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Agsa Pharma 2nd SEM FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary physiological role of vasopressin?
a. Regulation of blood glucose levels
b. Stimulation of uterine contractions during labor
c. Control of blood pressure and water balance
d. Promotion of bone growth

A

c. Control of blood pressure and water balance

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2
Q

In this phase of clinical trial, the drug is studied in patients with the target disease to determine its efficacy (“proof of concept”), and the doses to be used in any follow-on trials. A modest number of patients (100–200) are studied in detail.
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

b. Phase 2

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3
Q

Sam had been taking prednisone for his ulcerative colitis but failed to take it for the last week. He suddenly had symptoms of lightheadedness or dizziness, weakness, sweating, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting suggestive of adrenal insufficiency. This drug should be given
a. Prednisone
b. Fludrocortisone
c. Mifepristone
d. Spironolactone

A

b. Fludrocortisone

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4
Q

A 14-year-old boy who has diabetes and is insulin dependent is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at a baseball game. His blood sugar is 463 mg/dL by finger stick. Which of the following routes of administration would be most efficacious for medications to bring the blood sugar down?
a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Oral
d. Subcutaneous

A

b. Intravenous

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5
Q

Antifungal of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?
a. Voriconazole
b. Nitroimidazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole

A

c. Fluconazole

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6
Q

Poisoning from this organic compound is now very rare, in large part because of the worldwide phase-out as antiknock additives in gasoline. This heavy metal is readily absorbed through the skin and lungs and the primary signs of intoxication include hallucinations, headache, irritability, convulsions and coma. Treatment consists of decontamination and seizure control.
a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Mercury
d. Iron

A

a. Lead

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7
Q

The following statements are TRUE regarding bactericidal antibiotics EXCEPT:
a. MBC > MIC
b. It is effective in infections when host defenses are poor
c. It requires host defense mechanism
d. It causes bacterial death

A

c. It requires host defense mechanism

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8
Q

Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose exert their therapeutic effects by:
a. Stimulating peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract
b. Softening stool consistency
c. Increasing water content in the stool
d. Inhibiting water absorption in the colon

A

c. Increasing water content in the stool

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9
Q

The triad of cinchonism, hypoglycemia and hypotension are adverse effects attributed to?
a. Quinine
b. Mefloquine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine

A

a. Quinine

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10
Q

Which of the following drug classes act on cell microtubules?
a. Platinum analogs
b. Alkylating agents
c. Taxanes
d. Anthracyclines

A

c. Taxanes

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11
Q

Which of the following drugs may cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome as its adverse effect?
a. Mitomycin and Gemcitabine
b. Doxorubicin and Paclitaxel
c. Sunitinib and Dacarbazine
d. Cytarabine and 5-fluorouracil

A

a. Mitomycin and Gemcitabine

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12
Q

Which antithyroid drug has a black box warning of causing severe hepatitis sometimes even resulting to death?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Methimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Levothyroxine

A

a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)

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13
Q

Which of the following laxatives works by increasing bulk and water content in the stool, thereby promoting bowel movements?
a. Bisacodyl
b. Docusate sodium
c. Polyethylene glycol
d. Psyllium

A

d. Psyllium

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14
Q

This environmental pollutant has been widely used in manufacturing and building. All forms have been shown to cause progressive fibrotic lung disease, lung cancer, and mesothelioma.
a. Asbestos
b. Dioxins
c. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
d. Manganese

A

a. Asbestos

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15
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT typically included in the four-drug regimen for the eradication of H. pylori infection?
a. Tetracycline
b. Bismuth subsalicylate
c. Metronidazole
d. Famotidine

A

d. Famotidine

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16
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) encompasses two main disorders, namely:
a. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
b. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis
c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
d. Gastroparesis and celiac disease

A

a. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis

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17
Q

Luke has elevated blood pressure of 160/100 for the past 3 weeks. Which of the following when elevated contributes to his blood pressure
a. Aldosterone
b. Prednisone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Fludrocortisone

