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Tagnawa And Sirmata BSWR (Pathology) Flashcards

1
Q

Uterus during pregnancy?
a. Anaplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia
e. All of the above

A

b. Hyperplasia

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2
Q

Cellular adaptation in papillomavirus infection?
a. Anaplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia
e. Hypertrophy

A

b. Hyperplasia

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3
Q

What is the risk of rupture for an aneurysm measuring 5.5 cm?
a. 1%
b. 11%
c. 20%
d. 25%

A

b. 11%

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4
Q

A 49 year old had a heartburn for 10 years. Biopsy done revealed glandular changes in the distal epithelium of the esophagus. What is this cellular adaptation?
a. Anaplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia
e. Hypertrophy

A

d. Metaplasia

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5
Q

The most common cause of cellular injury in clinical medicine?
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Ischemia
c. Apoptosis
d. Autophagy

A

b. Ischemia

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6
Q

Which of the following is responsible for lymphocyte rolling?
a. Selectins
b. Cytokines
c. ICAM
d. PECAM
e. All of the above

A

a. Selectins

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7
Q

Which among the following components of the vessel wall is responsible for the capability of blood vessels to expand and recoil?
a. Elastin
b. Collagen
c. Glycosaminoglycan
d. Endothelial cells

A

a. Elastin

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most important staging factor for malignant tumors?
a. Histologic grade of the tumor
b. Proliferative capacity of the tumor cells
c. Tumor cell karyotype
d. Metastases to regional lymph nodes

A

d. Metastases to regional lymph nodes

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9
Q

Cytogenetic studies in a patient with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) demonstrate a t(9;22) chromosomal translocation. Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of this tumor?
a. Expansion of trinucleotide repeat
b. Altered DNA methylation status
c. Proto-oncogene activation
d. Enhanced expression of telomerase gene

A

c. Proto-oncogene activation

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10
Q

Tumor suppressor gene altered in the majority of cancers.
a. STK1
b. APC
c. RB
d. P53

A

d. P53

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11
Q

A 6-month-old girl has a palpable mass on the left side of her abdomen. Urinalysis shows high levels of vanillylmandelic acid. A CT scan reveals an abdominal tumor and bony metastases. The primary tumor is surgically resected and on histologic studies, the specimen discloses neuroblastoma. Evaluation of the N-myc protooncogene in this child’s tumor will most likely demonstrate which of the genetic changes?
a. Chromosomal translocation
b. Exon deletion
c. Expansion of trinucleotide repeat
d. Gene amplification

A

d. Gene amplification

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12
Q

A tumor marker useful for breast cancer:
a. CA-125
b. CA-19-9
c. CA-15-3
d. AFP

A

c. CA-15-3

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13
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein antigen is a tumor marker used in:
a. Liver cell cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Lung cancer

A

a. Liver cell cancer

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14
Q

Occupational exposure to this compound is linked to the development of acute myeloid leukemia.
a. Benzene
b. Vinyl chloride
c. BPA
d. Dioxin

A

a. Benzene

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the effects of alcoholism on cellular processes?
a. Depletion of NAD impairs fatty acid oxidation leading to steatosis
b. Depletion of NAD impairs conversion of lactate to pyruvate leading to acidosis
c. Reactive oxygen species derived from alcohol metabolism causes lipid peroxidation of hepatocyte membranes
d. Acetaldehyde triggers enterotoxin release from gram-negative bacteria

A

d. Acetaldehyde triggers enterotoxin release from gram-negative bacteria

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16
Q

Overdose with acetaminophen can be treated by:
a. N-acetylcysteine
b. Naloxone
c. Thiamine
d. Activated charcoal

A

a. N-acetylcysteine

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17
Q

Peak sensitivity on developing embryo to teratogenic insult occurs in what week?
a. 0-3
b. 4-5
c. 9-10
d. 28-32

A

b. 4-5

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18
Q

Which of the following fetal growth restriction is most likely to result in asymmetric growth restriction with relative sparing of the brain.
a. Single umbilical artery
b. Trisomy 18
c. Congenital syphilis
d. Congenital rubella

A

a. Single umbilical artery

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19
Q

PE of a child revealed holosystolic murmur, weak pulses in the lower extremities, hypertension in the upper extremities and notch on the ribs. Which of the following congenital heart defects is most likely?
a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Tetralogy of fallot
d. Pulmonary stenosis

A

a. Coarctation of the aorta

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20
Q

Which of the following structures of the heart is most susceptible to ischemia?
a. Endocardium
b. Subendocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Sub-pericardium

A

b. Subendocardium

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21
Q

Which of the following diseases has an MCV of >100
a. Thalassemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. G6PD

A

c. Pernicious anemia

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22
Q

Endothelial lined channel responsible for the exchange of diffusible substances between blood and tissue
a. Arteriole
b. Postcapillary venule
c. Capillary
d. Lymphatics

A

c. Capillary

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23
Q

Which among the chemicals are associated with the development of angiosarcoma?
a. Betel nut
b. Naphthylamine
c. Polyvinyl chloride
d. Dimethylaminoazobenzene

