  3. How often do you have 6 or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion
    Each question is scored from 0-4, and unhealthy drinking is >2 for women and >3 for men
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can you classify the complications of alcohol abuse?

A
  1. GI = gastric, pancreatic, hepatic
  2. Cardio = hypertension, arrhythmias, CM
  3. Neuro = Wernickes, Korsakoff, dementia
  4. Haem = anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  5. GU = ED, amenorrhoea
  6. Other = fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the cardio red flags?

A
  1. Blackouts without warning (Stokes-Adams)

2. Felt dizzy/blacked out whilst exercising (severe AS/HCM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the resp red flag?

A

Coughing up blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the GI red flags?

A
  1. Difficulty swallowing (oesophageal cancer)
  2. Vomited blood (GI bleeding)
  3. Blood in stools/black stools (GI bleeding)
  4. Unexplained weight loss (Colorectal cancer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the GU red flag?

A

Blood in urine (UT malignancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the haem red flags?

A
  1. Lots of bleeding from small cut (bleeding disorder)

2. Lumps under arm/neck/groin (malignancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 4 good disease mimickers?

A

TB
HIV
Syphilis
Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you deal with an emotional response?

A 
NURS
Name the emotion 
Show Understanding
Deal with issue with respect
Show support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are common side effects of psychotropics?

A

Sedation and falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common side effects of diuretics?

A

Hypokalaemia
Renal dysfunction
Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are common side effects of NSAIDS?

A
  1. Exacerbation of HTN
  2. of HF
  3. of CKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common side effects of anti-hypertensives?

A

Postural hypotension and falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you start a clinical examination?

A 
WIPER
Wash hands
Introduce yourself
Position the patient
Expose the patient
Right side of bed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 6 vital signs?

A
  1. HR
  2. RR
  3. BP
  4. Sats
  5. Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is the term scleral icterus misleading?

A

Bilirubin is actually deposited in the vascular conjunctiva rather than in the avascular sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a cause of yellow discoloration of the skin, with normal sclerae?

A

Carotenaemia from eating too many carrots and/or mangoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes deep blue discoloration of the face?

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is a lipodystrophic facies seen?

A

Anti-retroviral therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When do you see risus sardonicus?

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 2 features of an acromegalic facies?

A

Supraorbital ridge and prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to presence of deoxygenated haemoglobin in superficial blood vessels (approx >50g/L deoxygenated Hb present in capillaries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why does cyanosis not occur in anaemic hypoxia?

A

Because the total Hb content is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is central cyanosis?

A

There is an abnormal amount of deoxygenated blood in the arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can you classify the causes of cyanosis?

A

Central vs. peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the causes of central cyanosis?

A
  1. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation
  2. Polycythaemia
  3. Hb abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are causes of decreased arterial oxygen saturation?

A
  1. High altitude
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. Lung disease
  4. R to L cardiac shunt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an Hb abnormality that can lead to central cyanosis?

A

Methaemoglobinaemia, often due to drugs such as dapsone or topical anaesthetics, can be fatal if not recognised and treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are causes of peripheral cyanosis?

A
  1. All causes of central cyanosis
  2. Exposure to cold
  3. Reduced CO (LV Failure/shock)
  4. Arterial or venous obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes pallor?

A

A deficiency of haemoglobin (anaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what point does subconjunctival pallor appear?

A

Hb <70g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can you classify the causes of shock?

A
  1. Hypovolaemic
  2. Cardiogenic
  3. Distributive
  4. Obstructive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the causes of hypovolaemic shock? x2

A
  1. External fluid loss = haemorrhage, vomit, diarrhoea, urine, burns, sweating
  2. Internal fluid loss = ascites, haemothorax, fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the causes of cardiogenic shock? x6

A
  1. Arrhythmia
  2. Valve failure
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. MI
  5. Dissection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the causes of distributive shock? x5

A
  1. Anaphylactic
  2. Neurogenic
  3. Septic
  4. Drug-induced
  5. Addisonian
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the causes of obstructive shock?

A
  1. Tension pnuemothorax
  2. Tamponade
  3. PE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can you classify the complications of obesity? x6

A
  1. Endocrine
  2. Cardio
  3. Resp
  4. Gut
  5. Musk
  6. Skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some endo complications of obesity?