A

a. Aldosterone

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18
Q

Short bowel syndrome (SBS) is characterized by:
a. Excessive length of the small intestine
b. Insufficient length of the small intestine
c. Malformation of the large intestine
d. Inflammation of the colon

A

b. Insufficient length of the small intestine

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?
a. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion by blocking H2 receptors
b. Inhibition of the H+/K+ ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells
c. Suppression of basal and stimulated acid secretion
d. Irreversible inhibition of the final step of acid secretion

A

a. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion by blocking H2 receptors

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20
Q

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of thionamide antithyroid drugs?
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hepatotoxicity
d. Hypokalemia

A

c. Hepatotoxicity

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21
Q

P.K. a 60-year-old immunocompromised male is diagnosed and confirmed with Clostridium difficile colitis. Which of these drugs would best treat his condition?
a. IV Fidaxomycin
b. Oral Rifaximin
c. Oral Metronidazole
d. IV Vancomycin

A

c. Oral Metronidazole

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22
Q

Which antithyroid drug is preferred during the first trimester of pregnancy due to its lower risk of causing fetal hypothyroidism?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Methimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Levothyroxine

A

a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)

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23
Q

Sam is 32 year old smoker, sp kidney transplant and heart failure on oral contraceptives, prednisone and aldosterone . After a long flight from the United States she suddenly had difficulty of breathing. She was rushed to the emergency room. Spo2 was 88%, HR 122, normal cardiac exam, clear breath sounds. Her condition was likely due to
a. Aldosterone
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Prednisone
d. Spironolactone

A

b. Oral contraceptives

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24
Q

Which of the following medications should be avoided in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease?
a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
b. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
c. Antacids
d. H2-receptor antagonists

A

a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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25
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is characterized by recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort associated with:
a. Fever and chills
b. Blood in stool
c. Changes in bowel habits
d. Jaundice

A

c. Changes in bowel habits

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26
Q

Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with octreotide?
a. Carcinoid syndrome
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Gastric varices
d. VIPoma

A

c. Gastric varices

b. Diabetic retinopathy - answer key ni Doc

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27
Q

A 50 year old asthmatic consulted at the ER due to difficulty of breathing. PE: 90% O2 sat Bilateral expiratory wheeze. Supplementary oxygen, nebulization with salbutamol and ipratropium and IV hydrocortisone given. Which of the following is an effect of the glucocorticoid?
a. Inhibit gluconeogenesis
b. Stimulate lipolysis
c. Bone growth
d. Stimulate cell mediated immunologic functions

A

b. Stimulate lipolysis

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28
Q

Which of the following antifungal agents is most likely to cause renal insufficiency?
a. Amphotericin B Cholesteryl Sulfate
b. Amphotericin B Lipid Complex
c. Colloidal Amphotericin B
d. Liposomal Amphotericin B

A

c. Colloidal Amphotericin B

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29
Q

5-fluorouracil is metabolized by which enzyme?
a. Xanthine oxidase
b. Thymidine phosphorylase
c. Thiopurine methyltransferase
d. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase

A

d. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase

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30
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of propylthiouracil (PTU) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
a. Inhibits the peripheral deiodination of T4 and T3
b. Destruction of thyroid follicular cells
c. Blocking of thyroid hormone receptors
d. Stimulation of thyroid hormone release

A

a. Inhibits the peripheral deiodination of T4 and T3

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31
Q

The primary regulator of spermatogenesis in men?
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Testosterone
d. Leydig cells

A

a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

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32
Q

Which antithyroid drug is preferred for long-term use in patients with hyperthyroidism due to its lower risk of causing hepatotoxicity?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Methimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Levothyroxine

A

b. Methimazole

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33
Q

Andrea’s uncle had kidney transplant 15 years ago which of the following is responsible for him developing diabetes, muscle wasting, and osteoporosis
a. Aldosterone
b. Prednisone
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone

A

b. Prednisone

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34
Q

This drug is the parenteral chelator of choice for iron intoxication and in treatment of iron overload caused by blood transfusions in patients with diseases such as thalassemia or myelodysplastic syndrome.
a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
b. Penicillamine
c. Dimercaprol
d. Deferoxamine
e. Succimer