A

c. Polyvinyl chloride

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24
Q

It is considered as the most common cause of hypertension.
a. Cardiovascular diseases
b. Neurologic
c. Endocrine
d. Essential hypertension

A

d. Essential hypertension

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25
Q

In response to hypoperfusion of organs, the kidneys produce this proteolytic enzymes which helps regulate blood pressure:
a. Renin
b. ACE
c. Nitric oxide
d. ANP

A

a. Renin

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26
Q

In the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis, the first event that takes place is _____
a. Lipid accumulation
b. Platelet adhesion
c. Calcification
d. Endothelial injury and dysfunction

A

d. Endothelial injury and dysfunction

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27
Q

What is the most common form of hemangioma?
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Capillary hemangioma
c. Cavernous hemangioma
d. Juvenile hemangioma

A

b. Capillary hemangioma

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28
Q

The following are characteristics of a stable plaque, except:
a. Thick fibrous cap
b. High collagen content
c. Minimal inflammation
d. Large lipid core

A

d. Large lipid core

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29
Q

A 60/M came to the OPD with intense facial pain and headache particularly on the temporal region. Symptoms are accompanied by fever, fatigue and weight loss. Upon physical examination, the temporal artery is tender upon palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Giant cell arteritis
b. Takayasu arteritis
c. Polyarteritis nodosa
d. Microscopic polyangiitis

A

a. Giant cell arteritis

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30
Q

Causative agent of Kaposi Sarcoma.
a. HHV8
b. HTLV1
c. EBV
d. NOTA

A

a. HHV8

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31
Q

In response to hypoperfusion of organs, the kidneys produce this proteolytic enzyme which helps regulate blood pressure
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin converting enzyme
c. Nitric oxide
d. ANP

A

a. Renin

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32
Q

The most common location of aneurysm secondary to atherosclerosis
a. Abdominal aorta
b. Thoracic aorta
c. Common carotid artery
d. Mesenteric artery

A

a. Abdominal aorta

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33
Q

It is a form of vasculitis associated with hepatitis B infection.
a. Kawasaki disease
b. Takayasu disease
c. Polyarteritis nodosa
d. Buerger’s disease

A

c. Polyarteritis nodosa

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34
Q

Which type of aortic dissection involves the ascending aorta only?
a. Debakey I
b. Debakey lI
c. Debakey III
d. A and B are correct

A

b. Debakey lI

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35
Q

A form of vasculitis presenting with asthma, allergic rhinitis with lung infiltrate, and eosinophilic infiltration of vessels and tissues.
a. Churg-strauss syndrome
b. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
c. Microscopic polyangiitis
d. Kawasaki disease

A

a. Churg-strauss syndrome

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36
Q

A 2-year-old male with fever and mucosal bleeding revealed a complete blood count of marked leukocytosis. On blood film, numerous atypical cells were noted suggestive of leukemic process, hence, bone marrow biopsy was done. Bone marrow core biopsy revealed hypercellular marrow packed with an enlarged cell (larger than BC) with fine nuclear chromatin, small and less conspicuous nucleoli and scant cytoplasm. Immunophenotyping revealed TDT, (+), myeloperoxidase (-), CD19 (+), CD10 (+), Pax5 (+). What is the diagnosis of the case?
a. T-ALL
b. B-ALL
c. CML
d. CLL

A

b. B-ALL

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37
Q

With this case, the following are good prognostic markers, EXCEPT:
a. Presence of t(12;21)
b. Hyperdiploidy
c. Low cell count
d. MYC amplification

A

d. MYC amplification

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38
Q

On cytogenetics, such translocation may be observed in this disease:
а. t(12;21)
b. t(9;22)
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

A

c. Both a and b

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39
Q

Neoplastic cells in non-classical Hodgkin lymphoma is usually described as:
a. Infolded nuclear membranes, small nucleoli, chromatin and abundant pale cytoplasm
b. Two nuclear lobes, large inclusion like nucleoli and abundant cytoplasm
c. Mononuclear
d. Folded or multilobulated nucleus and lies within an open space

A

d. Folded or multilobulated nucleus and lies within an open space

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40
Q

The diagnosis of AML is based on the presence of:
a. At least 20% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow
b. At least 20% myeloid blasts with auer rods in the bone marrow
c. At least 10% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow
d. At least 10% myeloid blasts with auer rods in the bone marrow

A

a. At least 20% myeloid blasts in the bone marrow

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41
Q

All of the following are leading causes of death among infants, EXCEPT:
a. SIDS
b. Tumors
c. Prematurity
d. Congenital malformations

A

b. Tumors

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42
Q

Fetal growth restriction is mostly due to
a. Fetal abnormalities
b. Placental abnormalities
c. Maternal abnormalities
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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43
Q

This is true of pulmonary surfactant:
a. Production by type II pneumocytes is accelerated after the 35th week of gestation
b. Predominantly composed of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

A

c. Both a and b

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44
Q

Fetal hydrops can be due to the following, EXCEPT:
a. Immune hemolytic anemia
b. Twin to twin in utero transfusion
c. Non immune hemolytic anemia
d. Cytomegalovirus infection

