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Medicine and Surgery Mushkies > Passmed Pharm Mushkies > Flashcards

Passmed Pharm Mushkies Flashcards

1
Q

Diclofenac C/I?

A

Any form of cardiovascular disease

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2
Q

Best CVS profiles of the NSAIDs?

A

Naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen

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3
Q

S/e of spinal anaesthesia?

A
  1. Hypotension

2. Sensory and motor block, nausea, urinary retention

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4
Q

C/I of epidural anaesthesia?

A
  1. Confine pt to bed
  2. Catheter required
  3. Infection
  4. Epidural haematoma
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5
Q

Morphine metabolism?

A

Liver

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6
Q

Pethidine potency?

A

10% of morphine

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7
Q

Neuropathic pain mx?

A
  1. Amitryptiline or Pregabalin
  2. Amitryptiline AND pregabalin
  3. Pain specialist with tramadol in the interim
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8
Q

Diabetic neuropathic pain mx?

A

Duloxetine

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9
Q

Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism?

A

Thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect

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10
Q

Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis types?

A
  1. AIT Type I = excess iodine induced thyroid hormone synthesis, goitre present
  2. AIT Type II = amiodarone related destructive thyroiditis, goitre absent
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11
Q

Mx of AIT Type I?

A

Carbimazole or potassium perchlorate

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12
Q

Mx of AIT Type II?

A

Corticosteroids

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13
Q

Wolff-Chaikoff effect?

A

An autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide

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14
Q

Safest anti-epileptics in pregnancy?

A

Carbamazepine and lamotrigine

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15
Q

HTN in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol

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16
Q

HTN in asthmatic pregnancy?

A

Nifedipine

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17
Q

Chloramphenicol in pregnancy?

A

Grey baby syndrome

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18
Q

Lithium in pregnancy?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

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19
Q

Tetracyclines in pregnancy?

A

Discoloured teeth

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20
Q

Warfarin in pregnancy?

A

Craniofacial abnormalities

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21
Q

Digoxin MOA?

A
  1. Decreases conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter
  2. Increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
  3. Also stimulates vagus nerve
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22
Q

Mx of digoxin toxicity?

A
  1. Digibind

2. Correct arrhythmias, monitor potassium

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23
Q

St Johns Wort inducer/inhibitor?

A

Inducer

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24
Q

4 causes of serotonin syndrome?

A
  1. SSRIs
  2. MAO-inhibitors
  3. Ecstasy
  4. Amphetamines
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25
Q

3 features of serotonin syndrome?

A
  1. Neuromuscular excitation = hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity
  2. ANS excitation = hyperthermia
  3. Altered mental state
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26
Q

Mx of serotonin syndrome?

A
  1. IV fluids
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Severe –> serotonin antagonists e.g. chlorpromazine
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27
Q

Heparin MOA?

A

Activating antithrombin III

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28
Q

Unfractionated heparin MOA?

A

Forms a complex which inhibits thrombin, factors 9,10,11,12

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29
Q

LMWH MOA?

A

Increases action of antithrombin III on factor Xa

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30
Q

4 s/es of heparins?

A
  1. Bleeding
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Hyperkalaemia (inhibition of aldosterone secretion)
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31
Q

Heparin monitoring?

A

APTT

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32
Q

LMWH monitoring?

A

Anti-Factor Xa

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33
Q

Heparin OD Mx?

A

Protamine sulphate

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34
Q

Mefloquine c/i?

A

Hx of anxiety or depression

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35
Q

Ciclosporin s/e?

A

Everything is increased

  1. HTN
  2. K+
  3. Hair
  4. Gums
  5. Glucose
  6. Tremor
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36
Q

4 indications of ciclosporin?

A
  1. Organ transplantation
  2. RhA
  3. Psoriasis
  4. UC
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37
Q

3 s/es of amlodipine?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Flushing
  3. Ankle oedema
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38
Q

Verapamil MOA?

A

Negatively inotropic

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39
Q

Diltiazem MOA?

A

Negatively inotropic

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40
Q

Nifedipine/amlodipine MOA?

A

Peripheral vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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41
Q

2 s/es of metformin?