A
  1. T2DM
  2. Dyslipidaemia
  3. Amenorrhoea
  4. Infertility
  5. PCOS
  6. Hypogonadism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some resp complications of obesity?

A
  1. Sleep apnoea

2. Dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are come cardiac complications of obesity?

A
  1. HTN
  2. HF
  3. IHD
  4. PE
  5. Cor pulmonale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some musk complications of obesity?

A
  1. Arthritis

2. Immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some skin complications of obesity?

A
  1. Abscesses, cellulitis, fungal infections

2. Venous stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some gut complications of obesity?

A
  1. GORD
  2. NASH
  3. Hernias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What causes perifollicular haemorrhages?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How can you classify dehydration?

A
  1. Mild (<5%) = 2.5L deficit
  2. Moderate (5-8%) = 4L deficit
  3. Severe (9-12%) = 6L deficit
  4. Very severe (>12%) = >6L deficit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are signs of mild dehydration?

A
  1. Mild thirst
  2. Dry mucous membranes
  3. Concentrated urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are signs of moderate dehydration?

A

+

  1. Reduced skin turgor
  2. Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are signs of severe dehydration?

A

+

  1. Gaunt face with sunken eyes
  2. Postural hypotension
  3. Oliguria (<400ml/24hr)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the signs of very severe dehydration?

A

+

  1. Comatose
  2. Moribund
  3. Signs of shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What might a pt have if when you shake their hand they are unable to let go?

A

Dystrophia myotonica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are 3 causes of blue nails?

A
  1. Cyanosis
  2. Wilson’s disease
  3. Ochronosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is ochronosis?

A

A syndrome caused by the accumulation of homogentisic acid in connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are 2 causes of red nails?

A
  1. Polycythaemia (reddish-blue)

2. Carbon monoxide poisoning (cherry-red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What causes yellow nails?

A

Yellow nail syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is yellow nail syndrome?

A

A rare syndrome also known as “primary lymphedema associated with yellow nails and pleural effusion”

57
Q

What are causes of splinter haemorrhages?

A
  1. Trauma (particularly in manual workers)
  2. IE
  3. Vasculitis
58
Q

What are 3 causes of koilonychia?

A
  1. IDA
  2. Fungal infection
  3. Raynaud’s disease
59
Q

What are 3 causes of onycholysis?

A
  1. Over-enthusiastic cleaning under the nails
  2. Thyrotoxicosis
  3. Psoriasis
60
Q

What are 3 causes of Beau’s lines?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Cachexia
  3. Malnutrition
61
Q

What are Beau’s lines?

A

Non-pigmented transverse lines in the nail bed, caused by a temporary cessation of cell division in the nail matrix.

62
Q

What causes leukonychia?

A
  1. Hypoalbuminaemia
63
Q

What are 3 causes of Muehrcke’s lines?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Hypoalbuminaemia
  3. Acute illness
64
Q

What is the difference between Beau’s and Muehrcke’s lines?

A

Beau’s lines are grooved

65
Q

What do you call a single transverse white band?

A

Mees’ lines

66
Q

What are 2 causes of Mees’ lines?

A
  1. Arsenic poisoning
  2. Renal failure
  3. Chemotherapy patients
67
Q

What causes nail fold erythema and telangiectasia?

A

SLE

68
Q

What causes Terry’s nails?

A
  1. CKD

2. Cirrhosis

69
Q

What are Terry’s nails?

A

Also known as ‘half-and-half’ nails, it is when the proximal portion of the nails are white and the distal portion is red-brown

70
Q

What is onychogryphosis?

A

Finger or toe nails shaped like a talon

71
Q

What causes onychogryphosis?

A

Repeated trauma or fungal infections

72
Q

How much will very hot weather cause a pts temperature to increase by?

A

0.5 C

73
Q

How does body temperature change throughout the day?

A

There is diurnal variation, coldest in the morning and reaches a peak between 6pm and 10pm, and thus the febrile pattern of most diseases follows this variation

74
Q

What is hyperpyrexia?

A

Temp >41.6 C

75
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

Temp <35 C

76
Q

What are 5 causes of hyperpyrexia?