A

c. Non immune hemolytic anemia

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45
Q

All of the following are components of Wilms tumor, EXCEPT:
a. Immature glomeruli
b. Immature renal tubules
c. Blastemal component
d. Lymphoblastic component

A

d. Lymphoblastic component

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46
Q

A 38 y/o primigravida has premature rupture of membranes at 36 weeks gestation, necessitating delivery. At birth, the infant is noted to have a two vessel umbilical cord, a cleft lip, a heart murmur and spina bifida. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the risk of hyaline membrane disease in the infant?
a. Chorioamnionitis
b. DM, type 1
c. Maternal corticosteroid therapy
d. Oligohydramnios

A

b. DM, type 1

The hyperinsulinism in the fetus of a diabetic mother suppresses pulmonary surfactant production. Corticosteroids stimulate surfactant production in type II pneumocytes. Infection may increase the risk of premature birth, but it does not significantly affect surfactant production. The risk for major malformations, called diabetic embryopathy, is 6% to 10% in infants born to mothers with diabetes mellitus; but there is no set pattern to the anomalies, and similar embryopathies are not seen in gestational diabetes. So the cause for anomalies here is unknown. Macrosomia is the result of growth-promoting effects of insulin in the fetus. Oligohydramnios leads to constriction in utero that culminates in pulmonary hypoplasia, not decreased surfactant. Maternal hypertension may reduce placental function and increase growth retardation, but it typically does not have a significant effect on the production of surfactant.

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47
Q

Physical examination of a newborn revealed microcephaly, frontal bossing, long and narrow forehead, maxillary and mandibular hypoplasia, narrow palpebral fissures, thin elongated philtrum. Ocular problems include microphthalmia, corneal clouding, coloboma and proptosis, A systolic murmur is heard auscultation and echocardiography revealed ventricular septal defect. Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce these findings?
a. Congenital rubella
b. Fetal alcohol syndrome
c. Maternal diabetes mellitus
d. Trisomy 21

A

b. Fetal alcohol syndrome

Alcohol is one of the most common environmental teratogens affecting fetuses, although the effects can be subtle. There is no threshold amount of alcohol consumption by the mother to produce fetal alcohol syndrome; no amount is safe. Children with fetal alcohol syndrome tend to be developmentally impaired throughout childhood, but the physical anomalies tend to become less apparent as the child matures. Vertebral abnormalities, including scoliosis, can be present. The liver can have fatty metamorphosis with hepatomegaly and elevated serum transaminases. The major effects of congenital rubella occur during organogenesis in the first trimester and result in more pronounced defects, including congenital heart disease. Maternal diabetes often results in a larger infant, and malformations may be present. Placenta previa, a low-lying placenta at or near the cervical os, can cause significant hemorrhage at the time of delivery or uteroplacental insufficiency with growth retardation before delivery. Placental causes of intrauterine growth retardation result in asymmetric growth retardation with sparing of the brain. The findings of trisomy 21 are subtle at birth, but typically include brachycephaly, not microcephaly.

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48
Q

The process of migration of leukocytes through the endothelium is?
a. Opsonization
b. Transmigration chemotaxis
c. Margination
d. All of the above

A

b. Transmigration chemotaxis

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49
Q

Accumulation of fluid in body cavities.
a. Edema
b. Effusion
c. Exudate
d. Transudatez

A

b. Effusion

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50
Q

Laboratory test that assess the function of the coagulation factors in the intrinsic pathway (factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, Il, and fibrinogen)
a. D-Dimer
b. Prothrombin time (PT)
c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
d. Thrombin time

A

c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

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51
Q

Virchow triad include:
a. Endothelial injury, stasis, hypercoagulability
b. Epithelial injury, stasis, hypercoagulability
c. Endothelial injury, stasis, hypersensitivity
d. Endothelial injury, turbulence, hypocoagulability

A

a. Endothelial injury, stasis, hypercoagulability

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52
Q

Most common cause of acute gastric ulcer:
a. Helicobacter pylori infection
b. NSAID use
c. Smoking
d. Alcohol intake

A

b. NSAID use

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53
Q

A 35-year-old, HIV-positive man complains that he has had a “bad” taste in his mouth and discoloration of his tongue for the past 6 weeks. On physical examination, there are areas of adherent, yellow-tan, circumscribed plaque on the lateral aspects of the tongue. This plaque can be scraped off as a pseudomembrane to show an underlying granular, erythematous base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Aphthous ulcer
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Glossitis
d. Oral thrush

A

d. Oral thrush

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54
Q

Least likely of the Non-proliferative breast disease
a. It includes common morphologic alterations that are often grouped under the term fibrocystic changes
b. They are not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
c. It includes intraductal papilloma
d. Consists of three principal morphologic changes (fibrosis, cysts, adenosis)

A

c. It includes intraductal papilloma

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55
Q

Most common, location of pilocytic astrocytoma.
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebral hemisphere
c. Spinal cord
d. Optic nerve

A

a. Cerebellum

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56
Q

This tumor arises from the meningothelial cells of the arachnoid.
a. Meningioma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Gangliogliomas
d. Choroid plexus papillomas

A

a. Meningioma

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57
Q

A congenital immune deficiency syndrome characterized by the loss of T cells with a particular susceptibility to Candida sp. infections.
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Conn syndrome
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

a. DiGeorge syndrome

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58
Q

Patient manifest with hypertension that is resistant to antihypertensive therapy, sudden attacks of dizziness, blurred vision, and excruciating headaches. A 24-hour urinalysis reveals increased metanephrines.
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Pituitary adenoma

A

c. Pheochromocytoma

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59
Q

Characteristics of melanoma, except:
a. A = asymmetric
b. B = border is irregular
c. C = color is variable
d. D = diameter is < 6 mm
E. E = exposure history to UV light

A

d. D = diameter is < 6 mm

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60
Q

The most important cause of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is DNA damage induced by:
a. HPV infection
b. Cigarette smoking
c. UV light exposure
d. Alcohol

A

c. UV light exposure

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61
Q

A 12-year-old girl presents with numerous freckles over her upper trunk and face. How would you describe the morphology of her freckles?
a. Macule
b. Nodule
c. Papule
d. Plaque

A

a. Macule

62
Q

The most common histologic subtype of infiltrating breast cancer is ER negative and Her2 negative.
a. Invasive ductal carcinoma
b. Invasive lobular carcinoma
c. Mucinous carcinoma
d. Medullary carcinoma

A

a. Invasive ductal carcinoma

63
Q

All types of invasive carcinomas are graded using the Nottingham Histologic Score using the following parameters, except:
a. Tubule formation
b. Necrosis
c. Nuclear pleomorphism
d. Mitotic figures

A

b. Necrosis

64
Q

Least likely of Male breast cancer.
a. Some cases are associated to associated with Klinefelter syndrome
b. The most important familial factor conferring an increased risk form male breast cancer is germline mutation of BRCA2.
c. 4% to 40% of cases in males are attributed to germline BRCA1 mutation
d. Usually present as a palpable subareolar mass, 2 to 3 cm in size and/or as nipple discharge

A

c. 4% to 40% of cases in males are attributed to germline BRCA1 mutation

65
Q

This gene is responsible for 80-90% of single gene familial breast cancers.
a. TPS3
b. BRCA2
c. CH1
d. CHEK2

A

b. BRCA2

66
Q

The most common among the 3 major biological subgroups based on the expression of estrogen receptor and HER2.
a. ER-positive, HER2-negative
b. HER2-positive, ER-negative
c. ER-negative, HER2-negative
d. Her2-positive, ER positive

A

a. ER-positive, HER2-negative

67
Q

Least likely of Lobular Carcinoma in Situ.
a. Consists of uniform population of cells with oval or round nuclei and small nucleoli involving ducts and lobules.
b. Lack of E-cadherin results in a rounded shape without attachment to adjacent cells.
c. The histologic hallmark is the presence of discohesive infiltrating tumor cells, often including signet ring cells.
d. Always associated to extensive desmoplastic stroma

A

d. Always associated to extensive desmoplastic stroma

68
Q

The most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in children with and light microscopic finding which is unremarkable and podocyte foot effacement on electron microscopy:
a. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
c. IgA Nephropathy
d. Minimal change disease
e. All of the Above

A

d. Minimal change disease

69
Q

Which of the following tumors arises from the metaphysis?
a. Chondroblastoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewing sarcoma

A

b. Osteosarcoma

70
Q

All of the following describes a neoplastic cell in a bone forming tumor, except:
a. The neoplastic cells are large with abundant cytoplasm.
b. Tumor cells resembles osteoblast
c. Contains gelatinous and myxoid matrix
d. Their cytoplasm is eosinophilic containing newly formed bone matrix

A

c. Contains gelatinous and myxoid matrix

71
Q

Benign lesion less than 2 cm, commonly involves the femur and tibia, oval masses of hemorrhagic, gritty tan tissue with nidus formation on radiograph.
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Chondroma
d. Chondroblastoma

A

a. Osteoid osteoma

72
Q

Which of the following tumors is commonly associated with the formation of Codman triangle?
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Ewing sarcoma

A

a. Osteogenic sarcoma

73
Q

A benign bone forming tumor characterizes microscopically by the presence of multiple blood-filled cystic spaces separated by thin, tan-white septa containing fibroblasts, osteoclast-like giant and reactive woven bone.
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Chondoma
c. Osteoma
d. Tenosynovial tumor

A

a. Aneurysmal bone cyst

74
Q

Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy, typically presenting as an ascending distal sensorineural neuropathy.
a. Diabetic neuropathy
b. Uremic neuropathy
c. Thyroid Dysfunction
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

a. Diabetic neuropathy

75
Q

All of the following infectious agents are associated with peripheral neuropathies, except:
a. Leprosy
b. Measles
c. Diphtheria
d. Varicella

A

b. Measles

76
Q

Presence of sezary-lutzner cell is a hallmark of:
a. Mycosis fungoides
b. Psoriasis
c. Mastocytosis
d. Ichthyosis

A

a. Mycosis fungoides

77
Q

Identify the Clark level when the melanoma cells infiltrate down the entire thickness of papillary and reticular dermis.
a. Clark level 1
b. Clark level 2
c. Clark level 3
d. Clark level 4

A

b. Clark level 2

78
Q

Anterior chamber of the eye is bounded by:
a. Iris posteriorly
b. Lens posteriorly
c. Cornea posteriorly
d. Vitreous body anteriorly

A

a. Iris posteriorly

79
Q

What structure mainly drains the aqueous fluid?
a. Foveola
b. Pars plicata of the ciliary body
c. Canal of Schlemm
d. Choroidal vessels

A

c. Canal of Schlemm

80
Q

A thyroidectomy specimen from a 20 year female weighed 81 grams with a diffusely enlarged gland with beefy red parenchyma. Histologic sections revealed follicles lined by tall columnar epithelium and scalloped colloid edges. The histopathologic findings are consistent with?
a. Diffuse multinodular goiter
b. Grave’s disease
c. Follicular Adenoma
d. Papillary thyroid Carcinoma

A

b. Grave’s disease

81
Q

The least common subtype of thyroid carcinoma is?
a. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
b. Anaplastic carcinoma
c. Follicular carcinoma
d. Medullary carcinoma

A

b. Anaplastic carcinoma

82
Q

A 40 year old, female, Covid-19 survivor came in due to anterior neck mass. Thyroidectomy was done and revealed areas with firm, yellow and rubbery brown cut surfaces. Histologic sections revealed disrupted follicles with neutrophils, microabscesses and multinucleated giant cells.
a. Myxedema
b. Cretinism
c. De Quervain’s Thyroiditis
d. Graves disease

A

c. De Quervain’s Thyroiditis

83
Q

34-year-old man complains of sudden attacks of dizziness, blurred vision, and excruciating headaches of 4 months in duration. During one of these attacks, his blood pressure was 180/120 mm Hg. The patient’s father had been treated for thyroid cancer about 15 years ago. Laboratory studies show normal serum levels of aldosterone, renin, and angiotensin. A 24-hour urinalysis reveals increased metanephrines. Episodic hypertension in this patient is most likely caused by a tumor in which of the following endocrine organs?
a. Adrenal
b. Thyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas

A

a. Adrenal

84
Q

A 60-year-old man with diabetes mellitus complains of deep burning pain and sensitivity. to touch over his hands and fingers. Nerve conduction studies show slow transmission of impulses and diminished muscle stretch reflexes in the ankles and knees. Sensations to vibrations and light touch are also markedly diminished. The development of polyneuropathy in this patient correlates best with which of the following conditions?
a. Anti-insulin antibody titer
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Insulin deficiency
d. Intermittent hypoglycemia

A

b. Hyperglycemia

85
Q

Which of the following increase the risk for bladder carcinoma:
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Schistosoma haematobium
e. All of the Above

A

d. Schistosoma haematobium

86
Q

The most common site of metastasis of renal cell carcinoma is?
a. Lungs
b. Heart
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Liver
e. All of the Above

A

a. Lungs

87
Q

A 10 year old male had a renal disease. Physical findings observed to have prominent periorbital edema at diagnosis. Laboratory test findings from serum and urine tests were analyzed. Which of the following urinalysis test findings is most likely to have been consistently present in these subjects?
a. Nitrite positive
b. Proteinuria >3.5 gm/24 hours
c. Hematuria with >10 RBC/hpf
d. Renal tubular epithelial cells & cast
e. All of the Above

A

e. All of the Above

88
Q

A permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles caused by destruction of the muscle and elastic supporting tissue, resulting from chronic necrotizing infections is?
a. Emphysema
b. Pulmonary bronchitis
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Bronchiolitis

A

c. Bronchiectasis

89
Q

Oral change in Measles.
a. Koplik spots
b. Pseudomembrane
c. Lacelike, reticulate, white keratotic lesions
d. Strawberry tongue

A

a. Koplik spots

90
Q

The following disease entities are associated with Epstein-Barr virus, except:
a. Hairy leukoplakia
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d. Allergic rhinitis

A

d. Allergic rhinitis

91
Q

The most common laryngeal carcinoma related to smoking and alcohol use:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Undifferentiated carcinoma
c. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

92
Q

Which among the following ovarian tumor is the counterpart of testicular seminoma?
a. Dysgerminoma
b. Immature teratoma
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Granulosa cell tumor

A

a. Dysgerminoma

93
Q

All of the following ovarian tumors arises from the ovarian stroma, except:
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Fibromas
c. Sertoli-leydig cells
d. Thecomas
e. Clear cell tumor

A

e. Clear cell tumor

94
Q

The most common implantation site of ectopic pregnancy.
a. Fallopian tube
b. Ovaries
c. Peritoneum
d. None of the above

A

a. Fallopian tube

95
Q

The most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas usually produces what type of complication?
a. Obstructive jaundice
b. Pancreatitis
c. Pancreatic carcinoma
d. Pseudocyst

A

b. Pancreatitis

96
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of pancreas wherein the main pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct and the accessory pancreatic duct drains into the duodenum through a separate minor papilla.
a. Pancreas divisum
b. Annular pancreas
c. Ectopic pancreas
d. Acute pancreatitis

A

a. Pancreas divisum

97
Q

The following statement/s is/are true of Meckel’s diverticulum:
a. It occurs in 2% of the population.
b. It is located 2 inches from the ileocecal valve.
c. It is 2x as common in males than in females.
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

98
Q

Which of the following is true of Hirschsprung disease?
a. Caused by failed involution of the vitelline duct.
b. Sigmoid is the most common site.
c. Characterized by hyperplasia of the muscularis propria.
d. The diagnosis is based on the absence of ganglion cells.

A

d. The diagnosis is based on the absence of ganglion cells.

99
Q

Hepatic acinar zone distal to the central vein is?
a. Zone I
b. Zone lI
c. Zone Ill
d. Zone IV

A

a. Zone I

100
Q

Which of the following is a reversible fatty liver change?
a. Ballooning degeneration
b. Apoptosis
c. Necrosis
d. Calcium influx mitochondrial densities

A

a. Ballooning degeneration

101
Q

The most powerful prognostic indicator in gastric cancer is /are:
a. Depth of invasion
b. Location of tumor
c. Tumor size
d. Type of tumor

A

a. Depth of invasion

102
Q

A 35-year-old man complains of severe acute peri-umbilical pain that radiates to his back and nausea. The patient recently had a heart transplant for idiopathic cardiomyopathy and is taking azathioprine for immunosuppression. Physical examination reveals bruising of both flanks. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse rate 100 per minute, and temperature 37.8°C (100°F). Laboratory studies show elevated serum levels of amylase (950 U/L) and lipase (780 U/L), normal levels of serum calcium, and a normal serum lipid profile. The patient expires, and the pancreas is examined at autopsy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of these pathologic findings?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Graft-versus-host reaction
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Acute ischemia
e. Drug-induced pancreatitis

A

e. Drug-induced pancreatitis

103
Q

A 10 year old boy presents with xanthomas on the extensor surfaces of his forearms. Laboratory studies show elevated serum cholesterol level. The child’s mother and maternal grandfather also have elevated serum cholesterol. This patient most likely has mutations in the gene that encode the proteins involved in lipid metabolism:
a. Cholesterol hydroxylase
b. High-density lipoprotein receptor
c. Low density lipoprotein receptor
d. Chylomicron transport protein

A

c. Low density lipoprotein

104
Q

Blood vessel which transport blood towards the heart.
a. Arteries
b. Capillaries
c. Veins
d. Arterioles

A

c. Veins

105
Q

Histologic findings in ependymoma
a. Eosinophilic corkscrew shape inclusion (Rosenthal fiber)
b. Eosinophilic granular bodies (n=mulberry like inclusion)
c. Fried egg nuclear appearance
d. Perivascular pseudorosettes

A

d. Perivascular pseudorosettes

106
Q

The most common CNS neoplasm in immunosuppressed
individual.
a. Glioblastoma
b. Gangliomas
c. Primary CNS lymphoma
d. Oligodendroglioma

A

c. Primary CNS lymphoma

107
Q

Which among the following pair is correct?
a. Glioblastoma = Rosenthal fiber
b. Pilocytic astrocytoma = Nuclear palisading
c. Ependymoma = Homer wright rosette
d. Meningioma = Psammoma bodies

A

d. Meningioma = Psammoma bodies

108
Q

Medullablastoma arising from the vermis or the lateral cerebellum exhibit this genetic alteration
a. WNT/ beta catenin signaling pathway – anterior 4th ventricle or middle cerebellar peduncle
b. Activation of Sonic hedgehog pathway
c. BRAF mutation
d. PDL1 gene overexpression

A

a. WNT/ beta catenin signaling pathway – anterior 4th ventricle or middle cerebellar peduncle

109
Q

Primary brain tumor associated with an elevated CSF beta HCG and AFP marker
a. Lymphoma
b. Meningioma
c. Metastatic adenocarcinoma
d. Germinoma

A

d. Germinoma

110
Q

The following are true about craniopharyngioma, except
a. They are derived from the Rathke’s pouch.
b. Most common location is in the vermis.
c. Composed of cystic spaces lined by stratified epithelium
d. None of the above

A

b. Most common location is in the vermis.

111
Q

What type of meningioma will have a positive staining on cytokeratin?
a. Secretory type
b. Fibroblastic
c. Meningiomatous
d. Transitional

A

a. Secretory type

112
Q

A 25-year-old man suffered trauma to the base of the skull in a motorcycle accident 4 months ago. He has polyuria, (-) blood, (-) glucose, (-) protein. The polyuria is most likely caused by a lesion in which area of the brain?
a. Adenohypophysis
b. Neurohypophysis
c. Brain stem
d. Amygdala

A

b. Neurohypophysis

113
Q

A blistering disorder with linear deposition of complement along that dermoepidermal junction.
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Dermatitis herpetiformis
d. Epidermolysis bullosa

A

b. Bullous pemphigoid

114
Q

Rough, scaly lesions, 1 to 2 cm in diameter, coalesce; occur in the soles confused with ordinary calluses.
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Verruca plana
c. Verruca plantaris
d. Verruca palmaris