A
  1. Lactic acidosis

2. GI s/e

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42
Q

Gliptins s/e?

A

Pancreatitis

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43
Q

Glitazones 4 s/es?

A
  1. Weight gain
  2. Fluid retention
  3. Liver dysfunction
  4. Fractures
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44
Q

Sulfonylureas s/es?

A
  1. Hypos
  2. Weight gain and increased appetite
  3. SIADH
  4. Cholestatic liver dysfunction
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45
Q

Why does alcohol lead to polyuria?

A

Inhibits ADH secretion by blocking calcium channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal

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46
Q

Nausea in hangovers?

A

Vagal stimulation of the vomiting centre

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47
Q

Tremors after alcohol?

A

Increased glutamate production by neurones to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol

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48
Q

3 drugs used for alcohol addiction?

A
  1. BZDs for acute withdrawal
  2. Disulfiram = inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
  3. Acamprosate = NMDA receptor agonist, reduces craving
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49
Q

3 s/e of rifampicin?

A
  1. Orange secretions
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Flu-like symptoms
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50
Q

Isoniazid MOA?

A

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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51
Q

3 s/e of isoniazid?

A
  1. Peripheral neuropathy
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Agranulocytosis
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52
Q

Isoniazid inhibitor or inducer?

A

Inhibitor

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53
Q

Pyrazinamide MOA?

A

Converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I

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54
Q

S/e of pyrazinamide?

A
  1. Hepatitis
  2. Arthralgia
  3. Myalgia
  4. Hyperuricaemia causing gout
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55
Q

Ethambutol MOA?

A

Inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan

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56
Q

S/e of ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

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57
Q

Notable verapamil s/e?

A

Constipation

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58
Q

BB 4 s/e?

A
  1. Bronchospasm
  2. Fatigue
  3. Cold peripheries
  4. Sleep disturbance
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59
Q

Nitrates 3 s/es?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Postural hypotension
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60
Q

Nicorandil 3 s/es?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Flushing
  3. Anal ulceration
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61
Q

Sildafenil MOA?

A

PDE-V inhibitor, cause vasodilation through increase in cGMP leading to smooth muscle relaxation in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum

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62
Q

3 PDE-V inhibitors?

A
  1. Sildafenil = Viagra
  2. Tadalafil = Cialis
  3. Vardenafil = Levitra
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63
Q

C/Is to PDE-V inhibitors?

A
  1. Nitrates
  2. Hypotension
  3. Recent stroke/MI
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64
Q

Viagra notable s/e?

A

Blue pill causes blue discoloration of vision

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65
Q

PDE-V s/es?

A
  1. Visual disturbances
  2. Nasal congestion
  3. Flushing
  4. Headache
  5. GI s/e
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66
Q

Which Abx can lower seizure threshold?

A

Quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin

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67
Q

Quinolones MOA?

A

Inhibit Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and Topoisomerase IV –> inhibit DNA synthesis –> bactericidal

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68
Q

Quinolone resistance MOA?

A

Mutations to DNA gyrase and efflux pumps which reduce intracellular quinolone concentration

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69
Q

Quinolones s/e?

A
  1. Lower seizure threshold
  2. Tendon damage
  3. Cartilage damage
  4. QT prolongation
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70
Q

Quinolone c/i?

A
  1. Pregnancy/breastfeeding

2. G6PDD

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71
Q

Initial pain management of acute pancreatitis?

A

IV morphine in 1-2mg boluses until comfortable

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72
Q

Salicylate poisoning mx?

A

Haemodialysis

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73
Q

Opioid OD mx?

A

Naloxone

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74
Q

BZD OD mx?

A

Flumazenil

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75
Q

TCA OD Mx?

A
  1. IV bicarbonate may reduce risk of seizures and arrhythmias
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76
Q

Lithium OD Mx?

A
  1. Normal saline
  2. Haemodialysis
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
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77
Q

Warfarin OD Mx?

A
  1. Vit K

2. Prothrombin complex

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78
Q

Heparin OD Mx?

A

Protamine sulphate

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79
Q

BB OD Mx?

A
  1. If bradycardic then atropine

2. In resistant cases glucagon may be used

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80
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning Mx?