A
  1. Heat stroke form exposure
  2. Excessive exertion e.g. marathon runners
  3. Malignant hyperthermia
  4. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  5. Hypothalamic disease
77
Q

What may cause sweet smelling breath?

A
  1. Ketoacidosis

2. Liver failure

78
Q

What may cause fishy breath?

A
  1. Eating fish

2. Uraemic foetor of kidney failure

79
Q

What are 3 causes of ‘bad breath?’

A
  1. Poor dentition
  2. Gingivitis
  3. Nasopharyngeal tumours
80
Q

How can you classify fevers?

A
  1. Continued
  2. Intermittent
  3. Remittent
  4. Relapsing
81
Q

What is a continued fever?

A

Does not remit e.g. Typhoid, drug

82
Q

What is an intermittent fever?

A

Temperature falls to normal each day e.g. pyogenic, lymphoma, miliary TB

83
Q

What is a remittent fever?

A

Daily fluctuations >2 C, temperature does not return to normal (not characteristic of any specific disease)

84
Q

What is a relapsing fever?

A

Temperature returns to normal for days before rising again

85
Q

What are 5 causes of a relapsing fever?

A
  1. Malaria (tertian = vivax/ovale, quartan = malaria)
  2. Lymphoma
  3. Pel-Ebstein of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  4. Pyogenic infection
86
Q

What is meant by a tertian fever?

A

Fever peaks every other day

87
Q

What is meant by a quartan fever?

A

Fever peaks every 3rd day

88
Q

What is the likelihood ratio?

A

A useful way to summarise sensitivity and specificity

89
Q

What is the kappa statistic?

A

A way of expressing the intra-observer variation for a sign or test

90
Q

What is the ESC classification for typical angina?

A

Meets all 3 of

  1. Characteristic retrosternal chest discomfort
  2. Provoked by exertion or emotion
  3. Relieved by rest or GTN or both
91
Q

What is the ESC classification for atypical angina?

A

Meets 2 of:

  1. Characteristic retrosternal chest discomfort
  2. Provoked by exertion or emotion
  3. Relieved by rest or GTN or both
92
Q

What is the ESC classification for non-cardiac chest pain?

A

Meets 1 or none of:

  1. Characteristic retrosternal chest discomfort
  2. Provoked by exertion or emotion
  3. Relieved by rest or GTN or both
93
Q

Where would you feel the pain in a proximal aortic dissection?

A

Anterior chest pain

94
Q

Where would you feel the pain in a descending aortic dissection?

A

Interscapular pain

95
Q

How can you classify the causes of orthopnoea?

A

Common and uncommon

96
Q

What is a common cause of orthopnoea?

A

Cardiac failure

97
Q

What are the 5 uncommon causes of orthopnoea?

A
  1. Massive ascites
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis
  4. Large pleural effusion
  5. Severe pneumonia
98
Q

What is oedema that affects the face most likely to be caused by?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

99
Q

What is syncope?

A

Transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral anoxia, usually due to inadequate blood flow

100
Q

What is presyncope?

A

Transient sensation of weakness without loss of consciousness

101
Q

What are two examples of situational syncope?

A

Micturation and tussive syncope

102
Q

What are two causes of an exertional syncope?

A

AS and HOCM

103
Q

What is a Stokes-Adams attack?

A

Transient loss of consciousness due to reduced cardiac output

104
Q

What is a cause of Stokes-Adams attacks?

A

Complete heart block

105
Q

What drugs are associated with bradycardias?

A
  1. BBs
  2. Rate limiting CCBs (verapamil, diltiazem)
  3. DIgoxin
106
Q

What drugs are associated with QT prolongation?

A
  1. Antiarrhythmics = flecainide, amiodarone
  2. Antibiotics = clarithromycin/erythromycin
  3. Antipsychotics = chlorpromazine, haloperidol
107
Q

What drugs are associated with postural hypotension?

A
  1. Most anti-HTNs but especially prazosin and CCBs

2. Anti-parkinsonian drugs

108
Q

What are the 6Ps of acute limb ischaemia?

A 
Pain
Pallor
Pulseless
Perishingly cold
Paraesthesia
Paralysed
109
Q

What could cause intermittent claudication in young men/athletes when walking but not with running?

