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Revalida > Agsa Pharma 1st SEM FINALS > Flashcards

Agsa Pharma 1st SEM FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical Situation I: 1-5. A 40-year-old patient is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, experiencing generalized muscle weakness and fatigue. The physician is considering pharmacological interventions to enhance neuromuscular transmission.

What class of drugs is most suitable for managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis in this patient?
a. Cholinergic activating drugs
b. Antipsychotics
c. Antidepressants
d. Beta-blockers

A

a. Cholinergic activating drugs

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2
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of cholinergic activating drugs in myasthenia gravis?
a. Stimulate acetylcholine release
b. Block cholinergic receptors
c. Inhibit acetylcholine breakdown
d. Prolong acetylcholine action

A

c. Inhibit acetylcholine breakdown

a. Stimulate acetylcholine release - answer key ni doc

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3
Q

What neurotransmitter is affected by cholinoceptor-blocking drugs?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Serotonin
d. Dopamine

A

b. Acetylcholine

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4
Q

Which condition is commonly treated with cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs?
a. Hypertension
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Allergic rhinitis
d. Migraine

A

b. Myasthenia gravis

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5
Q

Cholinergic activating drugs primarily act on:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Parasympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Peripheral nervous system

A

b. Parasympathetic nervous system

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6
Q

The patient’s symptoms, such as palpitations and sweating, suggest an overactivity of the:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Parasympathetic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Endocrine system

A

a. Sympathetic nervous system

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7
Q

Which class of autonomic drugs is commonly used to modulate sympathetic activity in anxiety disorders?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Anticholinergic drugs
c. Alpha-agonists
d. Centrally acting sympatholytics

A

a. Benzodiazepines

c. Alpha-agonists - answer key ni doc

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8
Q

Beta-blockers are effective in reducing anxiety symptoms by blocking the action of:
a. Serotonin
b. Norepinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Dopamine

A

b. Norepinephrine

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9
Q

Are beta-blockers typically associated with an increase or decrease in heart rate?
a. Increase in heart rate
b. Decrease in heart rate
c. No effect on heart rate
d. Variable effects on heart rate

A

b. Decrease in heart rate

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10
Q

Clonidine, an alpha-agonist, primarily acts by:
a. Increasing norepinephrine release
b. Decreasing norepinephrine release
c. Blocking norepinephrine receptors
d. Enhancing GABA activity

A

b. Decreasing norepinephrine release

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11
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of adrenoceptor agonists?
a. Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system
b. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system
c. Blockade of adrenergic receptors
d. Inhibition of parasympathetic nervous system

A

b. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system

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12
Q

Which of the following is a common adrenoceptor agonist used in hypertensive emergencies?
a. Propranolol
b. Clonidine
c. Atenolol
d. Metoprolol

A

b. Clonidine

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13
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs mimic the action of which neurotransmitter?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Norepinephrine

A

d. Norepinephrine

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14
Q

A patient with a hypertensive crisis is administered a sympathomimetic drug. What physiological effect would be expected?
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Vasodilation
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Bronchoconstriction

A

c. Increased blood pressure

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15
Q

A patient is prescribed an adrenoceptor antagonist for hypertension. What side effect should be monitored closely?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypertension
d. Bronchodilation

A

a. Bradycardia

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16
Q

Which adrenoceptor is predominantly targeted by sympathomimetic drugs to increase heart rate and contractility?
a. Alpha-1
b. Beta-1
c. Alpha-2
d. Beta-2

A

b. Beta-1

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17
Q

Clonidine, a centrally acting antihypertensive, primarily stimulates:
a. Alpha receptors
b. Beta receptors
c. Dopamine receptors
d. Alpha-2 receptors

A

d. Alpha-2 receptors

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18
Q

Which adrenoceptor is predominantly targeted by sympathomimetic drugs to increase heart rate and contractility?
a. Alpha-1
b. Beta-1
c. Alpha-2
d. Beta-2

A

b. Beta-1

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19
Q

Which sympathomimetic drug is commonly used as a bronchodilator in respiratory conditions?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Phenylephrine

A

c. Isoproterenol

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20
Q

The primary use of beta-blockers (beta-adrenoceptor antagonists) includes:
a. Increasing heart rate
b. Lowering blood pressure
c. Stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
d. Enhancing bronchoconstriction

A

b. Lowering blood pressure

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21
Q

Which of the following drugs is a non-selective beta-blocker?
a. Atenolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Propranolol
d. Carvedilol

A

d. Carvedilol

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22
Q

An adverse effect associated with beta-blocker use is;
a. Hypertension
b. Bradycardia
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Vasodilation

A

b. Bradycardia

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23
Q

The primary therapeutic effect of alpha-adrenoceptor antagonists includes:
a. Decreasing heart rate
b. Vasodilation
c. Increasing blood pressure
d. Enhancing bronchoconstriction

A

b. Vasodilation

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24
Q

Beta-2 adrenoceptor agonists are often prescribed for the treatment of:
a. Hypertension
b. Asthma
c. Bradycardia
d. Hyperthyroidism

A

b. Asthma

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25
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-2 adrenoceptor agonists?
a. Vasodilation
b. Bronchodilation
c. Bradycardia
d. Increased contractility

A

b. Bronchodilation

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26
Q

A patient with a history of bronchial asthma is prescribed a beta-blocker. What potential complication should be considered?
a. Hypertension
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Tachycardia
d. Vasodilation

A

b. Bronchoconstriction

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27
Q

Which adrenoceptor agonist is commonly used to treat anaphylaxis due to its bronchodilator and vasopressor effects?
a. Albuterol
b. Epinephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Phenylephrine

A

b. Epinephrine

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28
Q

The main therapeutic effect of sympathomimetic drugs like dobutamine is:
a. Vasodilation
b. Positive inotropic and chronotropic effects
c. Negative inotropic and chronotropic effects
d. Beta-blockade

A

a. Vasodilation

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29
Q

Which of the following adrenoceptor agonists is commonly used to treat nasal congestion?
a. Clonidine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Isoproterenol

A

b. Phenylephrine

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30
Q

The primary effect of epinephrine on the cardiovascular system is:
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Increased blood pressure
c. Vasodilation
d. Negative inotropic effect

A

b. Increased blood pressure

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31
Q

The primary indication for the use of isoproterenol is:
a. Bradycardia
b. Hypertension
c. Asthma
d. Heart block

A

c. Asthma

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32
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter associated with migraines? *
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Histamine

A

c. Serotonin

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33
Q

In the context of migraines, which receptor subtype is targeted by triptans?
a. Serotonin 1A
b. Serotonin 1B/1D
c. Serotonin 2A
d. Serotonin 3

A

b. Serotonin 1B/1D

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34
Q

Ergot alkaloids are used to treat migraines by:
a. Inhibiting serotonin release
b. Stimulating histamine receptors
c. Causing vasoconstriction
d. Enhancing dopamine production

A

c. Causing vasoconstriction

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35
Q

Histamine is most commonly associated with which allergic response?
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

a. Type I hypersensitivity

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36
Q

Serotonin is derived from which amino acid?
a. Tryptophan
b. Tyrosine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Histidine

A

a. Tryptophan

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37
Q

The condition characterized by excessive serotonin levels, leading to symptoms such as hyperthermia, agitation, and altered mental status, isknown as:
a. Serotonin reuptake disorder
b. Serotonin deficiency syndrome
c. Serotonin syndrome
d. Serotonin desensitization

A

c. Serotonin syndrome

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38
Q

Histamine is released from which cells during an allergic response?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes

A

c. Mast cells

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39
Q

The primary function of histamine in the stomach is to:
a. Stimulate acid secretion
b. Inhibit acid secretion
c. Regulate blood flow
d. Enhance mucus production

A

a. Stimulate acid secretion

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40
Q

The 5-HT3 receptor subtype is associated with which physiological process?
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Smooth muscle contraction
d. Platelet aggregation

A

b. Nausea and vomiting

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41
Q

Ergot alkaloids are sometimes used to manage postpartum hemorrhage due to their ability to:
a. Stimulate uterine contractions
b. Inhibit coagulation
c. Enhance clot formation
d. Decrease blood pressure

A

a. Stimulate uterine contractions

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42
Q

Which of the following vasoactive peptides is primarily responsible for vasoconstriction?
a. Bradykinin
b. Angiotensin II
c. Prostacyclin
d. Nitric oxide

A

b. Angiotensin II

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43
Q

Eicosanoids derived from arachidonic acid include:
a. Prostaglandins
b. Leukotrienes
c. Thromboxanes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

44
Q

In the context of hypertension, which eicosanoid promotes vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation?
a. Prostacyclin
b. Leukotrienes
c. Thromboxanes
d. Prostaglandins

A

c. Thromboxanes

45
Q

Eicosanoids are derived from the metabolism of:
a. Arachidonic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Oleic acid
d. Palmitic acid

A

a. Arachidonic acid

46
Q

Angiotensin II exerts its vasoconstrictor effects by:
a. Inhibiting renin release
b. Stimulating aldosterone secretion
c. Increasing vascular smooth muscle contraction
d. Enhancing prostacyclin production

A

c. Increasing vascular smooth muscle contraction

47
Q

In inflammatory conditions, the synthesis of leukotrienes is increased by the activation of:
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Lipoxygenase
c. Phospholipase A2
d. Prostacyclin synthase

A

b. Lipoxygenase

48
Q

The primary target of angiotensin II in promoting vasoconstriction is:
a. Endothelial cells
b. Smooth muscle cells
c. Platelets
d. Macrophages

A

b. Smooth muscle cells

49
Q

The precursor molecule for the synthesis of eicosanoids is: *
a. Arachidonic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Oleic acid
d. Palmitic acid

A

a. Arachidonic acid

50
Q

Leukotrienes are primarily associated with:
a. Vasodilation
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Platelet aggregation
d. Smooth muscle relaxation

A

b. Bronchoconstriction

51
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits cyclooxygenase?
a. Aspirin
b. Prednisone
c. Montelukast
d. Zafirlukast

A

a. Aspirin

52
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of nitric oxide in the treatment of asthma?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Smooth muscle relaxation
c. Mucous production
d. Inflammatory response

A

b. Smooth muscle relaxation

53
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of nitric oxide therapy?
a. Bradycardia
b. Hypertension
c. Headache
d. Hyperglycemia

A

c. Headache

54
Q

How do inhaled corticosteroids work in asthma management?
a. By promoting bronchoconstriction
b. By inhibiting inflammatory responses
c. By blocking muscarinic receptors
d. By enhancing leukotriene production

A

b. By inhibiting inflammatory responses

55
Q

Which of the following is an anticholinergic medication used in the treatment of asthma?
a. Albuterol
b. Ipratropium
c. Montelukast
d. Fluticasone

A

b. Ipratropium

56
Q

What is the primary goal of asthma therapy?
a. Inducing bronchoconstriction
b. Reducing airway inflammation
c. Promoting mucous production
d. Increasing respiratory rate

A

b. Reducing airway inflammation

57
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acute severe asthma exacerbations?
a. Inhaled corticosteroids
b. Leukotriene modifiers
c. Systemic corticosteroids
d. Long-acting beta-agonists

A

c. Systemic corticosteroids

58
Q

Which of the following is a leukotriene modifier commonly used in asthma management?
a. Albuterol
b. Montelukast
c. Fluticasone
d. Ipratropium

A

b. Montelukast

59
Q

In asthma, what is the role of mast cells in the airways? *
a. Promoting bronchoconstriction
b. Inhibiting inflammation
c. Relaxing smooth muscles
d. Enhancing mucus clearance

A

a. Promoting bronchoconstriction

60
Q

What is the primary purpose of systemic corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma exacerbations?
a. Immediate bronchodilation
b. Long-term control of symptoms
c. Rapid reduction of airway inflammation
d. Prevention of mucous production

A

c. Rapid reduction of airway inflammation

61
Q

What role do immunomodulators play in the treatment of severe asthma?
a. Immediate relief of symptoms
b. Prevention of exercise-induced bronchoconstriction
c. Long-term control of inflammation
d. Reduction of mucous production

A

c. Long-term control of inflammation

62
Q

Which of these Quinolones do not work synergistically with Beta-lactams?
a. Ofloxacin
b. Nalidixic acid
c. Ciprofloxacin X
d. Norfloxacin

A

b. Nalidixic acid

63
Q

PD is a 60 y/o, male patient with a creatinine level of 1,200. Which of these Fluoroquinolones can be administered?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Moxifloxacin
c. Norfloxacin
d. Ofloxacin

A

b. Moxifloxacin

64
Q

The clinical use of Tetracyclines have been limited by resistance. Which of these mechanisms is the MAJOR cause of resistance?
a. Ribosomal “target” mutation
b. Production of bacterial proteins
c. Inactivation of the drug by enzymes
d. Inability of the bacteria to accumulate the drug

A

d. Inability of the bacteria to accumulate the drug

65
Q

JO is a 30 year old female who was being injected this drug intramuscularly in the clinic, but after the 3rd injection, she observed having loss of balance and more intense vertigo. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause and should be discontinued?
a. Erythromycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Clindamycin

A

b. Streptomycin

66
Q

A 30 year old male admitted patient suddenly experienced reddish flushing of the neck and upper torso after being administered with a drug. Which of these agents is most likely to cause this sign?
a. Gentamicin
b. Clindamycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Streptomycin

A

c. Vancomycin

67
Q

Which of these Macrolides has methyl-substituted nitrogen added to the core lactone ring thereby improving its stability and increasing its tissue penetration.
a. Erythromycin stearate
b. Erythromycin estolate
c. Clarithromycin
d. Azithromycin

A

d. Azithromycin

68
Q

An adverse effect to Cephalosporins characterized by flushing, tachycardia, hypotension, nausea, dizziness caused by the inhibition of the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?
a. Disulfiram-like Reaction
b. Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction
c. Red Man Syndrome
d. Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reaction

A

a. Disulfiram-like Reaction

69
Q

Clavulanic acid is added to Amoxicillin in order to:
a. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea
b. Increase the bioavailability by increasing absorption
c. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction
d. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal tract

A

c. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction

70
Q

E.C., 18/F was diagnosed with peritonitis secondary to ruptured appendicitis and will be given parenteral antibiotics. Past medical history revealed that she has a severe allergy to Amoxicillin. Which among the following antibiotics can be given to her?
a. Aztreonam + Avibactam
b. Piperacillin + Tazobactam
c. Ampicillin + Sulbactam
d. Imipenem + Cilastatin

A

a. Aztreonam + Avibactam

71
Q

V.P., a 2 year old male was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following cephalosporins can be used to treat his infection?
a. Cefamandole
b. Cefazolin
c. Cefuroxime
d. Cefoxitin

A

c. Cefuroxime

72
Q

Which of the following penicillin is resistant against beta lactamase?
a. Piperacillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Penicillin G
d. Nafcillin

A

d. Nafcillin

73
Q

JR has been experiencing fever, severe headaches and has rashes. He was diagnosed to have typhus; which of these drugs may be used as a treatment choice?
a. Erythromycin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Clotrimazole
d. Telithromycin

A

b. Chloramphenicol

74
Q

Chloramphenicol primarily undergoes hepatic metabolism but is secreted in the renal tubules and eliminated in the urine. If no other drug is available, it would be prudent for the physician to do the following in a cirrhotic patient:
a. Administer the oral form
b. Not give the drug entirely
c. Increase the dose
d. Reduce the dose

A

d. Reduce the dose

75
Q

Fluoroquinolone absorption is reduced by interaction with: *
a. Presence of food in stomach
b. Mg2, Al3, Fe3 salts in antacids
c. Antifungal drugs
d. Cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

b. Mg2, Al3, Fe3 salts in antacids

76
Q

Which of these Macrolide has a 15-member lactone ring and therefore, does not inactivate hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme:
a. Clarithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Erythromycin

A

c. Azithromycin

77
Q

The appropriate Tetracycline for a patient with renal insufficiency is:
a. Tigecycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Minocycline
d. Chlortetracycline

A

a. Tigecycline

78
Q

This Beta-lactam has been closely associated with pseudomembranous colitis when administered for chronic conditions:
a. Cloxacillin
b. Dicloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Ampicillin

A

d. Ampicillin

79
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Syphilis?
a. Cefuroxime
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Co-Amoxiclav
d. Penicillin G

A

d. Penicillin G

80
Q

What is the drug of choice for Neisseria gonorrhoea infection?
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Co-Amoxiclav
c. Penicillin G
d. Cefuroxime

A

a. Ceftriaxone

81
Q

This tetracycline drug may be used concomitantly with a Quinolone for the prophylaxis and treatment of malaria: *
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Doxycycline
c. Demeclocycline
d. Minocycline

A

b. Doxycycline

82
Q

GH is a 55 year old farmer who was admitted to the hospital with flu-like symptoms, painful swallowing with difficulty of breathing. Anthrax exposure is suspected by his doctors which would best be treated with:
a. Levofloxacin
b. Ofloxacin
c. Norfloxacin
d. Ciprofloxacin

A

d. Ciprofloxacin

83
Q

PD is a 62 year old male diagnosed with Renal Tubular Acidosis. Which of these fluoroquinolones should not be administered to him?
a. Nalidixic acid
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. Moxifloxacin

A

a. Nalidixic acid

84
Q

Oxazolidinones have a unique mechanism of action by binding to these bacterial ribosomal subunit to prevent bacterial translation:
a. 30s
b. 70s
c. 50s
d. 80s

A

c. 50s

85
Q

Which of these drugs may be taken orally and is a viable alternative to Vancomycin against MRSA?
a. Meropenem
b. Linezolid
c. Clindamycin
d. Ceftazidime

A

b. Linezolid

86
Q

GJ, 38 y/o male, complained of a painful reddish rash on his left shoulder. No fever, no signs of bleeding. He claimed to have been vaccinated with the required vaccines when he was a child but claimed to have had chickenpox. What is the antiviral that is most potent against his condition?
a. Acyclovir
b. Penciclovir
c. Foscarnet
d. Methisazone

A

a. Acyclovir

87
Q

LO, 26 y/o female, complains of chronic diarrhea and weight loss. Several months ago, she noticed non-tender, non-itchy skin lesions. She is a GRO who has multiple partners. What can be appropriately given to decrease the progression of her condition?
a. Ritonavir
b. Zidovudine
c. Gamma globulin
d. Rilpivirine

A

a. Ritonavir

88
Q

Which of the following antifungal agents is most likely to cause renal insufficiency?
a. Amphotericin B Cholesteryl Sulfate
b. Amphotericin B Lipid Complex
c. Colloidal Amphotericin B
d. Liposomal Amphotericin B

A

c. Colloidal Amphotericin B

89
Q

A 56-year-old female with diabetes presents for routine foot evaluation with her podiatrist. The patient complains of thickening of the nail of the right big toe and a change in color (yellow). She was diagnosed with onychomycosis of the toenails. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice for treating this infection?
a. Itraconazole
b. Griseofulvin
c. Micafungin
d. Terbinafine

A

d. Terbinafine

90
Q

Antifungal of choice for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?
a. Voriconazole
b. Nitroimidazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Itraconazole

A

c. Fluconazole

91
Q

Which antimalarial exerts activity against both the primary liver stages and asexual red cell stages of Plasmodium?
a. Primaquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Artemisinin
d. Atovaquone

A

d. Atovaquone

92
Q

The triad of cinchonism, hypoglycemia and hypotension are adverse effects attributed to?
a. Quinine
b. Mefloquine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine A