A

d. Deferoxamine

a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid - answer key ni Doc, mali sya

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35
Q

The antithyroid drug of choice for children and adults?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Methimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Levothyroxine

A

b. Methimazole

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36
Q

These agents once found wide use as industrial solvents, degreasing agents, and cleaning agents. The acute effects of excessive exposure are nausea, vertigo, locomotor disturbances, headache and coma. Chronic exposure leads to hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity.
a. Halogenated Aliphatic Hydrocarbons
b. Aromatic Hydrocarbons
c. Toluene
d. Xylene

A

a. Halogenated Aliphatic Hydrocarbons

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37
Q

Rose is a 50 year old woman experiencing hot flushes, fatigue and dry skin. She was prescribed with a hormone replacement therapy containing estrogen. What should you advise her regarding possible effects
a. Increased risk of breast cancer
b. Arthritis
c. Hirsutism
d. Hepatotoxicity

A

a. Increased risk of breast cancer

38
Q

Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) has been associated with an increased risk of:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Hypokalemia
c. Gastrointestinal bleeding
d. H. pylori infection

A

a. Osteoporosis

39
Q

Prolactin secretion is inhibited by which neurotransmitter?
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Norepinephrine

A

a. Dopamine

40
Q

Luke has been receding hairline and baldness over his head. The hormone responsible for this is
a. Testosterone
b. Progesterone
c. Mifepristone
d. Cortisol

A

a. Testosterone

41
Q

Patient MA suffered new onset headaches that got worse over several weeks. He underwent neuroimaging and was discovered to have a brain tumor. He underwent surgery for partial tumor excision and biopsy. He was subsequently diagnosed with anaplastic oligodendroglioma. His neuro-oncologist decided to give him the PCV regimen: procarbazine, lomustine and vincristine. Upon review of his current medication, his neuro-oncologist noted that Patient MA is taking Selegiline, a type of antidepressant which acts through inhibition of MAO. Selegiline may have drug interactions with which of the following drugs in the PCV regimen?
a. Procarbazine
b. Lomustine
c. Vincristine
d. Selegiline will not interact with any of the drugs in the PCV regimen

A

d. Selegiline will not interact with any of the drugs in the PCV regimen

42
Q

Which of the following statements regarding radioactive iodine therapy is true?
a. It is usually the first-line treatment for pregnant women with hyperthyroidism.
b. It is contraindicated in patients with thyroid cancer.
c. The only isotope used for treatment of thyrotoxicosis.
d. It is administered orally as a single dose.

A

c. The only isotope used for treatment of thyrotoxicosis.

43
Q

Clavulanic acid is added to Amoxicillin in order to:
a. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea
b. Increase the bioavailability by increasing absorption
c. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction
d. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal tract

A

c. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction

44
Q
  1. Hydroxocobalamin
  2. Acetylcysteine
  3. Esmolol
  4. Naloxone
  5. Atropine

A. Cyanide
B. Paracetamol
C. Caffeine, Theophylline Sympathomimetics
D. Opoid analgesics
E. Rapid onset mushroom poisoning with predominant muscarinic excess symptoms

A

A - Hydroxocobalamin
B - Acetylcysteine
C - Esmolol
D - Naloxone
E - Atropine

45
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
a. Growth rate peaks when the tumor is about 1/3 of its maximum size.
b. Primary chemotherapy is used for hematologic malignancies.
c. Advanced cancer has a low growth fraction.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

46
Q

What is the primary cause of acid peptic disease?
a. Excessive intake of alkaline foods
b. H. pylori infection
c. High fiber diet
d. Low gastric acid secretion

A

b. H. pylori infection

47
Q

Domperidone and metoclopramide primarily exert their therapeuticeffects by blocking which type of receptors?
a. Dopamine D1 receptors
b. Dopamine D2 receptors
c. Serotonin 5-HT4 receptors
d. Histamine H2 receptors