A
  1. Fomepizole = inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
  2. Ethanol
  3. Haemodialysis
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81
Q

Methanol poisoning Mx?

A
  1. Fomepizole or ethanol

2. Haemodialysis

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82
Q

Organophosphate poisoning Mx?

A

Atropine

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83
Q

Digoxin OD Mx?

A

Digoxin-specific Ab fragments

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84
Q

Iron OD Mx?

A

Desferrioxamine

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85
Q

Lead OD Mx?

A
  1. Demercaprol

2. Calcium edetate

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86
Q

CO OD Mx?

A
  1. 100% oxygen

2. Hyperbaric oxygen

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87
Q

Cyanide OD Mx?

A
  1. Hydroxycobalamin

2. Combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate

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88
Q

4 s/e of finasteride?

A
  1. Impotence
  2. Decreased libido
  3. Ejaculation disorders
  4. Gynaecomastia and breast tenderness
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89
Q

Finasteride MOA?

A

5a reductase inhibitor

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90
Q

Finasteride effect on PSA?

A

Decreases PSA

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91
Q

Metformin MOA?

A

Biguanide that activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) –> increases insulin sensitivity and decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis

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92
Q

C/I to metformin?

A
  1. CKD
  2. Recent MI
  3. Severe dehydration
93
Q

Drug metabolism Phase I and Phase II reactions?

A

1, Phase I reactions = oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis. Mainly performed by the P450 enzymes but some drugs are metabolised by specific enzymes, for example alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. Products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic
2. Phase II reactions = conjugation. Products are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. Glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate and other groups are typically involved

94
Q

Where do the majority of Phase I and II reactions take place?

A

The liver

95
Q

What is zero order kinetics?

A

Metabolism which is independent of the concentration of the reactant, due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time

96
Q

4 drugs exhibiting zero order kinetics?

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Aspirin
  3. Heparin
  4. Ethanol
97
Q

What % of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase?

A

50%

98
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is prothrombotic or not?

A

Is prothrombotic

99
Q

Why should metformin be stopped following an MI?

A

Due to a risk of lactic acidosis

100
Q

6 features of opioid abuse?

A
  1. Pinpoint pupils
  2. Watering eyes
  3. Rhinorrhoea
  4. Drowsiness
  5. Yawniing
  6. Needle track marks
101
Q

First line txs for opioid dependence?

A

Methadone or buprenorphine

102
Q

4 drugs to avoid in CKD?

A
  1. Abx = tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Lithium
  4. Metformin
103
Q

5 drugs causing lung fibrosis?

A
  1. Amiodarone
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Cytotoxics e.g. bleomycin
  4. Nitrofurantoin
  5. DA agonists = bromocriptine, cabergoline
104
Q

2 main indications of alpha blockers?

A
  1. BPH e.g. tamsulosin

2. HTN e.g. doxazosin

105
Q

3 precipitators of lithium toxicity?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Renal failure
  3. Drugs = thiazides, ACEi/ARBs, NSAIDs, metronidazole
106
Q

What should be done before using flecainide in AF?

A

Echo to look for structural heart disease

107
Q

Flecainide?

A
  1. Slows conduction of AP by acting as a sodium channel blocker
108
Q

2 indications for flecainide?

A
  1. AF

2. WPW

109
Q

C/I to flecainide?

A
  1. Post-MI
  2. Structural heart disease
  3. Atrial flutter
  4. Sinus node dysfunction
110
Q

Who is responsible for collating and assessing the Yellow Card reports?

A

Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)

111
Q

Characteristic amoxicillin s/e?

A

Rash with infectious mononucleosis

112
Q

Characteristic co-amoxiclav s/e?

A

Cholestasis

113
Q

Characteristic flucloxacillin s/e?

A

Chloestasis

114
Q

Characteristic Erythromycin s/e?

A
  1. GI upset

2. Prolongs QT interval

115
Q

Characteristic ciprofloxacin s/e?

A
  1. Lowers seizure threshold

2. Tendonitis

116
Q

Characteristic metronidazole s/e?

A

Reaction following alcohol ingestion

117
Q

Characteristic doxycycline s/e?

