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Revalida > Agsa Pharma 2nd SEM MIDTERMS > Flashcards

Agsa Pharma 2nd SEM MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following drugs causes bradycardia if taken in high doses?
a. Amlodipine
b. Isosorbide dinitrate
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Verapamil

A

d. Verapamil

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2
Q

Drugs for maintenance therapy of chronic stable angina
a. Beta Blocker
b. Calcium Channel Blocker
c. Long-Acting Nitrate
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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3
Q

Certain drugs can cause severe hypotension when combined with nitrates. Which of the following interacts with a nitrate by inhibiting the metabolism of cGMP?
A. Atenolol
B. Nifedipine
C. Ranolazine
D. Sildenafil

A

D. Sildenafil

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4
Q

Potential deleterious effects of nitrates in the treatment of angina:
A. Decrease ventricular volume
B. Vasodilation of epicardial coronary arteries
C. Reflex increase in contractility
D. Decrease left ventricular diastolic pressure

A

C. Reflex increase in contractility

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5
Q

Determinants of Coronary blood flow
A. Duration of diastole
B. Coronary vascular resistance
C. Intact endothelium
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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6
Q

An adverse effect that nitroglycerin and prazosin have in common is:
a. Weight gain
b. Bradycardia
c. Orthostatic hypotension
d. Lupus erythematosus syndrome

A

c. Orthostatic hypotension

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7
Q

Class 1C antiarrhythmic drug and also classified as IVB in the new classification.
a. Flecainide
b. Propafenone
c. Sotalol
d. A and B

A

d. A and B

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8
Q

These diuretics act in the collecting tubule to inhibit Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion.
a. Loop diuretic
b. Thiazide
c. Aldosterone antagonist
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

c. Aldosterone antagonist

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9
Q

It has the greatest diuretic effect, producing the most copious amounts of urine
a. Loop diuretic
b. Thiazide
c. Aldosterone antagonist
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

a. Loop diuretic

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10
Q

According to the ACC/AHA Stages of heart failure, this stage is when a patient has evidence of structural heart disease WITHOUT current or previous symptoms or signs of heart failure
a. Stage A
b. Stage B
c. Stage C
d. Stage D

A

b. Stage B

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11
Q

Therapeutic strategies in Systolic Heart Failure EXCEPT:
a. Fluid limitation (less than 1.5 to 2L daily)
b. Low dietary intake of sodium
c. Nondihydropyridine Calcium channel blocker
d. ACE inhibitor

A

c. Nondihydropyridine Calcium channel blocker

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12
Q

Therapeutic use of ACE INHIBITORS :
a. Asymptomatic and symptomatic HFrEF
b. All stages of left ventricular failure
c. Treatment of hypertension
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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13
Q

It is mainly a drug for Diabetes Mellitus and is recommended by the AHA for patients with symptomatic chronic HFrEF to reduce hospitalization for HF and cardiovascular mortality, irrespective of the presence of type 2 diabetes:
a. ACE inhibitor
b. Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor
c. Beta-blocker
d. Aldosterone antagonist

A

b. Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor

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14
Q

Traditional drugs for angina pectoris EXCEPT:
a. Nitrates
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Beta blockers
d. Inotropic drugs

A

d. Inotropic drugs

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15
Q

Rapid onset, short acting nitrate formulations
a. Nitroglycerin Sublingual
b. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) Sublingual
c. Transdermal Nitroglycerine
d. A and B only

A

d. A and B only

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16
Q

Nonselective betablocker used in the prophylaxis of angina
a. Metoprolol
b. Nebivolol
c. Propranolol
d. Atenolol

A

c. Propranolol

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17
Q

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker used for angina pectoris
a. Amlodipine
b. Verapamil
c. Nicardipine
d. Nifedipine

A

b. Verapamil

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18
Q

A lipoprotein with with B-48 protein (apo B-48) major sequale is :
a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Acute cholecystitis
c. Acute ischemic stroke
d. Aciyte myocardial infarction

A

a. Acute pancreatitis

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19
Q

A 60 year old male has elevated LDL. Its apolipoprotein is synthesized in the
a. Liver
b. Intestine
c. Pancreas
d. Gallbladder

A

a. Liver

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20
Q

This lipoprotein is associated with aortic stenosis
a. Lp(a)
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons

A

a. Lp(a)

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21
Q

Structural analogs of HMG-CoA that competitively inhibit the enzyme.
a. Rosuvastatin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Niacin

A

a. Rosuvastatin

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22
Q

A 64 year old male is diagnosed with myocardial infarction. Which of the following drugs is clinically indicated to reduce risk of coronary events and mortality in patients with ischemic heart disease
a. Rosuvastatin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Niacin

A

a. Rosuvastatin

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23
Q

A 64 year old male was diagnosed with coronary artery disease. He was started on a lipid lowering drug. After 2 days he had severe calf muscle pain, elevated creatine kinase and diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis. He was probably given which drug?
a. Rosuvastatin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Niacin

A

a. Rosuvastatin

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24
Q

A 36 year old male was diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia and had severe pruritus due to bile duct obstruction. Which is the most appropriate drug to initiate?
a. Rosuvastatin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Cholestyramine

A

d. Cholestyramine

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25
Q

A 36 year old male was diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia. He was given lipid lowering agent and after 1 week he complains of bloating, constipation, and an unpleasant gritty taste. What drug causes this toxicity?
a. Rosuvastatin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Cholestyramine

A

d. Cholestyramine

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26
Q

Ezetimibe when combined with HMG CoA reductase inhibitor is more effective in lowering LDL. Which toxicity should be monitored?
a. Kidney failure
b. Hepatotoxity
c. Dermal vascular necrosis
d. Cutaneous flushing

A

b. Hepatotoxity

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27
Q

Which of the lipid lowering drugs decreases circulating fibrinogen and increases tissue plasminogen activator.
a. Niacin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Cholestyramine

A

a. Niacin

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28
Q

A 66 year old male was diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke hypercholesterolemia. He was given lipid lowering agent and after 1 day he developed cutaneous flushing.. What drug causes this toxicity?
a. Niacin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Rosuvastatin

A

a. Niacin

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29
Q

A 66 year old male was diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke hypercholesterolemia. He was given lipid lowering agent and after 1 day he developed cutaneous flushing. To prevent this toxicity pretreatment with ____ reduces the intensity
a. Aspirin
b. Ezetimibe
c. Paracetamol
d. Cetirizine

A

a. Aspirin

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30
Q

A 36 year old male was diagnosed with hypertriglyceridemia and cholelithiasis. Which drug must be used in caution?
a. Niacin
b. Fenofibrate
c. Ezetimibe
d. Rosuvastatin

A

b. Fenofibrate

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31
Q

A patient presents with symptoms of severe allergic reaction, including hives, difficulty breathing, and swelling of the face and throat. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate immediate treatment option to counteract these symptoms by blocking histamine receptors and preventing further allergic response?
a. Serotonin receptor antagonist
b. Ergot alkaloid
c. Histamine H1 receptor antagonist
d. Eicosanoid synthesis inhibitor

A

c. Histamine H1 receptor antagonist

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32
Q

Which of the following best describes the pulmonary pharmacology associated with HISTAMINE?
a. Histamine primarily induces bronchoconstriction by activating H1 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.
b. Histamine mainly induces bronchoconstriction via activation of H2 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.
c. Histamine mediates bronchoconstriction primarily through activation of H3 receptors in the bronchial epithelium.
d. Histamine primarily causes bronchodilation through stimulation of H1 receptors in the lungs.

A

a. Histamine primarily induces bronchoconstriction by activating H1 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.

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33
Q

Select the option that differs from the others in terms of its classification as a FIRST-GENERATION ANTIHISTAMINE.
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Cetirizine
c. Promethazine
d. Meclizine

A

b. Cetirizine

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34
Q

Which of the following statements about H1 receptor antagonists is CORRECT?
a. They primarily act on the central nervous system to induce sedation.
b. They are primarily used to treat peptic ulcers by reducing gastric acid secretion.
c. They have minimal effect on allergic reactions.
d. They are commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

A

d. They are commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

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35
Q

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the synthesis of SEROTONIN?
a. Tryptophan hydroxylase
b. Tyrosine hydroxylase
c. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
d. Monoamine oxidase

A

a. Tryptophan hydroxylase

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36
Q

Which of the following statements about serotonin is TRUE?
a. Serotonin is primarily produced in the adrenal glands.
b. Serotonin is solely responsible for regulating sleep patterns.
c. Serotonin is exclusively found in the central nervous system.
d. Serotonin plays a role in regulating mood, appetite, and digestion.

A

d. Serotonin plays a role in regulating mood, appetite, and digestion.

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37
Q

Which receptor subtype is primarily targeted by serotonin antagonists used in the treatment of nausea and vomiting?
a. 5-HT1A
b. 5-HT2A
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT4

A

c. 5-HT3

38
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of ERGOT ALKALOIDS?
a. They are used to prevent or treat migraine headaches and control postpartum hemorrhage.
b. Ergot alkaloids are commonly used as first-line treatment for hypertension.
c. They primarily act as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
d. Ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in the treatment of migraine headaches

A

a. They are used to prevent or treat migraine headaches and control postpartum hemorrhage.

39
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism of action for ERGOT ALKALOIDS?
a. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO)
b. Stimulation of adrenergic receptors
c. Blockade of dopamine receptors
d. Agonism of serotonin receptors

A

d. Agonism of serotonin receptors

40
Q

From which fungus are ergot alkaloids primarily derived?
a. Penicillium
b. Aspergillus
c. Claviceps
d. Candida

A

c. Claviceps

41
Q

Which of the following accurately characterizes the pulmonary pharmacology associated with eicosanoids?
a. Eicosanoids primarily induce bronchodilation through activation of leukotriene receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.
b. Eicosanoids primarily induce bronchoconstriction by activating leukotriene receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.
c. Eicosanoids mediate bronchodilation primarily through activation of thromboxane receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.
d. Eicosanoids mainly exert bronchoconstrictive effects via stimulation of prostaglandin receptors in the bronchial epithelium.

A

b. Eicosanoids primarily induce bronchoconstriction by activating leukotriene receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle.

42
Q

What is the primary effect of PGF2α on bronchial smooth muscle?
a. Bronchodilation
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. No significant effect
d. Induces mucus secretion

A

b. Bronchoconstriction

43
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of arachidonic acid into leukotrienes?
a. Cyclooxygenase (COX)
b. Lipoxygenase (LOX)
c. Thromboxane synthase
d. Prostaglandin E synthase (PGES)

A

b. Lipoxygenase (LOX)

44
Q

The only non-acid NSAID available for current use:
a. Oxaprozin
b. Nabumetone
c. Sulindac
d. Tolmetin

A

b. Nabumetone

45
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs when combined with ASA will have an antagonistic effect:
a. Ibuprofen
b. Naproxen
c. Indomethacin
d. Mefenamic Acid

A

a. Ibuprofen

46
Q

DMARDs that are Interleukin-1 inhibiting agents EXCEPT:
a. Etanercept
b. Rilonacept
c. Canakinumab
d. Adalimumab

A

a. Etanercept

47
Q

DMARDs that are TNF-a blocking agents EXCEPT:
a. Infliximab
b. Adalimumab
c. Golimumab
d. Secukinumab

A

d. Secukinumab

48
Q

Antidote of acetaminophen toxicity:
a. Vitamin K1
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Deferoxamine
d. N-acetylcysteine

A

d. N-acetylcysteine

49
Q

You plan to give colchicine as a prophylactic agent to prolong the interval between the next gout attack. The recommended dosage would be:
a. 0.6 mg TID
b. 1.2 mg loading dose to be followed by 0.6 mg OD
c. 0.5 grams OD
d. 200 mg OD

A

a. 0.6 mg TID

50
Q

The most commonly used corticosteroid as an adjunct treatment in gout is?
a. Momethasone furoate
b. Prednisone
c. Fluticasone
d. Betamethasone

A

b. Prednisone

51
Q

This DMARD can be given to patients who develop lupus nephritis:
a. Azathioprine
b. Rituximab
c. Sulfasalsalazine
d. Mycophenolate Mofetil

A

d. Mycophenolate Mofetil

52
Q

What enzyme will convert arachidonic acid to leukotrienes:
a. Phospholipase
b. Lipoxygenase
c. COX-1
d. COX-2

A

b. Lipoxygenase

53
Q

Which of the following NSAIDS is a phenylacetic acid derivative:
a. Ibuprofen
b. Flurbiprofen
c. Diclofenac
d. Tolmetin