A

b. Dopamine D2 receptors

48
Q

The FDA teratogenic risk category Controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and there is no evidence of a risk in late trimesters), and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D
e. Category X

A

a. Category A

49
Q

The goal of pharmacological therapy in variceal hemorrhage is to:
a. Increase portal venous pressure
b. Induce vasoconstriction
c. Reduce portal venous pressure
d. Promote hepatic regeneration

A

c. Reduce portal venous pressure

50
Q

The principal signs of this air pollutant intoxication are those of hypoxia. It is an odorless, colorless gas that competes avidly with oxygen for hemoglobin. They progress in the following sequence:
(1) psychomotor impairment;
(2) headache and tightness in the temporal area;
(3) confusion and loss of visual acuity;
(4) tachycardia, tachypnea, syncope, and coma; and
(5) deep coma, convulsions, shock, and respiratory failure.

a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Sulfur Dioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. Ozone

A

a. Carbon Monoxide

51
Q

Radioactive iodine therapy is contraindicated in:
a. Graves’ disease
b. Toxic multinodular goiter
c. Pregnant women
d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

c. Pregnant women

52
Q

The standard in vitro test for mutagenicity which uses a special strain of salmonella bacteria whose growth depends on specific nutrients in the culture medium.
a. Ames Test
b. Dominant Lethal Test
c. Coombs Test
d. Provocative Test

A

a. Ames Test

53
Q

The FDA teratogenic risk category wherein there is a positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the risk (eg, if the drug is needed in a life-threatening situation or for a serious disease for which safer drugs cannot be used or are ineffective).
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D

A

d. Category D

54
Q

Octreotide is a synthetic analogue of which natural hormone?
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Somatostatin
d. Growth hormone

A

c. Somatostatin

55
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Syphilis?
a. Cefuroxime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Co-Amoxiclav
d. Penicillin G

A

d. Penicillin G

56
Q

The primary use of this chelator is for the treatment of lead poisoning. It is given parenterally because the agent is highly polar.
a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
b. Penicillamine
c. Dimercaprol
d. Deferoxamine
e. Succimer

A

a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

57
Q

Alkylating agents act on which phase of the cell cycle?
a. S phase
b. M phase
c. G2
d. Alkylating agents are not cycle specific

A

d. Alkylating agents are not cycle specific

58
Q

Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, is sometimes used off-label to stimulate gastrointestinal motility. Its prokinetic effect is attributed to its ability to:
a. Block dopamine receptors in the gastrointestinal tract
b. Antagonize serotonin receptors in the central nervous system
c. Enhance acetylcholine release in the enteric nervous system
d. Stimulate motilin receptors

A

d. Stimulate motilin receptors

59
Q

Your aunt asked you to buy her prescription medicine. You wondered why she needed so many tablets of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. She said that her doctor prescribed this to prevent her from acquiring pneumonia after she received chemotherapy for her leukemia. Which among the following chemotherapeutic drugs is she referring to?
a. Fludarabine
b. Cytarabine
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Cladribine

A

a. Fludarabine

60
Q

Which of the following H2 blockers has the most relative potency as compared to other drugs in its class?
a. Ranitidine
b. Famotidine
c. Cimetidine
d. Nizatidine

A

b. Famotidine

61
Q

Which of the following statements regarding levothyroxine therapy is true?
a. It is a thionamide antithyroid drug.
b. It is primarily used to treat hyperthyroidism.
c. It is contraindicated in patients with hypothyroidism.
d. It is the synthetic form of thyroid hormone T4.

A

d. It is the synthetic form of thyroid hormone T4.

62
Q
  1. ara-CTP
  2. Methyl carbonium ion
  3. SN-38
  4. Azoprocarbazine

A. Irinotecan
B. Cytarabine
C. Dacarbazine
D. Procarbazine

A

B - ara-CTP
C - Methyl carbonium ion
A - SN-38
D - Azoprocarbazine

63
Q

Luke is a 3rd year medical student who eats his meals on time and goes to the university via a 10 minute bike ride. Insulin secretion, blood glucose rise and muscle protein catabolism is mainly due to
a. Aldosterone
b. Fludrocortisone
c. Cortisol
d. Mifepristone

A

c. Cortisol

64
Q

These inexpensive drugs are heavily used in agriculture as pesticides and have short environmental half-lives.
a. Chlorinated Hydrocarbons
b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
c. Botanical Insecticides
d. Nicotine

A

b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors

65
Q

Octreotide, a somatostatin analog, is used in the management of variceal hemorrhage due to its ability to:
a. Increase hepatic blood flow
b. Reduce portal venous pressure
c. Promote gastric emptying
d. Inhibit platelet aggregation

A

b. Reduce portal venous pressure

66
Q

HD is a 27 year old AIDS patient. He is admitted for the first time due to Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. What is the drug of choice for his condition?
a. Itraconazole + Ziduvudine
b. Tenofovir + Emtricitabine
c. Fosfomycin + Levofloxacin
d. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

A

d. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

67
Q

Which of the following medications is a selective serotonin 3 (5-HT3) receptor antagonist commonly used for the prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
a. Ondansetron
b. Metoclopramide
c. Scopolamine
d. Diphenhydrinate

A

a. Ondansetron

68
Q

Andrea was diagnosed with severe Covid 19. Which of the following drug was given to her due to it having the highest anti-inflammatory activity
a. Cortisol
b. Prednisone
c. Dexamethasone
d. fludrocortisone

A

c. Dexamethasone

69
Q

Which antithyroid drug should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy due to an increased risk of fetal abnormalities?
a. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b. Methimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Levothyroxine

A

b. Methimazole

70
Q

What is the drug of choice for Neisseria gonorrhoea infection?
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Co-Amoxiclav
c. Penicillin G
d. Cefuroxime

A

a. Ceftriaxone

71
Q

Vasopressin is commonly used therapeutically to treat:
a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Fluid overload
d. Diabetes insipidus

A

d. Diabetes insipidus

72
Q

Which of the following medications is a vasopressin receptor antagonist used in the treatment of variceal hemorrhage as an alternative to vasopressin analogs?
a. Nifedipine
b. Isosorbide mononitrate
c. Glyceryl trinitrate
d. Terlipressin

A

d. Terlipressin

73
Q

Luke has been diagnosed with Crohn’s Disease for the last 5 years and has been on steroids. Which of the following should he watch out for?
a. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
b. Inhibition of lipolysis
c. Bone osteoporosis
d. Stimulate cell mediated immunologic functions

A

c. Bone osteoporosis

74
Q

Which of the following is used chiefly for treatment of poisoning with copper or to prevent copper accumulation, as in Wilson’s disease.
a. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
b. Penicillamine
c. Dimercaprol
d. Deferoxamine
e. Succimer

A

b. Penicillamine

75
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers in the management of hyperthyroidism?
a. Inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis
b. Blocking the effects of thyroid hormone at the receptor level
c. Stimulating thyroid hormone release
d. Enhancing iodine uptake by the thyroid gland

A

b. Blocking the effects of thyroid hormone at the receptor level

76
Q

Poisoning from inhalation of this heavy metal’s vapor presents as a diffuse set of symptoms involving the gums and teeth, GI disturbances and neurologic and behavioral changes (erethism).
a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Mercury
d. Iron

A

c. Mercury

77
Q

Which of the following is the principal ingredient of Roundup brand weed killer and is now the most widely used herbicide in the world. It is a significant eye and skin irritant. Because of the widespread availability, poisonings are common. Many of the observed ingestions and reports of poisoning are from developing countries, where suicide by pesticide is common. Many injuries are minor, but some serious and lethal poisonings have been reported.
a. Agent Orange
b. Chlorophenoxy Acids
c. Glyphosate
d. Paraquat

A

c. Glyphosate

78
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is released from the:
a. Pituitary gland
b. Hypothalamus
c. Adrenal glands
d. Thyroid gland

A

b. Hypothalamus

79
Q

The most important irreversible adverse effect of vancomycin:
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Hypersensitivity
c. Ototoxicity
d. Red man syndrome