A

Photosensitivity

118
Q

Characteristic trimethoprim s/e?

A
  1. Rashes incl. photosensitivity
  2. Pruritis
  3. Suppression of haematopoiesis
119
Q

Amiodarone s/e?

A
  1. Neuro = peripheral neuropathy
  2. Eyes = corneal deposits
  3. Thyroid
  4. Heart = bradycardia, QT prolongation
  5. Lungs = fibrosis
  6. Liver = cirrhosis
  7. Skin = slate grey, thrombophlebitis, photosensitivity
120
Q

Digoxin toxicity fx>

A

1, Generally unwell

  1. Arrhythmias
  2. Gynaecomastia
121
Q

4 Urinary retention drugs?

A
  1. Anticholinergics
  2. TCA
  3. Opioids
  4. NSAIDs
122
Q

Ecstasy aka?

A

MDMA, 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

123
Q

Ecstasy poisoning features?

A
  1. Neuro = agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
  2. CVS = tachycardia, HTN
  3. Hyponatraemia
  4. Hyperthermia
  5. Rhabdomyolysis
124
Q

Doxazosin MOA?

A

Alpha 1 blocker

125
Q

Each 200mg tablet of amiodarone releases how much free iodine?

A

6mg

126
Q

Alpha 1 agonist?

A

Decongestants e.g. phenylephrine

127
Q

Alpha 2 agonist?

A

Glaucoma e.g. topical brimonidine

128
Q

Alpha antagonists?

A
  1. BPH e.g. tamsulosin

2. HTN e.g. doxazosin

129
Q

B1 agonist?

A

Inotrope e.g. dobutamine

130
Q

B1 antagonist?

A
  1. Non-selective = atenolol

2. Selective = bisoprolol

131
Q

B2 agonist?

A

Bronchodilators e.g. salbutamol

132
Q

B2 antagonists?

A

Propranolol, labetalol

133
Q

DA Agonist?

A
  1. Parkinsons disease e.g. Ropinorole

2. Prolactinoma

134
Q

DA Antagonist?

A
  1. Antipsychotics

2. Antiemetics e.g. metoclopramide/domperidone

135
Q

GABA agonist?

A

Benzodiazepines, Baclofen

136
Q

GABA antagonist?

A

Flumazenil

137
Q

H1 antagonist?

A

Antihistamine e.g. loratidine

138
Q

H2 antagonist?

A

Antacids e.g. ranitidine

139
Q

Muscarinic agonist?

A

Glaucoma e.g. pilocarpine

140
Q

Muscarinic antagonists?

A
  1. Atropine for bradycardia
  2. Ipratropium for bronchodilation
  3. Oxybutinin for urge incontinence
141
Q

Nicotinic receptor agonist?

A
  1. Nicotine
  2. Varenicline (smoking cessation)
  3. Depolarising muscle relaxant e.g. suxamethonium
142
Q

Nicotinic receptor antagonists?

A

Non-depolarising muscle relaxants e.g. atracurium

143
Q

Oxytocin receptor agonist?

A

Inducing labour e.g. syntocinon

144
Q

Oxytocin receptor antagonists?

A

Tocolysis e.g. atosiban

145
Q

Serotonin receptor agonist?

A

Triptans e.g. zolmatriptan

146
Q

Serotonin receptor antagonist

A

Anti-emetics e.g. ondansetron

147
Q

Motion sickness Mx?

A

Hyoscine > cyclizine > promethazine

148
Q

When should allopurinol be started?

A

2 weeks after an acute attack has settled

149
Q

Skin complications of allopurinol?

A
  1. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR)
  2. Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
  3. SJS
150
Q

3 interactions of allopurinol?

A
  1. Azathioprine
  2. Cyclophosphamide
  3. Theophylline
151
Q

Yellow tinting of vision?

A

Digoxin

152
Q

Ondansetron MOA?

A

5-HT3 antagonist

153
Q

5-HT1 agonist?

A

Sumatriptan

154
Q

5-HT2 antagonist?

A

Pizotifen

155
Q

5-HT3 antagonist?

A

Ondansetron

156
Q

Diabetes drug that causes pancreatitis?

A

Gliptins

157
Q

Gentamicin MOA?

A

Aminoglycoside

158
Q

S/e of gentamicin?

A
  1. Ototoxicity = irreversible, due to auditory or vestibular nerve damage
  2. Nephrotoxicity = accumulates in renal failure, lower doses and more frequent monitoring required
159
Q

C/I of gentamicin?

A

Myasthenia gravis

160
Q

Gentamicin dosing?

A
  1. Both peak (1 hour after administration) and trough levels (just before the next dose) are measured
  2. If the trough (pre-dose) level is high the interval between the doses should be increased
  3. If the peak (post-dose) level is high the dose should be decreased
161
Q

BNF CD meaning?

A

Controlled drug

162
Q

BNF PoM meaning?

A

Prescription only medicine

163
Q

BNF NHS with cross meaning?

A

Not prescribable on NHS

164
Q

BNF black triangle meaning?

A

Newly licensed medication

165
Q

BNF black and white box meaning?

A

A preparation that is less suitable to prescribe

166
Q

When should lithium level be monitored?

A

12 hours post dose

167
Q

When should ciclosporin levels be measured?

A

Trough levels immediately before dose

168
Q

When should digoxin levels be measured?

A

At least 6 hours post dose

169
Q

Rifampicin P450?

A

Inducer

170
Q

Isoniazid P450?

A

Inhibitor

171
Q

Smoking P450?

A

Inducer (affects CYP1A2, which smokers require more aminophylline)

172
Q

Cocaine MOA?

A

Blocks uptake of DA, NA and HT

173
Q

S/e of cocaine>

A
  1. CVS = MI, tachy, HTN, QRS widening, QT prolongation, disssection
  2. Neuro = seizures, hypertonia, hyperreflexia, mydriasis
  3. Psych = agitation, psychosis, hallucinations
174
Q

Abdo pain/rectal bleeding after cocaine?

A

Ischaemic colitis

175
Q

Cocaine toxicity mx?

A

Benzodiazepines

  1. CP = + GTN
  2. HTN = + sodium nitroprusside
176
Q

Phenytoin monitoring time?

A

Immediately before next dose (trough levels)

177
Q

St Johns Wort P450?

A

Inducer

178
Q

Transaminases in the 10,000s?

A

Paracetamol OD

179
Q

Severe renal impairment heparin choice?

A

UFH

180
Q

Most highly negatively inotropic calcium channel blocker?

A

Verapamil

181
Q

Breakthrough analgesia dose?

A

1/6th of the total daily opioid dose

182
Q

Salicylate OD blood gas?

A

Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

183
Q

Salicylate overdose fx?

A
  1. Hyperventilation
  2. Tinnitus
  3. Seizures
184
Q

Mx of aspirin OD?

A
  1. ABC, charcoal
  2. Urinary alkisation with IV sodium bicarb
  3. Haemodialysis
185
Q

Drugs causing photosensitivity?

A
  1. Amiodarone
  2. Tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin
  3. Thiazides
  4. NSAIDs
  5. Psoralens
  6. Sulphonylureas
186
Q

Carboxyhaemoglobin levels in smokers?

A

Up to 10%

187
Q

Contrast CT, how long should metformin be stopped for?

A

48 hours after the scan due to risk of renal impairment

188
Q

Fx of organophosphate poisoning?

A

SLUD CO

  1. Salivation
  2. Lacrimation
  3. Urination
  4. Diarrhoea
  5. CVS = hypotension, bradycardia
  6. Other = small pupils, muscle fasciculation
189
Q

Can digoxin toxicity occur even if conc is within the therapeutic range>

A

Yes

190
Q

Classic precipitating factor of digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalaemia

191
Q

Metformin eGFR C/i?

A

If eGFR < 30

192
Q

Methotrexate monitoring bloods?

A

FBC, TFT, U&E

193
Q

Levetiracetam monitoring?

A

Not needed

194
Q

Amiodarone monitoring?

A
  1. TFT, LFT, U&E, CXR prior to tx

2. TFT, LFT every 6m

195
Q

Statin monitoring?

A

LFT at baseline, 3m 12m

196
Q

ACEi mointoring?

A

U&E prior to tx, after increasing dose, and at least anually

197
Q

Azathioprine monitoring?

A

FBC, LFT

198
Q

Lithium monitoring?

A
  1. TFT, U&E prior to treatment
  2. Lithium levels weekly until stabilised then every 3 months
  3. TFT, U&E every 6 months
199
Q

Sodium valproate monitoring?

A
  1. LFT, FBC before treatment

2. LFT ‘periodically’ during first 6 months

200
Q

Glitazone monitoring?

A

LFT before and regularly during treatment

201
Q

S/e of tamoxifen?

A
  1. Menstrual disturbance
  2. Hot flushes
  3. VTE
  4. Endometrial cancer
  5. Osteoporosis
202
Q

How long after removal of tumour is tamoxifen usually used for?

A

5 years

203
Q

UFH monitoring?

A

APTT

204
Q

Cocaine on ABG?

A

Metabolic acidosis

205
Q

Mechanism of aspirin ABG findings?

A

Respiratory alkalosis occurs early due to stimulation of the brainstem medullary respiration centre. This is later followed by metabolic acidosis, due to uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.

206
Q

Chronic alcoholism magnesium?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

207
Q

Hypomagnaesaemia associations?

A
  1. Hypokalaemia
  2. Hypocalcaemia
  3. Hypophosphataemia
  4. Metabolic acidosis
208
Q

Causes of low magnesium?

A
  1. Drugs = Diuretics, PPIs
  2. TPN
  3. Diarrhoea
  4. Alcohol
  5. Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia
209
Q

Mx of low magnesium?

A
  1. <0.4mmol/l = IV magnesium sulphate 40mmol over 24 hours

2. >0.4mmol/l = oral magnesium salts 10-20mmol per day

210
Q

Adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest?

A
  1. Anaphylaxis = 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM

2. Cardiac arrest = 1ml 1:1000 IV

211
Q

Most common s/e of sildafenil?

A
  1. Visual disturbances
  2. Nasal congestions
  3. Flushing
  4. GI side effects
  5. Headache
212
Q

2 indications of finasteride?

A
  1. BPH

2. Male pattern baldness

213
Q

4 s/e of finasteride?

A
  1. Impotence
  2. Decreased libido
  3. Ejaculation disorders
  4. Gynaecomastia and breast tenderness
214
Q

Mx of accidental injection of adrenaline?

A

Local infiltration of phentolamine

215
Q

Lithium excretion?

A

Renal

216
Q

3 drugs that aspirin potentiates?

A
  1. Oral hypoglycaemics
  2. Warfarin
  3. Steroids
217
Q

Confusion, pink mucosae and low grade pyrexia?

A

CO poisoning

218
Q

Metformin not tolerated due to GI s/e?

A

Try a modified release formation

219
Q

Drug causing cataracts?

A

Steroids

220
Q

Drugs causing corneal opacities?

A
  1. Amiodarone

2. Indomethacin

221
Q

3 drugs causing optic neuritis?

A
  1. Ethambutol
  2. Amiodarone
  3. Metronidazole
222
Q

3 causes of oculogyric crisis?

A
  1. Antipsychotics
  2. Metoclopramide
  3. Postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease
223
Q

Mx of oculogyric crisis?

A

IV antimuscarinic e.g. benztropine or procyclidine

224
Q

Amiodarone interaction

A
  1. Decreased metabolism of warfarin

2. Increased digoxin levels

225
Q

Theophylline OD Mx?

A
  1. Haemodialysis

2. Activated charcoal regardless of the time of presentation

226
Q

Caution when using cyclizine?

A

In pts with HF as it may cause a fall in cardiac output

227
Q

Cyclizine MOA?

A

H1-receptor antagonist that acts by blocking histamine receptors in the CTZ

228
Q

Carbamazepine P450?

A

Carbamazepine is an inducer of the P450 system. This in turn increases the metabolism of carbamazepine itself - auto-induction

229
Q

4 indications of Spironolactone?

A
  1. Ascites
  2. HF
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Conn’s

Medicine and Surgery Mushkies (52 decks)

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