A

Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome (PAES)

110
Q

How do you differentiate between lumber canal stenosis (pseudo-claudication) and vascular claudication?

A

In pseudo-claudication, the pain is not relieved by standing but is relieved by sitting (flexing the spine) and may be exacerbated by extending the spine (e.g. walking downhill)

111
Q

What are 2 recreational drugs that can cause MI in young people?

A

Cocaine and amphetamines

112
Q

What is Thomas Sydenham once say about arteries?

A

‘A man is as old as his arteries’

113
Q

Where does the LMS originate from and what are its branches?

A
  1. Originates from the left coronary sinus of Valsalva
  2. LAD supplies anterior wall of heart
  3. LCX supplies back of heart
114
Q

Where does the RCA originate from and what are its branches?

A
  1. Originates from the right coronary sinus of Valsalva

2. Supplies RV and inferior wall of LV

115
Q

What is the origin of the word coronary?

A

From the latin corona, which means garland or crown, as the coronaries look like a garland draped over the heart

116
Q

What are the 9 common palpable arteries?

A
  1. Superficial temporal
  2. Common carotid
  3. Brachial
  4. Radial
  5. Ulnar
  6. Femoral
  7. Popliteal
  8. Posterior tibial
  9. Dorsalis pedis
117
Q

What is a theory explaining clubbing?

A

PDGF release from megakaryocyte and platelet emboli in the nail beds causes fibrovacular proliferation, thus only occurs in conditions where megakaryocytes and platelets are able to clump in the arterial circulation or bypass the pulmonary circulation

118
Q

What is the diamond window clubbing sign called?

A

Schamroth’s sign

119
Q

What is a way of measuring clubbing?

A

Interphalangeal depth ratio, ratio >1 = clubbing.

1. AP dimension of finger is measured at DIP and compared with AP dimension where skin joins nail

120
Q

What are 7 features of Marfans?

A
  1. Tall stature
  2. High arched palate
  3. Thoracic kyphosis
  4. Pectus excavatum
  5. Aortic regurgitation
  6. Long arms and legs
  7. Arachnodactyly
121
Q

What are the cardio causes of clubbing?

A

Atrial myxoma
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Cyanotic congenital heart disease

122
Q

What are the respiratory causes of clubbing?

A
  1. Lung caner
  2. IPF
  3. CF
  4. Chronic pulmonary suppuration = bronchiectasis, abscess, empyema.
  5. Asbestosis, Mesothelioma
123
Q

What are the GI causes of clubbing?

A
  1. Coeliac disease
  2. IBD
  3. Cirrhosis
124
Q

What endo disorder can cause clubbing?

A

Thyrotoxicosis

125
Q

What are 2 causes of unilateral clubbing?

A
  1. Bronchial AV aneurysm

2. Axillary artery aneurysm

126
Q

What are tendon xanthomata?

A

Yellow/orange lipid deposits in the tendons that occur in Type II hyperlipidaemia

127
Q

What are 2 features of Type III hyperlipidaemia?

A

Palmar and tuboeruptive (on elbows and knees) xanthomata

128
Q

What is a pulse deficit?

A

HR when listening with stethoscope at the heart is greater than pulse felt at the wrist

129
Q

Does pulse increase or decrease with inspiration?

A

Increases

130
Q

Does pulse increase or decrease with expiration?

A

Decreases

131
Q

What do you call it when every second heart beat is an ectopic?

A

Bigeminy

132
Q

What do you call it when every third heart beat is an ectopic?

A

Trigeminy

133
Q

What do you call it when 2 ectopics occur in a row?

A

Couplet

134
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta?

A

A congenital narrowing in the aortic isthmus at the level where the ductus arteriosus joins the descending aorta

135
Q

What are 4 causes of a radio-radial delay?

A
  1. Coarctation of the aorta
  2. Subclavian artery stenosis
  3. Dissecting thoracic aneurysm
  4. Takayasu’s arteritis
136
Q

What is pulsus alternans?

A

Alternating strong and weak pulse of advanced LV failure

137
Q

How many Korotkoff sounds are there?

A

5

138
Q

Does BP normally increase or decrease during inspiration?

A

Decreases

Medicine and Surgery Mushkies (52 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions