Tagnawa and Sirmata BSWR (Anatomy-Histology) Flashcards
This structure is highly vulnerable in surgical manipulation of the ductus arteriosus
a. Esophagus
b. Left vagus nerve
c. Left bronchus
d. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Patent Ductus Arteriosus is the failure of ductus arteriosus to close and become “ligamentum arteriosum”. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the left vagus trunk as the nerve crosses the arch of the aorta. It hooks around the ligamentum arteriosum and ascends in the groove between the trachea and the esophagus on the left side
From which of the following sites is primary cancer most likely to metastasize to the lung by venous spread?
a. Ileum
b. Kidney
c. Appendix
d. Transverse colon
b. Kidney
Hematogenous spread: seen in tumors with venous drainage into lungs, (e.g.,head and neck, thyroid, adrenals, kidneys, testes, melanoma and osteosarcoma)
Simple cuboidal epithelium is usually found in:
a. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule
b. Descending limb of loop of Henle
c. Tunica intima of aorta
d. Single layer on the free surface of the ovary
d. Single layer on the free surface of the ovary
● Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule: simple squamous epithelium
● Descending limb of loop of Henle: simple squamous epithelium
● Tunica intima of aorta: simple squamous epithelium
● Single layer on the free surface of the ovary: simple cuboidal epithelium
Postoperative hoarseness after thyroidectomy results if one of the recurrent nerves is accidentally cut while ligating which of the following vessels?
a. Superior thyroid artery
b. Thyroid vein
c. Inferior thyroid artery
d. Middle thyroid artery
c. Inferior thyroid artery
Pressure developing deep to the flexor retinaculum would affect each of the following EXCEPT:
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle
d. Tendons of the flexor pollicis longus muscle
b. Ulnar nerve
The opening into the lesser sac is through the:
a. Foramen of Bochdalek
b. Foramen of Winslow
c. Foramen of Morgagni
d. Foramen transversarium
b. Foramen of Winslow
Following tonsillectomy, a patient noted loss of general sensation and taste from the posterior one third of the tongue. It could be assumed that the injured nerve was a branch of the;
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Sustained tension of the vocal cords is best achieved through the action of which one of the following muscles:
a. Cricothyroid
b. Aryepiglottic
c. Salpingopharyngeus
d. Posterior Cricoarytenoid
a. Cricothyroid
The following muscles can flex the forearm EXCEPT
a. Brachioradialis
b. Pronator teres
c. Brachialis
d. Anconeus
d. Anconeus
Which of the following structures is NOT lined with simple squamous epithelium?
a. Pleural cavity
b. Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule
c. Pigmented epithelium of the retina
d. Endothelial lining of the blood vessels
c. Pigmented epithelium of the retina
Which of the following is the most common form of hernia?
a. Indirect inguinal
b. Umbilical
c. Femoral
d. Direct inguinal
a. Indirect inguinal
A man injures his wrist on broken glass. Which of the following structures entering the palm superficial to the flexor retinaculum may be damaged?
a. Ulnar nerve and median nerve
b. Median nerve and flexor digitorum profundus
c. Median nerve and flexor pollicis longus
d. Ulnar artery and ulnar nerve
e. Ulnar nerve and flexor digitorum superficialis
d. Ulnar artery and ulnar nerve
Which of the following is the function of the megakaryocyte?
a. Erythropoiesis
b. Bone resorption
c. Thrombopoiesis
d. Phagocytosis
c. Thrombopoiesis
What specific nerves supply the sino-atrial and atrioventricular nodes?
a. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve
b. Parasympathetic nerves
c. Cardiac plexus
d. Phrenic nerves
b. Parasympathetic nerves
What cells in the adrenal gland secrete catecholamines?
a. Transitional cells
b. Stromal cells of Medulla
c. Chromaffin cells
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
c. Chromaffin cells
Which cells has “clock face” chromaffin distribution and eccentric nucleus
a. Monocytes
b. Plasma cells
c. Macrophages
d. Dendritic cells
b. Plasma cells
A patient is admitted from the emergency department following a large-volume hematemesis. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed, which identifies a posteriorly positioned duodenal ulcer that is actively bleeding. The vessel responsible is:
a. Gastroduodenal artery
b. Right gastroepiploic artery
c. Right gastric artery
d. Left gastric artery
a. Gastroduodenal artery
What are the tassel-like bundles of capillaries that penetrate deep into the medulla?
a. Nephron
b. Medullary arterioles
c. Vasa recta
d. Renal corpuscles
e. None of the above
c. Vasa recta
Which structure is oval in shape and lies above and behind the promontory of the middle ear?
a. Lateral process of the malleolus
b. Stapes
c. Fenestra cochlea
d. Fenestra vestibuli
d. Fenestra vestibuli
Which endocrine gland has the most variable anatomy?
a. Pituitary
b. Parathyroid gland
c. Adrenals
d. Thyroid gland
b. Parathyroid gland
According to Couinaud, the following segments are found in the right lobe
a. Caudate
b. Quadrate
c. III and IV
d. VI and VII
d. VI and VII
Damage to which of the following nerves can result to “wrist drop”
a. Ulnar
b. Axillary
c. Radial
d. Median
c. Radial
The hypothenar eminence is formed by the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. Abductor digiti minimi
b. Flexor digiti minimi brevis
c. Abductor pollicis
d. Opponens digiti minimi
c. Abductor pollicis
Which muscle of the face will the dermatologist inject to improve her smile?
a. Depressor anguli oris
b. Mentalis
c. Orbicularis oris
d. Temporalis
e. Zygomaticus major
c. Orbicularis oris
Which organ appears at 5 weeks of gestation as an outpouching of the endodermal lining of the duodenum just distal to the forming stomach?
a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
c. Pancreas
What is the other name of the greater vestibular glands of the vagina?
a. Skene Glands
b. Coper’s Gland
c. Bulbourethral Glands
d. Bartholin’s Gland
d. Bartholin’s Gland
Coronary occlusion most commonly occurs in which area?
a. Left (obtuse) marginal artery
b. Left circumflex coronary artery
c. Right marginal artery
d. Left anterior descending artery
d. Left anterior descending artery
A femoral hernia has the following characteristics EXCEPT which?
a. Its neck is related immediately laterally to the femoral artery.
b. It descends through the femoral canal.
c. Its neck is related medially to the sharp edge of the lacunar ligament.
d. The swelling occurs below and lateral to the pubic tubercle.
a. Its neck is related immediately laterally to the femoral artery.
What is the characteristic feature of the Reed-Sternberg cell seen in Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. Highly chromatic nucleus
b. Stippling in the cytoplasm
c. Bilobed with two halves as mirror images
d. Blurred cell membrane
c. Bilobed with two halves as mirror images
Which type of collagen is most widely distributed in the body?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
a. I
The T-cell that is affected in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?
a. T helper cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. Suppressor T cells
d. Memory cells
a. T helper cells
We appreciate a vibrating tuning fork because we have this encapsulated receptor called
a. Merkel’s disc
b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. Meissner corpuscles
d. Hair follicle
e. Ruffini’s corpuscles
b. Pacinian corpuscles
The next pacemaker of the heart if the sinoatrial node is defective:
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Atrioventricular bundle
c. Bundle branches
d. Purkinje fibers
a. Atrioventricular node
40/F, known case of APAS, presents with dyspnea and chest pain. PE shows jugular venous distension. R heart catheterization shows a mean pulmonary arterial pressure of 30mmHg and PCWP of 10mmHg. Further evaluation will likely reveal which of the following?
a. Dilation of the coronary sinus
b. Decreased left ventricular contractility
c. Mitral valve leaflet thickening
d. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
c. Mitral valve leaflet thickening
70/M presents with dysphagia and weight loss. EGD shows a mass in the distal third of the esophagus which later revealed to be an adenocarcinoma. During surgical resection, you damage a structure that passes through the diaphragm along with the esophagus at the level T10. Which of the following structures was most likely damaged?
a. Vagus nerve
b. Aorta
c. Right phrenic nerve
d. Azygos vein
a. Vagus nerve
80/M presents with abdominal pain. PE shows guarding and diffuse rebound tenderness. CT of the abdomen shows an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm that extends up to the level of L4 vertebra with a partial filling defect in the anterior wall of the aneurysm. Which bowel region is at greatest risk of requiring a resection?
a. Splenic flexure, descending colon, and sigmoid colon
b. Hepatic flexure, transverse colon and splenic flexure
c. Cecum, ileum and distal jejunum
d. Ascending colon, cecum and distal ileum
b. Hepatic flexure, transverse colon and splenic flexure
48/F presents with fatigue and abdominal distension. She drinks 7 beers daily. PE shows pallor, scleral icterus, fluid wave, and shifting dullness. The intravascular pressure in which of the following vessels is most likely to be increased?
a. Short gastric vein
b. Splenic artery
c. Inferior gastric vein
d. Azygos vein
a. Short gastric vein
Case of periorbital swelling. History of pimple popping in the nose. What is the sinus affected?
a. Cavernous
b. Inferior sagittal
c. Superior sagittal
d. Petrosal
e. Transverse
a. Cavernous
On a dermatomal SE, a SCI patient loss all sensation intersecting at MCL and the horizontal of xiphoid process. The most likely SC segment site of injury is
a. T4
b. T5
c. T6
d. T7
c. T6
40/F presents with chronic dyspnea and palpitations. Past medical history is significant for recurrent joint pain and fever during childhood. PE shows opening snap followed by late diastolic rumble best heard at the 5th ICS MCL. She is at greatest risk for compression of which structure?
a. Thoracic duct
b. Vagus nerve
c. Hemiazygos vein
d. Esophagus
d. Esophagus
47/M presents with right hip pain and numbness of the right thigh after a vehicular accident. PE shows decreased sensation over a small area of the right medial thigh. Pelvic x-ray shows a displaced pelvic ring fracture. Further evaluation will most likely show?
a. Impaired hip extension
b. Impaired extension of the knee
c. Absent cremasteric reflex
d. Impaired adduction of the hip
d. Impaired adduction of the hip
A general surgeon was giving a lecture to a team of surgery residents. She explains the characteristics of the structures above the pectinate line of the anal canal which includes?
a. Stratified squamous epithelium
b. Venous drainage into the caval system
c. Lymphatic drainage into the superficial inguinal nodes
d. Visceral sensory innervation
d. Visceral sensory innervation
Which of the following structures is NOT derived from the embryonic mesoderm?
a. Reticular tissue
b. Blood
c. Peritoneum
d. Urethra
d. Urethra
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding mammary glands?
a. They secrete their product through exocytosis
b. They secrete their product through complete cell destruction
c. They secrete their product through the loss of membrane-enclosed apical cytoplasm
d. They secrete their product directly into blood and lymph
a. They secrete their product through exocytosis
The superior orbital fissure transmit which of the following structure?
a. Lower division of the oculomotor nerve
b. Superior orbital nerve
c. Inferior orbital nerve
d. Zygomatic branch of the maxillary nerve
a. Lower division of the oculomotor nerve
The third embryonic aortic arch gives rise to which of the following structures?
a. Hyoid artery
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Maxillary artery
d. Stapedial artery
b. Internal carotid artery
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the left ventricle of the heart?
a. The base of the heart is formed mainly by the left ventricle.
b. It forms the lower border of the heart
c. It contains a funnel-shaped portion called the infundibulum
d. It has well-developed trabeculae carnae and two papillary muscles
d. It has well-developed trabeculae carnae and two papillary muscles
During a screening colonoscopy, a small pedunculated mass is noted 25 inches from the anal verge. This mass is in what segment of the GIT?
a. Ascending colon
b. Transverse colon
c. Descending colon
d. Sigmoid colon
c. Descending colon
After getting into a fight, a patient develops a hematoma anterior to the rectus abdominis muscle between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubis. What structures form the anterior wall of the rectus sheath at this level?
I. External oblique aponeurosis
II. Internal oblique aponeurosis
III. Transversus aponeurosis
IV. Fascia transversalis
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II and III
a. I and II
During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon uses the falciform ligament of the liver to guide trocar placement. According to Snell, which of the following statements are correct regarding the falciform ligament of the liver?
I. It divides the liver into the left lateral and left medial segments.
II. The right layer forms the upper layer of the coronary ligament.
III. It contains the ligamentum teres, which is the remnant of the umbilical vein.
IV. It arises from the edges of the porta hepatis and passes to the lesser curvature of the stomach.
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II and III
b. II and III
A sales clerk complains of foot pain after work and is diagnosed with pes planus. Which of the following bones act as the keystone for the largest and most clinically important arch of the foot?
a. Cuboid
b. Talus
c. Navicular
d. Cuneiform bones
b. Talus
A patient is brought to the ER following a knife attack. On laparotomy, the knife was found to have penetrated thediaphragm at the level of T10. Which of the following structures are most likely to have been injured at this level?