A

a. Quinine

93
Q

This antimalarial drug inhibits the electron transport and collapses the mitochondrial membrane potential of Plasmodium species:
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Proguanil
c. Artemisinin
d. Atovaquone

A

d. Atovaquone

94
Q

The most important irreversible adverse effect of vancomycin:
a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Hypersensitivity
c. Ototoxicity
d. Red man syndrome

A

c. Ototoxicity

95
Q

You intend to prescribe an appropriate drug among these aminoglycosides, which of the following is deemed the least ototoxic?
a. Tobramycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Amikacin
d. Netilmicin

A

d. Netilmicin

96
Q

C.G. Is a 20-year-old farmer who owns a number of cats to control barn rodents. He exhibited flu-like symptoms with muscle aches and lymphadenopathy for one month before his vision began to blur with painful photophobia. Which of these drugs would be best prescribed and immediately administered to him?
a. Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine
b. Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole
c. Sulfisoxazole
d. Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine

A

a. Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine

97
Q

P.K. a 60-year-old immunocompromised male is diagnosed and confirmed with Clostridium difficile colitis. Which of these drugs would best treat his condition?
a. IV Fidaxomicin
b. Oral Rifaximin
c. Oral Metronidazole
d. IV Vancomycin

A

c. Oral Metronidazole

98
Q

The following statements are TRUE regarding bactericidal antibiotics EXCEPT:
a. MBC > MIC
b. It is effective in infections when host defenses are poor
c. It requires host defense mechanism
d. It causes bacterial death

A

c. It requires host defense mechanism

99
Q

J.V., a 7 year old male, was diagnosed with pneumonia and about to be started on antibiotics. Upon further history taking, it was found out that he has Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Which class of antibiotics is contraindicated for his condition?
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Macrolides
c. Beta-lactams
d. Sulfonamides

A

d. Sulfonamides

100
Q

A 27 y/o female on her 1st trimester of pregnancy was diagnosed with amebic liver abscess. Which among the following is the best treatment regimen?
a. Metronidazole plus Diloxanide furoate
b. Diloxanide furoate
c. Paromomycin
d. Chloroquine plus Paromomycin

A

d. Chloroquine plus Paromomycin

101
Q

30 y/o female on her 1st trimester of pregnancy was diagnosed with asymptomatic amebic colitis. Among the following, which is the best treatment regimen?
a. Metronidazole plus Diloxanide furoate
b. Diloxanide furoate
c. Paromomycin
d. Chloroquine plus Paromomycin

A

d. Chloroquine plus Paromomycin

102
Q

Which of the following statements about the Glycopeptides is correct?
a. Glycopeptides are mostly bacteriostatic
b. Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to D-ALA-D-ALA terminus of nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide
c. Clindamycin inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 70S ribosomal subunit
d. Vancomycin is bactericidal for common Gram negative aerobic bacteria

A

b. Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to D-ALA-D-ALA terminus of nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide

103
Q

Bacitracin is best used for topical administration because it:
a. suppresses mixed bacterial flora in the skin
b. is hypoallergenic for wound application
c. causes nephrotoxicity if given systemically
d. is oily and produces pain on IV administration

A

c. causes nephrotoxicity if given systemically

104
Q

Daptomycin has the distinct characteristic of not having cross-resistance with other antibiotics because of its:
a. Prolonged post-antibiotic effect
b. Rapid concentration-dependent killing
c. Unique chemical structure
d. Once-daily dosing

A

c. Unique chemical structure

105
Q

HD is a 27 year old AIDS patient. He is admitted for the first time due to Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. What is the drug of choice for his condition?
a. Itraconazole + Zidovudine
b. Tenofovir + Emtricitabine
c. Fosfomycin + Levofloxacin
d. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

A

d. Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim

106
Q

Women treated with sulfonamides are also advised to take this agent to maintain or increase their RBC levels.
a. Vitamin K
b. Calcium
c. Folic acid

A

c. Folic acid

Revalida (11 decks)

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