A

c. Verruca plantaris

115
Q

A common superficial fungal infection of the body surface that affects person of all ages, but particularly children; morphology; expanding, round, slightly erythematous plaque with an elevated scaling border.
a. Tinea capitis
b. Tinea barbae
c. Tinea corporis
d. Tinea cruris

A

c. Tinea corporis

116
Q

Acanthosis nigricans are associated with the following, except;
a. Obesity
b. Pituitary or pineal tumors
c. Diabetes
d. Hypertension

A

d. Hypertension

117
Q

What is the most likely causative agent of numerous “blackheads” over the forehead and cheeks of teenagers?
a. Clostridium sp.
b. Propionibacterium sp.
c. Staphylococcus sp.
d. Streptococcus sp.

A

b. Propionibacterium sp.

118
Q

Which of the following features is least likely to be associated with this painful lesion excised from the leg of a 65 years old man?
a. Presents with a central nidus on x-ray
b. Immature interconnected woven bone forms the majority of the tumor.
c. Responds to pain medication
d. Usually measures more than 2 cm

A

d. Usually measures more than 2 cm

119
Q

Hepatic acinar zone with highest aerobic metabolic capacity is?
a. Zone II
b. Zone IV
c. Zone V
d. Zone III
e. Zone I

A

e. Zone I

120
Q

The causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis.
a. Clostridium deficile
b. Candida
c. E. coli
d. Yersinia

A

a. Clostridium deficile

121
Q

Zollinger Ellison Syndrome, a gastric secreting tumor, is best described as:
a. Predominantly involves proliferation of the parietal cells.
b. Predominantly involves proliferation of the mucous neck cells.
c. Hypoproteinemia is a clinical finding.
d. A tumor that produces transforming growth factor.

A

a. Predominantly involves proliferation of the parietal
cells.

122
Q

Esophagitis cause by this organism produces punch out ulcers.
a. Herpes virus
b. H. pylori
c. CMV
d. None of the above

A

a. Herpes virus

123
Q

The following are considered risk factor in the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma, EXCEPT:
a. Tobacco
b. Radiation exposure
c. Barret esophagus
d. H. pylori infection

A

d. H. pylori infection

124
Q

The following are characteristic if achalasia, EXCEPT:
a. Complete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
b. Increase tone of the lower esophageal sphincter.
c. Aperistalsis of the esophagus
d. In most cases, it is due to ganglion cell degeneration.

A

a. Complete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.

125
Q

The following diseases are part of the Paterson-Brown Kelly syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Glossitis
b. Cheliosis
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. Iron deficiency

A

c. Folic acid deficiency

126
Q

What enzyme sets in the cascade of activation of enzymes in acute pancreatitis?
a. Trypsinogen
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsinogen
d. Pepsin

A

b. Trypsin

127
Q

A 63 y/o man who had a worsening congestive heart failure with cardiac dysrhythmias for the past year of his life has died of pneumonia. At autopsy, his pancreas is grossly small and densely fibrotic. Microscopic examination shows extensive atrophy of the acini with residual chronic inflammation, fibrosis and inspissated protein plugs shows calcification. The islets of Langerhans appear normal. The heart weighs 500g, and all four chambers are dilated. Which of the following conditions most likely to account for this findings.
a. Hypercholesterolemia
b. Chronic alcoholism
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Cystic fibrosis

A

b. Chronic alcoholism

128
Q

A 35 y/o man has a 1 yr history of bouts of dull abdominal pain. Over the next 5 years he also develops steatorrhea and mild glucose intolerance. He does not develop jaundice. An abdominal CT scan shows specks of calcification near the duodenum. One of his sisters has the similar clinical picture, but both the parents are unaffected. Loss of inhibition of which of the following is the most likely cause for the disease seen in these persons?
a. Amylase
b. Trypsin
c. Lipase
d. TGF-B

A

b. Trypsin

129
Q

A 24 y/o pregnant woman has a screening ultrasound that shows polyhydramnios at 17 weeks gestation. She gives birth to a term, baby boy who on examination has no abnormal findings. Since birth, he has often vomited after feedings. Laboratory findings show sodium 130 mmol/L; Potassium, 3.4 mmol/L; Chloride, 85 mmol/L; Glucose, 65mg/dL; Amylase and Lipase were unremarkable. What could be the possible diagnosis?
a. Ampulla of vater carcinoma
b. Annular pancreas
c. Pancreatic divisum
d. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

b. Annular pancreas

130
Q

All of the following are histologic features of the lichen sclerosus, EXCEPT:
a. Acanthosis
b. Hyperkeratosis
c. Band-like lymphocytic infiltrates
d. Basal cell degeneration

A

a. Acanthosis

131
Q

What is the most common carcinoma that may arise from mature cystic teratoma?
a. Melanoma
b. Thyroid carcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Transitional cell carcinoma

A

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

132
Q

Which among the following is the precursor of Gartner duct cysts?
a. Urogenital sinus
b. Mullerian ducts
c. Mesonephric ducts
d. Germ cell

A

c. Mesonephric ducts

The mesonephric ducts normally regress in the female, but remnants may persist into adult life as epithelial inclusions adjacent to the ovaries, tubes, and uterus. In the cervix and vagina, these rests may be cystic and are termed Gartner duct cysts.

133
Q

This ovarian tumor elaborates high level of estrogen and inhibin.
a. Granulosa–cell tumor
b. Sertoli-leydig cells
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Dysgerminoma

A

a. Granulosa – cell tumor

134
Q

The following condition are part of MEIGS SYNDROME, except;
a. Hydrothorax
b. Ascites
c. Endometrial tumor
d. None of the above

A

c. Endometrial tumor

The first is ascites, found in about 40% of cases in which the tumors measure more than 6 cm in diameter. Uncommonly there is also a hydrothorax, usually only on the right side. This combination of findings (ovarian tumor, hydrothorax, and ascites) is designated Meigs syndrome.

135
Q

All of the following ovarian tumors arise from the ovarian stroma except:
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Fibromas
c. Sertoli–leydig cells
d. Thecomas
e. Clear cell tumor

A

e. Clear cell tumor

136
Q

Which among the following ovarian tumor arises from an in situ lesion from the fallopian tubes?
a. Low grade serous carcinoma
b. High grade serous carcinoma
c. Endometrioid carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma

A

b. High grade serous carcinoma

137
Q

This is a superficial gray to white inflammatory membrane composed of matted organisms enmeshed in a fibrinosuppurative exudate that can easily be scraped-off from the tongue revealing an erythematous base
a. Thrush
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Lichen planus
d. Herpes labialis

A

a. Thrush

138
Q

This nodule develop on the vocal cords, most often in heavy smokers or in individuals who impose great strain on their vocal cords.
a. Laryngeal squamous papilloma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Reactive nodule (singer’s nodule)
d. Inverting papilloma

A

c. Reactive nodule (singer’s nodule)

139
Q

A cystic lesion of the middle ear lined by keratinizing squamous epithelium filled with keratin.
a. Chronic otitis media
b. Otosclerosis
c. Carotid body tumor
d. Cholesteatoma

A

d. Cholesteatoma

140
Q

Cyst that originates at the impacted third molar teeth.
a. Periapical cyst
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Odontoma

A

b. Dentigerous cyst

141
Q

These are lesions that appear as groups of small vesicles on the lips.
a. Pemphigus
b. Allergic rhinitis
c. Herpes labialis
d. Croup

A

c. Herpes labialis

142
Q

Tzanck test is a diagnostic test for __.
a. Herpes virus infection
b. Epstein-Barr virus infection
c. Candida infection
d. Streptococcus pneumonia infection

A

a. Herpes virus infection

143
Q

These are submucosal nodular mass primarily at the buccal mucosa along the bite line.
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Inverted papilloma
c. Thyroglossal duct cyst
d. Irritation fibroma

A

d. Irritation fibroma

144
Q

Inflammation of the oral mucosa surrounding the teeth that leads to dental plaque and calculus.
a. Peridontitis
b. Gingivitis
c. Stomatitis
d. Thrush

A

b. Gingivitis

145
Q

48-year-old woman has had increasing malaise for the past 6 months. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings except for diminished sensation to pinprick and light touch in her lower legs and feet. She is afebrile and normotensive. Laboratory studies show serum creatinine 4.5 mg/dL, urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL, glucose 130 mg/dL, and hemoglobin A1C 7.9%. A urinalysis shows 1+ glucose, 1+ protein, no blood, and no ketones. Urine microscopic examination shows 1 RBC/HPF and 1 WBC/HPF. Which of the following pathologic abnormalities is she most likely to have her kidneys?
a. Acute pyelonephritis
b. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
c. Membranous nephropathy
d. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
e. Polycystic change

A

d. Nodular glomerulosclerosis

146
Q

A 30-year-old man has noted puffiness around his eyes and swelling of his feet for the past 2 weeks. On physical examination his blood pressure is 155/95 mmHg. Urine microscopic examination reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?
a. Ascending pyelonephritis
b. Nephritic syndrome
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Obstructive uropathy
e. Papillary necrosis

A

c. Nephrotic syndrome

147
Q

Which of the following is the most important prognostic factor in bladder tumors?
a. Histologic grade
b. Painless hematuria
c. Histologic type
d. Depth of invasion
e. All of the above

A

d. Depth of invasion

148
Q

Most common composition of struvite stone?
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Potassium permanganate
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
e. All of the above

A

d. Magnesium ammonium phosphate

149
Q

A glomerular syndrome dominated by the acute onset of usually grossly visible hematuria, mildly moderate proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, severe edema, hyperlipidemia and lipiduria.
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Nephritic syndrome
c. Membranous glomerulonephritis
d. IgA nephropathy
e. All of the above

A

d. IgA nephropathy

150
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the criteria in classifying phyllodes tumor whether it be benign, borderline or malignant:
a. Stromal cellularity
b. Stromal atypia
c. Mitotic count
d. Benign heterologous component

A

d. Benign heterologous component

Revalida (11 decks)

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