I. Vagus Nerve
II. Lymphatics
III. Thoracic Duct
IV. Right Phrenic Nerve
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I, II, and III
a. I and II
A 22-year-old man presented to his family physician with a laceration of the fibrous sheets or bands that cover his body under the skin and surround the muscles. Which of the following structures would most likely injured?
a. Tendon
b. Fascia
c. Synovial Tendon sheath
d. Aponeurosis
e. Ligament
b. Fascia
Myelinated axons have a layer of fatty insulating substance which are produce by these types of cells. What are these two types of cells?
I. Scwhann
II. Oligodendrocytes
III. Astrocytes
a. 1,2
b. 2,3
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,3
a. 1,2
Under H and E stain, the “sunny side up” appearance, would carry away impulse toward bodies.
a. Neurons
b. Astrocytoma
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Microglial
e. Epidermal cell
c. Oligodendrocyte
A function of basal ganglia wherein it has a role in retrieval of episodic and semantic info for explicit memory and implicit tasks that require initiation or modification from central motor programs
a. Motor function
b. Cognitive function
c. Emotion and motivation function
d. Spatial neglect
b. Cognitive function
What region of the nervous system is described by the following:
Generally described as having six layers, the principal efferent axons of this region arise from cells located in layer 5. These large neurons are characterized by a distinctive apical dendrite that extends across layers 1 through 4, as well as by several basal dendrites in layers 5 and 6. Specific input arrives along axons which ramify extensively in layer 4.
Many other neuronal cell types, whose cell bodies come in a variety of shapes and whose axons make local synaptic connections, characterize layers 2, 3, and 6.
a. Retina
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Cerebellar cortex
d. Thalamus
e. Basal ganglia
b. Cerebral cortex
The forebrain vesicle forms the telencephalon, with its primitive cerebral hemispheres. The myelencephalon, which develops optic vesicles.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. The first statement is correct.
c. The second statement is correct.
d. None of the statement is correct.
b. The first statement is correct.
A patient walks in to you for a sudden onset of headache. At first you did not suspect a stroke since the patient is awake and coherent, and he has no obvious sensorimotor deficit as he walked in the emergency room. However, you appreciated homonymous hemianopsia and sensorineural hearing loss on both ears on cranial nerve testing. There was also loss of recent memory during your mental status examination. On cranial CT scan, you saw an abnormal hypodense lesion which signifies an infarct. What vessel is likely to be infarcted?
a. Anterior choroidal artery
b. Posterior choroidal artery
c. Middle temporal arteries
d. Anterior cerebral artery
e. Angular artery
b. Posterior choroidal artery
Skilled voluntary, or conscious movement of skeletal muscles in the trunk is found in this portion of the precentral gyrus (homunculus)
a. Top
b. Medial side
c. Lateral side
d. Just above the lateral sulcus
a. Top
MS, which nervous structure would most likely be affected:
a. Trigeminal ganglion
b. Superior cervical ganglion
c. Optic Nerve
d. Facial nerve
e. Spinal Accessory nerve
c. Optic Nerve
Patient with fever, meningeal signs, where will you get the CSF
a. Epidural
b. Subarachnoid
c. Space between dura and arachnoid
d. Space between pia and spinal cord
b. Subarachnoid
A 37 year old patient with chronic intermittent palpitation was examined by her physician and one of the diagnostic studies included a posterior-anterior chest radiograph. Of which of the following comprises the largest portion of the sternocostal surface of the heart seen on the radiograph?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle
e. Base of the heart
d. Right ventricle
A 5-year old girl was brought to the emergency department because of difficulty breathing, palpitations, and shortness of breath. Doppler study of the heart reveals an atrial septal defect (ASD). This malformation usually results from incomplete closure of which of the following embryonic structures?
a. Ductus arteriosus
b. Ductus venosus
c. Sinus venerum
d. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen ovale
A shallow depression which is formed with articulation between the humerus and the scapula is ____?
a. Radial fossa
b. Glenoid cavity
c. Bicipital groove
d. Suprascapular notch
b. Glenoid cavity
During childbirth what occurs at the pelvic inlet?
a. Anteroposterior axis is maintained by the fetus in the transverse diameter of the pelvic floor
b. Parietal part of the head now moves downward and forward along the pelvic floor until it reaches the pubic arch
c. Anteroposterior axis of the head of the fetus takes up the transverse position of the pelvic inlet
d. When the head of the fetus reaches the pelvic floor, it flexes.
c. Anteroposterior axis of the head of the fetus takes up the transverse position of the pelvic inlet.
Appendicular wall necrosis or gangrene leading to perforation results from which of the following mechanisms?
a. Stasis of appendiceal contents
b. Blockage of venous drainage
c. Proliferation of bacteria
d. Compromise in arterial supply
d. Compromise in arterial supply
What is the length of the descending colon?
a. 15
b. 25
c. 10
d. 30
b. 25
The largest endocrine gland in the human body
a. Thyroid
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Pancreas
a. Thyroid
The following is TRUE about the relation of the thyroid glands to adjacent organs except;
a. Medially, the larynx, esophagus and external laryngeal nerve
b. Inferiorly lies the thyroid and cricoid cartilages and the pretracheal fascia
c. Posteriorly the parathyroid glands
d. Anterolaterally the infrahyoid muscles and the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
d. Anterolaterally the infrahyoid muscles and the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
You are the medical intern on duty for the OB-GYNE outpatient clinic when a G1P1 (1001) mother comes in for follow-up consultation after giving birth two weeks ago. She reports that she has been having intense headaches. She is also unable to breastfeed her baby on top of feeling tired all the time. She is also shedding a lot of hair. You immediately refer this to your senior who decided to admit the patient to the emergency room immediately. Your patient is likely to be having what condition?
a. Empathy Sella syndrome
b. Sheeran syndrome
c. Sheehan syndrome
d. Postpartum depression
e. Pituitary adenoma
c. Sheehan syndrome
Comparing adult hair to that of a child, which part of the hair is absent in baby hair?
a. Pigment
b. Medulla
c. Cuticle
d. Cortex
b. Medulla
What movement is made around a vertical axis at the superior and the inferior radio-ulnar joints?
a. partial flexion
b. partial extension
c. full flexion
d. rotary movement
d. rotary movement
Epidermal appendages of the skin include:
(1) holocrine gland
(2) eccrine gland
(3) hair follicles
(4) apocrine gland
a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,2,3,4
d. 2,3,4
c. 1,2,3,4
Largest branch of sacral plexus
a. femoral nerve
b. nerve to quadratus femoris
c. superior gluteal nerve
d. sciatic nerve
d. sciatic nerve
The limbic system is a set of structures in the brain that deals with emotion and memory. What structure is included in the limbic system?
(1) amygdala
(2) hippocampus
(3) cingulate gyrus
a. 1,3
b. 1,2
c. 2,3
d. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3
The vas deferens emerge from which of the following
a. Paramesonephtic duct
b. Scrotum
c. Epididymis
d. Ductus deferens
c. Epididymis
A horseshoe shaped structure suspended in the middle portion of the neck.
a. Larynx
b. Pharynx
c. Hyoid bone
c. hyoid bone
Which statements is/are FALSE about platelets?
(1) smallest blood component seen only under microscope
(2) formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocytes within the bone marrow
(3) once activated it transforms into discoid form
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1,2,3
c. 3
Brachiocephalic is a major artery of the upper chest. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. right brachiocephalic is formed from the right subclavian and right internal jugular vein
b. left and right brachiocephalic join to form SVC
c. right brachiocephalic is formed at the root of the neck
d. brachiocephalic has variable origin
d. brachiocephalic has variable origin
Which of the following muscle is not a boundary of retroperitoneum
a. Psoas
b. Iliacus
c. Rectus muscle
d. Diaphragm
e. Quadratus lumborum
c. Rectus muscle
The ribs make a protective cage around the lungs, liver, heart and spleen. What makes up the true ribs?
a. 11-12th ribs
b. Upper 5th ribs
c. Upper 7th ribs
d. 8-9th ribs
c. Upper 7th ribs
The following structures could be eroded as a result of perforation to the posterior wall of the stomach. EXCEPT which structure
a. Splenic artery
b. Left kidney
c. Right kidney
d. Pancreas
a. Splenic artery
The following are the anomalies seen in the Tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT_______
A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
B. Stenosis of the pulmonary trunk
C. Narrowing of the aorta
D. Large ventricular septal defect
C. Narrowing of the aorta
Compression of the pituitary gland by tumors extending superiorly can cause_______
a. Scotoma
b. Bitemporal hemianopia
c. Glaucoma
d. Blindness at the side of the lesion
b. Bitemporal hemianopia
What becomes of visceral pelvic fascia around the cervix of females?