A

c. Ototoxicity

80
Q

During finals week, a stressful week for Andrea, glucocorticoid synthesis is initiated by release of hypothalamic _____
a. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
b. Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)
c. Cortisol
d. Prolactin

A

a. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

81
Q

Which of the following is not a metabolic effect of growth hormone?
a. Increased protein synthesis
b. Increased fat mobilization
c. Increased glycogen synthesis
d. Increased gluconeogenesis

A

c. Increased glycogen synthesis

82
Q

Funding for development of drugs for rare diseases or ignored diseases that do not receive priority attention from the traditional industry has received increasing support via philanthropy or similar funding from not-for-profit foundations such as the Cystic Fibrosis Foundation, the Michael J. Fox Foundation for Parkinson’s Disease, the Huntington’s Disease Society of America, and the Gates Foundation. This type of drugs is called?
a. Orphan drugs
b. Wonder drugs
c. Miracle drug
d. Alternative medicine

A

a. Orphan drugs

83
Q

A 30 year old male admitted patient suddenly experienced reddish flushing of the neck and upper torso after being administered with a drug. Which of these agents is most likely to cause this sign?
a. Gentamicin
b. Clindamycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Streptomycin

A

c. Vancomycin

84
Q

The XELOX regimen is an alternative to the FOLFOX regimen for metastatic colorectal cancer. What drugs are involved in the XELOX regimen?
a. Oxaliplatin, leucovorin, 5-fluorouracil
b. Capecitabine, oxaliplatin, leucovorin
c. Carboplatin, leucovorin, oxaliplatin
d. Leucovorin, doxorubicin, oxaliplatin

A

b. Capecitabine, oxaliplatin, leucovorin

85
Q

Which of the following drugs is a prostaglandin analog used to prevent NSAID-induced peptic ulcers?
a. Cimetidine
b. Sucralfate
c. Misoprostol
d. Aluminum hydroxide

A

c. Misoprostol

86
Q
  1. Taxus brevifolia
  2. Camptotheca acuminata
  3. Podophyllum peltatum
  4. Streptomyces caespitosus
  5. Streptomyces peucetius

A. Mitomycin
B. Mitoxantrone
C. Paclitaxel
D. Etoposide
E. Irinotecan

A

C - Taxus brevifolia
E - Camptotheca acuminata
D - Podophyllum peltatum
A - Streptomyces caespitosus
B - Streptomyces peucetius

87
Q

The appropriate Tetracycline for a patient with renal insufficiency is:
a. Tigecycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Minocycline
d. Chlortetracycline

A

a. Tigecycline

88
Q

Patient GA was diagnosed with primary CNS lymphoma six months ago. He underwent two cycles of high dose methotrexate but upon clinical improvement, he was lost to follow up and was not able to finish his chemotherapeutic regimen. He comes back to you three months after you last saw him complaining of severe headache. He wishes to continue his chemotherapy regimen but after one cycle, you noticed less remarkable improvement in his symptoms as compared to when you first treated him. This phenomena can be explained by:
A. Development of acquired resistance to methotrexate
B. Increased tumor burden
C. Possible tumor mutations
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

89
Q

Which of the following laboratory findings is consistent with hypothyroidism?
a. Elevated TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and elevated free T4
b. Elevated TSH and decreased free T4
c. Decreased TSH and elevated free T4
d. Decreased TSH and decreased free T4

A

b. Elevated TSH and decreased free T4

90
Q

Jack was diagnosed with congestive heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. After taking this drug he noted enlargement of his breast. This drug is
a. Prednisone
b. Fludrocortisone
c. Mifepristone
d. Spironolactone

A

d. Spironolactone

91
Q

Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as tachycardia and tremors?
a. Propranolol
b. Methimazole
c. Levothyroxine
d. Radioactive iodine

A

a. Propranolol

92
Q

Which thyroid hormone is often preferred for long-term replacement therapy?
a. T3 (Triiodothyronine)
b. T4 (Levothyroxine)
c. T2 (Diiodothyronine)
d. Calcitonin

A

b. T4 (Levothyroxine)

Revalida (11 decks)

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