A

c. Diclofenac

54
Q

Which of the following NSAIDS is a racemic acetic acid derivative:
a. Ketorolac
b. Etodolac
c. Sulindac
d. Agtalnac

A

b. Etodolac

55
Q

The following are effects of prostaglandin synthesis EXCEPT:
a. Alteration of vascular permeability
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Bronchodilation
d. Increased secretion

A

c. Bronchodilation

56
Q

Corticosteroids act on what metabolic reaction:
a. Arachidonic acid to prostaglandins
b. Phospholipids to arachidonic acid
c. Arachidonic acid to leukotrienes
d. Arachidonic acid to prostacyclin

A

b. Phospholipids to arachidonic acid

57
Q

The following professions can prescribe medicines EXCEPT?
a. Physician
b. Dentists
c. Veterinarians
d. Pharmacists

A

d. Pharmacists

58
Q

Which of the following government agencies are responsible for the efficient law enforcement of all provisions on any dangerous drugs and/or precursors and essential chemicals?
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Food and Drug Administration
c. Dangerous Drugs Board
d. Department of Health

A

a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency

59
Q

Which of the following is the study of the impact of genetic variations or genotypes of individuals on their drug response or drug metabolism?
a. Pharmacogenomics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Pharmacology

A

a. Pharmacogenomics

60
Q

Which of the following substance schedules have a high potential for abuse and has no accepted medical use in the U.S. or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment in the U.S. and may be used for research purposes by properly registered individuals?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

A

A. Schedule I

61
Q

Which of the following substance schedules have a high potential for abuse, has a currently accepted medical use in the U.S. and abuse of substance may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
E. Schedule V

A

B. Schedule II

62
Q

Noncompliance may be manifest in drug therapy as?
A. Intentional or accidental errors in dosage or schedule
B. Early termination of therapy
C. Underuse
D. Overuse
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

63
Q

Patients are more likely to follow instructions and recommendations when their expectations for the patient-provider relationship and for their treatment are met. These expectations include not only clinical but also interpersonal competence; thus, cultivating good interpersonal and communication skills is essential
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

64
Q

Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities or there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweigh potential benefits.
A. Pregnancy Category A
B. Pregnancy Category B
C. Pregnancy Category C
D. Pregnancy Category D
E. Pregnancy Category X

A

E. Pregnancy Category X

65
Q

Adequate and well-controlled studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters). Because of the obvious nature of the risk associated with the use of medications during gestation, the FDA requires a body of high-quality data on a drug before it can be considered for:
A. Pregnancy Category A
B. Pregnancy Category B
C. Pregnancy Category C
D. Pregnancy Category D
E. Pregnancy Category X

A

A. Pregnancy Category A

66
Q

A 64 year old male develops myocardial infarction. Which among the following molecules prevent further clot formation?
a. Thromboxane A2
b. ADP
c. Serotonin
d. Protein C

A

d. Protein C

67
Q

Andy has hemophilia. Which among the following statements are true?
a. He has defect in primary hemostasis
b. He has platelet function defect
c. He is more prone to bleed in his skin and gingiva
d. He has clotting factor defect

A

d. He has clotting factor defect

68
Q

Who among the following has more red thrombi?
a. 60 year old male with myocardial infarction
b. 72 year old male with stroke
c. 45 year old with peripheral arterial occlusive disease
d. 60 year wild with pulmonary embolism

A

d. 60 year wild with pulmonary embolism

69
Q

A 24 year old pregnant patient has difficulty breathing and was assessed to have pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs may be safely administered?
a. Heparin
b. Low molecular weight heparin
c. Warfarin
d. Apixaban

A

a. Heparin

70
Q

Low molecular weight heparin may be administered for the following conditions EXCEPT for
a. DVT
b. pulmonary embolism
c. Venous insufficiency
d. acute myocardial infarction

A

c. Venous insufficiency

71
Q

A 74 year old patient has chest pain and was assessed with myocardial infarction, he suddenly developed thrombocytopenia and thrombosis, which among the following caused this toxicity?
a. Unfractionated Heparin
b. Low molecular weight heparin
c. Aspirin
d. Apixaban

A

a. Unfractionated Heparin

72
Q

A 74 year old patient has chest pain and assessed with myocardial infarction, he was given unfractionated heparin during angioplasty. He suddenly developed massive gastrointestinal bleed. Which among the following may be given?
a. Protamine
b. Vitamin K
c. Tranexamic acid
d. Aminocaproic acid

A

a. Protamine

73
Q

A 45 year old male had metallic valve replacement of his mitral valve and is currently on warfarin. Effect of drug is monitored via
a. Prothrombin Time
b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
c. CBC with platelet
d. Clotting time

A

a. Prothrombin Time

74
Q

A 45 year old female has peripheral arterial occlusive disease and started on unfractionated heparin effect of drug is monitored via
a. Prothrombin Time
b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
c. CBC with platelet
d. Clotting time

A

b. Activated partial thromboplastin time

75
Q

A 45 year old male had metallic valve replacement of his mitral valve and is currently on warfarin. Effect of drug can be reversed via
a. Protamine
b. Vitamin K
c. Tranexamic acid
d. Aminocaproic acid

A

b. Vitamin K

76
Q

A 25 year old female had metallic valve replacement of his mitral valve. She is currently taking this drug whose side effect may include bone defects and hemorrhage in fetus.
a. Dabigatran
b. Apixaban
c. Rivaroxaban
d. Warfarin

A

d. Warfarin

77
Q

A 45 year old male had acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and was given a fibrinolytic, he developed severe allergic reactions. Which among the following was he probably given?
a. Alteplase
b. Reteplase
c. Tenecteplase
d. Streptokinase

A

d. Streptokinase

78
Q

A 45 year old male had acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and was given aspirin. Its mechanism of action is
a. Inhibit thromboxane synthesis by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase
b. Reversibly inhibits binding of fibrin and other ligands to the IIb/IIIa receptor platelet glycoprotein
c. Irreversibly inhibit platelet ADP receptor
d. Reversibly inhibits the platelet ADP receptor

A

a. Inhibit thromboxane synthesis by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase

79
Q

This antiplatelet is contraindicated in patients with congestive heart failure because of evidence of reduced survival
a. Aspirin
b. Clopidogrel
c. Prasugrel
d. Cilostazol

A

d. Cilostazol

80
Q
  1. Clonidine
  2. Hydralazine
  3. Metoprolol
  4. Hydrochlorothiazide
  5. Nitroprusside

A. Beta blocker
B. Parenteral Antihypertensive
C. Direct vasodilator
D. Centrally-acting
E. Diuretics

A

D - Clonidine
E - Hydralazine
A - Metoprolol
E - Hydrochlorothiazide
C - Nitroprusside

81
Q

This is considered as a reliever treatment for asthma
a. B2 agonist
b. ICS
c. Leukotriene Inhibitors
d. Monoclonal antibody

A

a. B2 agonist

82
Q

This is the drug of choice used as a maintenance medication in asthma?
a. B2 agonist
b. ICS
c. Leukotriene Inhibitors
d. Monoclonal antibody

A

b. ICS

83
Q

Which of the following agents does not have a bronchodilator effect?
A. B2 agonist
B. ICS
C. Theophylline
D. Ipratropium

A

B. ICS

84
Q

Which of the following is true regarding B2 agonist?
A. It increases mucociliary transport
B. It increases concentration of cAMP in bronchial smooth muscles that causes bronchodilation
C. Both
D. None of the Above

A

C. Both

85
Q

Which of the following drugs cannot be used as a monotherapy for asthma?
A. Salbutamol
B. Budesonide
C. Olodaterol
D. None of the above

A

C. Olodaterol

86
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Monoclonal Antibody Therapy?
A. They are indicated in severe form of asthma
B. They are contraindicated in eosinophilic type of asthma
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

A. They are indicated in severe form of asthma

87
Q

Which of the following drugs is considered as controller medications for asthma?
A. Montelukast
B. Oral steroids
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

88
Q

Which of the following drugs does have a bronchodilator effect?
a. ICS
b. Monoclonal Antibody Therapy
c. Both
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

89
Q

Which of the following drugs potentiates the bronchodilator effect of B2 agonist?
a. Fluticasone
b. Beclomethasone
c. Both
d. None of the above

A

c. Both

90
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding toxicities of B2 agonist?
a. It causes Arrhythmia
b. It increases serum potassium level
c. Both
d. None of the above

A

a. It causes Arrhythmia

Revalida (11 decks)

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