a. Broad ligaments
b. Parametrium
c. Cardinal ligaments
d. Uterosacral ligament
d. Uterosacral ligament
Which muscle assists the levator ani muscle to support the pelvic viscera?
a. Iliococcygeus
b. Puborectalis
c. Obturator internus
d. Coccygeus
d. Coccygeus
Which is NOT a true statement about erythrocyte?
a. Anucleated
b. Biconcave
c. Biconvex
d. Its lifespan is 120 days
c. Biconvex
Histologically, this disease is characterized by the proliferation of medium-sized, non-cleaved B cells which produces a “starry sky” appearance and the sheets of lymphocytes are interspersed with “tingle body” macrophages.
a. Adult T Cell Lymphoma
b. Large B Cell Lymphoma
c. Burkitt Lymphoma
d. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
c. Burkitt Lymphoma
The pectoral major muscle is attached to what part of the humerus?
a. Greater tubercle
b. Lesser tubercle
c. Bicipital groove
d. Deltoid tuberosity
c. Bicipital groove
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma of the skin?
(1) both are caused by sun damage
(2) squamous cell carcinoma can metastasize
(3) basal cell carcinoma is less likely to metastasize
(4) both arises from the epidermis
a. 1,3,4
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
d. 1,2,3,4
Explain the anatomy of the lungs why foreign bodies pass more often to the right main bronchus than the left. Which statements will support the explanation?
(1) right bronchus is wider than the left
(2) right bronchus is longer than the left
(3) right bronchus is more vertical than the left main bronchus
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 3
c. 1, 3
A 4-year-old boy was playing with his toy lying down on his bed. He suddenly made a sound that made his mom come over and saw her son choking. She gave him several back pats. The boy got better but started to cough again and this time , he had difficulty breathing. At the ER, the boy was in respiratory distress. On physical examination, there was noted limited movement on the right side of the chest. On auscultation, there were reduced breath sounds at the right lung. On percussion, there was slight hyper resonance on the right lung. A chest x-ray was requested and revealed a foreign body, most probably a coin lodged at the right middle lobe bronchus, just inferior to the origin of the superior lobe bronchus. There was hyperinflation of the middle and inferior lobes of the right lung, with the shift of the heart to the left. When the right main bronchus is completely obstructed, which part of the lungs will collapse?
a. Right apical and superior lobes
b. Right posterior and medial basal
c. Right lateral and lateral basal
d. Right middle and inferior lobes
d. Right middle and inferior lobes
What is the effect of atelectasis on the position of the heart?
a. The heart is drawn opposite the obstruction
b. The heart is drawn towards the obstructed side of the lung
c. The heart is drawn superiorly towards the atelectatic lung
d. The heart is drawn inferiorly towards the obstructed lung
b. The heart is drawn towards the obstructed side of the lung
CASE: A 32-year-old Grab driver involved in a vehicular accident suffered from severe facial lacerations. He was brought to the nearest hospital. No facial fracture was noted on x-ray. On physical examinations, eye inspection revealed a medial strabismus of the right eye.
What cranial nerve would cause this abnormality?
a. Oculomotor
b. Abducens
c. Optic
d. Trigeminal
b. Abducens
CASE: A 32-year-old Grab driver involved in a vehicular accident suffered from severe facial lacerations. He was brought to the nearest hospital. No facial fracture was noted on x-ray. On physical examinations, eye inspection revealed a medial strabismus of the right eye.
Which eye muscle of the patient will pull the eyeball opposite the paralyzed muscle?
a. Inferior oblique
b. Superior oblique
c. Medial rectus
d. Lateral rectus
c. Medial rectus
CASE: A 32-year-old Grab driver involved in a vehicular accident suffered from severe facial lacerations. He was brought to the nearest hospital. No facial fracture was noted on x-ray. On physical examinations, eye inspection revealed a medial strabismus of the right eye.
Which eye muscle of the patient was paralyzed?
a. Left lateral rectus
b. Right lateral rectus
c. Right medial rectus
d. Left medial rectus
b. Right lateral rectus
What are the vessels affected by the internal hemorrhoids?
a. Inferior mesenteric vein
b. External rectal venous plexus
c. Internal rectal venous plexus
d. Inferior rectal vein
c. Internal rectal venous plexus
What are the affected branches of nerves and vessels in the ischioanal fossa that cause the pain to the patient?
(1) Pudendal nerve
(2) Internal pudendal vessels
(3) Nerve to the obturator internus
a. 2, 3
b. 1,3
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
What nerve is vulnerable to injury during evacuation of pus in ischioanal abscess
a. Posterior cutaneous
b. Inferior rectal
c. Perineal
d. Illioinguinal
b. Inferior rectal
45/M presents with fall. He was unconscious for 10 minutes and vomited once. On arrival, he is drowsy. PE shows dilated left pupil and right-sided weakness. CT shows a skull fracture in the region of the pterion and a biconvex hyperdensity overlying the left frontal lobe. The vessel damaged in this case enters which foramina
a. Jugular foramen
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen spinosum
d. Foramen spinosum
Which of the following specialized areas of the peritoneum is a two-layered fold that attaches part of the intestine to the posterior abdominal wall and permits mobility?
a. Peritoneal ligament
b. Mesentery
c. Lesser omentum
d. Greater omentum
b. Mesentery
Anencephaly is an anomaly caused by the failure of the rostral end of the neural tube to develop and as a consequence, its cavity remains open. The defect usually happens between the 29-30th day age of gestation
a. The first statement is correct.
b. The second statement is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. None of the statement is correct
a. The first statement is correct.
A motor unit can be defined by:
a. A single motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates
b. Several motor neurons and the muscle fibers they innervate
c. Either
d. Neither
a. A single motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates
What small muscle of the hand is attached to the skin of the palm to corrugate the skin at the base of the hypothenar eminence and to improve grip of the arm?
a. Palmar interossei
b. Lumbricals
c. Palmaris brevis
d. Opponens pollicis
c. Palmaris brevis
Which structure lies in the spiral groove of the humerus?
a. Radial nerve
b. Deltoid nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Head of the brachial plexus
a. Radial nerve
All lymph from the stomach finally passes into which nodes
a. Gastroduodenal
b. Pancreaticoduodenal
c. Celiac
d. Mesenteric
c. Celiac
45/M, known as GERD, presents with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic and hypotensive and despite maximum resuscitation, he dies. Autopsy shows erosion of the right gastric artery. Perforation of an ulcer in which location most likely caused this patient’s findings?
a. Anterior duodenum
b. Posterior duodenum
c. Greater curvature of the stomach
d. Lesser curvature of the stomach
d. Lesser curvature of the stomach
Which tissue composes the renal medulla?
a. Nephrons
b. Renal sinus
c. Renal pyramids
d. Renal pelvis
c. Renal pyramids
A 26-year-old man was stabbed in a bar fight. Axons of the general somatic efferent (GSE) neurons to the shoulder muscles were severed. The damaged axons:
a. Would carry impulses toward the cell bodies
b. Would carry impulses away from the cell bodies
c. Would carry pain impulses
d. Are several in numbers for multipolar neurons
e. Are found primarily in the gray matter
b. Would carry impulses away from the cell bodies
The ampulla of the pancreas opens into the lumen of the duodenum by means of what structure?
a. Ampulla of vater
b. Major duodenal papilla
c. Minor duodenal papilla
d. Accessory duct
b. Major duodenal papilla
When asking a patient to clench the jaws firmly, what muscle can be seen as a sheet of muscle
a. Sternothyroid
b. Platysma
c. Trapezius
d. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Platysma
80/F known hypertensive presents with sudden-onset right leg weakness and urinary incontinence. PE shows decreased sensation on the R thigh. Motor strength is 2/5 in RLE and 4/5 in RUE. She is unable to write her name. Which vessel is most likely occluded in this patient?
a. Left middle cerebral artery
b. Left anterior cerebral artery
c. Right anterior cerebral artery
d. Left vertebrobasilar artery
b. Left anterior cerebral artery
80/F known hypertensive presents with sudden-onset right leg weakness and urinary incontinence. PE shows decreased sensation on the R thigh. Motor strength is 2/5 in RLE and 4/5 in RUE. She is unable to write her name. Which vessel is most likely occluded in this patient?
a. Left middle cerebral artery
b. Left anterior cerebral artery
c. Right anterior cerebral artery
d. Left vertebrobasilar artery
b. Left anterior cerebral artery
Where are the dural venous sinuses of the brain found?
A. Lies in the upper lobe of the falx cerebri
B. Arises behind the right sternoclavicular joint arching upward and laterally
C. Ascends in the neck through the foramina in the transverse processes of the upper six cervical vertebrae
D. Situated between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater
D. Situated between the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater
