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Revalida > Tagnawa and Sirmata BSWR (Microbiology-Parasitology) > Flashcards

Tagnawa and Sirmata BSWR (Microbiology-Parasitology) Flashcards

1
Q

The steps leading to the synthesis of peptidoglycan occur in the cytoplasm, on the cytoplasmic membrane, and extracellularly. Which antibiotic inhibits an extracellular step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis?
A. Cycloserine
B. Rifampin
C. Penicillin
D. Bacitracin

A

C. Penicillin

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2
Q

The ability to use compounds and ions other than oxygen as terminal oxidants in respiration is a widespread microbial trait. This capacity is called
A. Photosynthesis
B. Fermentation
C. Anaerobic respiration
D. Nitrogen fixation

A

C. Anaerobic respiration

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3
Q

The mechanism of the gram stain is based on differences in the cell wall structure of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and how each reacts to various reagents. The dyes crystal violet and safranin combine with the cell’s:
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Proteins
D. Lipopolysaccharides

A

B. Peptidoglycan

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4
Q

Obligate anaerobes refer to organisms that
A. Specifically require oxygen as the hydrogen acceptor
B. Can live with or without oxygen
C. Require small amount of oxygen
D. Require a substance other than oxygen as hydrogen acceptor and are sensitive to oxygen inhibition

A

D. Require a substance other than oxygen as hydrogen acceptor and are sensitive to oxygen inhibition

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5
Q

A sexually active woman came to you for consultation due to foul smelling vaginal discharge. You suspect that this patient has gonococcal infection. To confirm your impression, you intended to do culture of the vaginal discharge. What culture medium will you use?
A. Blood agar
B. Thayer Martin
C.Mac-Conkey agar
D.Chocolate agar

A

B. Thayer Martin

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6
Q

A 28-year old female, 16 weeks pregnant, who just arrived from Brazil, came in for consult due to trash, arthralgia, conjunctivitis, and fever. She worries about what will happen to her baby. You tell her that:
A. Transplacental transmission does not happen in this disease
B. Drug of choice is Ribavirin but is contraindicated in pregnancy
C. It can infect fetal neuronal tissue leading to microcephaly and neurologic abnormalities
D. There is no screening test available for pregnant women potentially exposed to this infection

A

C. It can infect fetal neuronal tissue leading to microcephaly and neurologic abnormalities

  • the case is Zika Virus
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7
Q

A 12-year old boy from Manila, was admitted due to fever, rash, headache, eye pain, muscle and joint pains for 6 days. The fever subsided on the third day but rose again on the 5th day. His parents mentioned it is his 2nd time to be admitted due to the same symptoms. The first episode occurred last year 2 weeks after a typhoon. What is your impression?
A. Japanese
B. Encephalitis
C. Dengue Fever
B. Zika virus Infection
D. Lassa Fever

A

C. Dengue Fever

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8
Q

Component of the lipopolysaccharide that is responsible for the symptoms associated with infections such as fever, dilation of blood vessels, shock, and blood clotting:
A. Porin
B. Endotoxin
C. Lipid A
D. Core polysaccharide

A

C. Lipid A

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9
Q

Period of equilibrium in microbial growth in which new cell numbers are balanced by the death of the cells.
A. Lag Phase
B. Log Phase
C. Stationary Phase
D. Death Phase

A

C. Stationary Phase

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10
Q

A 25 year old male, medical student goes to the emergency room because of fever, anorexia, nausea for 3 days. He appears jaundiced, with palpable liver and right upper quadrant tenderness. He received Hepatitis B vaccine prior to medical school entrance. You requested for hepatitis serologic tests and came out as follows: anti-HAV IgM (+), anti-HAV IgG (-), HBsAg (-), Anti-HBs (+), antiHBc (-), antiHCV (-). How will you interpret the result?
A. He has Acute Hepatitis A, has vaccine-induced immunity against Hepatitis B, has not been infected with Hepatitis C
B. He has Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C coinfections
C. He has been infected with Hepatitis A and Hepatitis C in the past, and has Hepatitis B now
D. The result is inconclusive

A

A. He has Acute Hepatitis A, has vaccine-induced immunity against Hepatitis B, has not been infected with Hepatitis C

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11
Q

Which of the following serologic patterns is suggestive of a patient with chronic hepatitis B with high level of viral replication and greater infectivity to intimate contacts?
A. HBsAg (+), anti-HBs (-), anti-HBc (+), HBeAg (+), HBV DNA (+)
B. HBsAg (-), anti-HBs (-), anti-HBc (+), HBeAg (+), HBV DNA (+)
C. HBsAg (+), anti-HBs (-), anti HBc (-), HBeAg (-), HBV DNA (+)
D. HBsAg (+), anti-HBs (+), anti-HBc (+), HBeAg (+), HBV DNA (+)

A

A. HBsAg (+), anti-HBs (-), anti-HBc (+), HBeAg (+), HBV DNA (+)

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12
Q

A pregnant woman was reactive for HBsAg. An HBV DNA requested was high, more than 200 000 IU/ml. The patient worries about what will happen to her baby. What will you tell the patient?
A. There is a low risk of maternal-to-child transmission
B. Treatment is contraindicated in pregnant patients
C. The pregnant patient should be initiated with antiviral treatment on 28-32 weeks AOG to minimize the chance of newborn infection
D. The baby already acquired lifelong immunity

A

C. The pregnant patient should be initiated with antiviral treatment on 28-32 weeks AOG to minimize the chance of newborn infection

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13
Q

A surgical instrument was contaminated by a spore forming bacteria. Which of the following biocides can be used to sterilize the object?
A. Ionizing radiation
B. UV
C. Ethanol 40%
D. Triclosan

A

A. Ionizing radiation

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14
Q

Mac Conkey agar is a differential culture medium that contains a specific substrate and neutral red as an indicator. This agar is used to differentiate
A. Lactose fermenters from non-lactose fermenters
B. Glucose fermenters from sucrose fermenters
C. Sucrose fermenters from non-sucrose fermenters
D. Halophiles from non-halophiles

A

A. Lactose fermenters from non-lactose fermenters

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15
Q

Test that detect virus or antigen on infected cell, except?
A. ELISA
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Electrophoresis
D. Latex agglutination

A

C. Electrophoresis

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16
Q

Test that confirms seroconversion or/and infection with HIV.
A. Western Blot
B. Southern Blot
C. Northern Blot
D. All of the above

A

A. Western Blot

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17
Q

Heterophile antibody is seen in
A. CMV
B. EBV
C. Varicella
D. Herpes

A

B. EBV

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18
Q

Koplik spot :
A. Measles
B. German Measles
C. HerpesVirus
D. Varicella Zoster

A

A. Measles

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19
Q

A widened mediastinum is a sign of:
a. Consolidated pneumonia
b. Inhalation anthrax
c. Heart attack
d. Food poisoning

A

b. Inhalation anthrax

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20
Q

Results in worldwide epidemics contributing to emergence epidemics.
A. Dengue
B. Hepatitis B
C. HIV
D. Influenza

A

D. Influenza

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21
Q

A 60-year-old male came to your clinic presenting with a raised itchy bump on the skin of his hand resembling an insect bite that quickly developed into a painless sore with a black center. Axillary lymph nodes on the same side of the lesion are enlarged as well. What is the most likely causative agent involved?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus epidermidis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Bacillus anthracis

A

D. Bacillus anthracis

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22
Q

These viruses establish a state of latent infection in which few if any of viral gene is expressed, except;
A. Varicella
B. EBV
C. HerpesVirus
D. Poliovirus

A

D. Poliovirus

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23
Q

Third step in viral replication
A. Biosynthesis
B. Attachment
C. Assembly
D. Maturation

A

A. Biosynthesis

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24
Q

Owl’s eye appearance is seen in
A. HPV
B. VZV
C. CMV
D. EBV

A

C. CMV

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25
Q

A man came into your clinic due to fever and swelling of his left leg after he got into a vehicular accident a few days ago. On physical examination, the left leg is swollen, erythematous and warm to touch with a foul smelling discharge and crepitations around the wound. Gram stain of wound discharge showed large gram positive rods with spores. What is the most probable causative agent involved?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Bacillus anthracis

A

C. Clostridium perfringens

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26
Q

The following statements is/are true about viruses:
A. They all consist of nucleic acid, proteins, and lipids
B. They are completely dependent on cells they infect for their survival and replication
C. They are classified according to the presence of single or double-stranded proteins
D. AOTA

A

B. They are completely dependent on cells they infect for their survival and replication.

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27
Q

The physical separation of the viral nucleic acid from the outer structural components of the virion:
A. Attachment
B. Penetration
C. Uncoating
D. Release

A

C. Uncoating

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28
Q

A 50 year old man, a construction worker, was admitted to the emergency room for fever and leg pain. He injured his leg on the construction site 5 days before admission which he immediately washed with soap and water. Three days before admission, his wife noticed that he started to have fever (38.5-39.4 deg C), body aches and chills and his wound started to develop a black discoloration rapidly. Upon physical examination, he is hypotensive, febrile. With edema and pain with even light touch. What is the likely etiologic agent?
A. Cutaneous Anthrax
B. Necrotizing fasciitis
C. Wound botulism
D. Tetanus

A

B. Necrotizing fasciitis

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29
Q

A 40-year-old woman has a history of chronic inflammation of the small joints of the hands bilaterally. You suspect rheumatoid arthritis. Which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding the pathogenesis of this disease?
A. It is caused by antibodies against human IgG-forming immune complexes within the joints.
B. It is caused by sensitized CD4-positive T-lymphocytes and macrophages invading the joints.
C. It is caused by super antigens inducing the release of large amounts of lymphokines from helper T cells within the joints.
D. It is caused by the release of mediators from mast cells when environmental agents cross-link adjacent IgEs within the joints.

A

B. It is caused by sensitized CD4-positive T-lymphocytes and macrophages invading the joints.

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30
Q

Ova and Parasite (O&P) are usually seen under the microscope in:
A. Concentration techniques
B. Wet Mount
C. Giemsa stain
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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31
Q

This is the typical pattern of Giardia trophozoites on microscopy:
A. “falling leaf”
B. “crystal-shaped”
C. “figure z”
D. A and C

A

A. “falling leaf”

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32
Q

This is a common infection among younger children, and diagnosed based on the recovery of thickshelled, football shaped eggs with one slightly flattened side:
A. Amoeba
B. Schistosoma
C. Enterobius
D. Hookworm

A

C. Enterobius

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33
Q

This process is described as the process of inoculating the host with an infective agent.
A. Exposure
B. Infection
C. Life cycle
D. Incubation period

A

B. Infection

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34
Q

Furuncle-like lesion associated with induration, central edema and regional lymphadenopathy seen in leishmaniasis:
A. Kerandel’s sign
B. Chagoma
C. Trypanids
D. Oriental button

A

B. Chagoma

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35
Q

This is the process of living together of two different species of organisms.
A. Mutualism
B. Parasitism
C. Commensalism
D. Symbiosis

A

D. Symbiosis

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36
Q

Which of this virus inhibits translation of of 5’ translation of MRNA
A. Herpes virus
B. Polio virus
C. Retrovirus
D. Papilloma virus

A

B. Polio virus

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37
Q

Type of viral infection that does not cause clinical symptoms during the incubation period:
A. Acute
B. Persistent
C. Slow
D. Inapparent

A

C. Slow

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38
Q

You have a 5-year-old male patient presenting with a maculopapular rash. You entertain a possible measles infection. You wanted to request for a viral culture. Which specimen is appropriate?
A. Urine
B. Throat swab
C. Rectal swab
D. Scraping of macular rashes

A

A. Urine

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39
Q

Syncytial formation is seen in the following viral infection, EXCEPT
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Papillomavirus

A

D. Papillomavirus

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40
Q

Staining material of gram positive bacterium is _.
A. Fast green
B. Haematoxylin
C. Crystal violet
D. Safranin

A

C. Crystal violet

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41
Q

The differences between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in the ___.
A. Cell Wall
B. Nucleus
C. Cell membrane
D. Mesosomes

A

A. Cell Wall

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42
Q

The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called __.
A. Pasteurization
B. Desiccation
C. Disinfection
D. Lyophilization

A

D. Lyophilization

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43
Q

Which is the largest protozoan parasite to cause human disease?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Balantidium coli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

A

B. Balantidium coli

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44
Q

What is the infective form of Strongyloides stercoralis?
A. Rhabditiform
B. Filariform
C. Cysts
D. Adult

A

B. Filariform

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45
Q

Which of the following agents is used to treat malaria in pregnancy?
A. Mebendazole
B. Praziquantel
C. Chloroquine
D. Quinidine

A

C. Chloroquine

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46
Q

The following statements are true about the cytoplasmic membrane:
A. It is a typical “unit membrane” composed of phospholipids
B. It forms a hydrophobic barrier impermeable to most hydrophilic molecules
C. It houses the bacterial electron transport chain
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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47
Q

How is COVID-19 primarily transmitted?
A. Through contact with an infected person’s droplets when they cough and sneeze, speak, sing, or breathe.
B. Eye contact between infected people.
C. Touching surfaces contaminated with virus particles.
D. All of the above

A

A. Through contact with an infected person’s droplets when they cough and sneeze, speak, sing, or breathe.

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48
Q

What type of influenza that undergoes antigenic shift?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. A and B are correct

A

A. Type A

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49
Q

What is the structure of influenza that attaches to the host cell and genetic variation occurs?
A. Nucleic acid
B. Envelope
C. RNA protein
D. HA

A

D. HA

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50
Q

In the innate immune response, interferon is one of the body’s first responders. Which of these inhibit peptide chain elongation?
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. 2,5 alpha synthetase
C. Nitric oxide synthetase
D. PKR

A

A. Phosphodiesterase

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51
Q

A 55-year-old homeless man with alcoholism presents with severe multilobar pneumonia. He requires intubation and mechanical ventilation. A Gram-stain of his sputum reveals numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and Gram-negative rods that appear to have a capsule. The organism is a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar and is very mucoid. It is nonmotile and lysine decarboxylase positive. What is the most likely organism causing this man’s illness?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Serratia marcescens
C. Enterobacter aerogenes
D. Proteus mirabilis
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae

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52
Q

A 56 y/o male patient with a known case of cystic fibrosis presented with increased coughing, shortness of breath, increased mucus production, loss of appetite, malaise, and fever. Sputum gram stain revealed gram-negative rods in singles, pairs, and short chains. What organism is the most probable cause of the patient’s manifestation?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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53
Q

Endospores can be stained with
A. Safranin
B. Crystal violet
C. Methylene blue
D. Malachite green

A

D. Malachite green

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54
Q

What staining technique is used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium?
A. Giemsa stain
B. Albert’s stain
C. Acid fast staining
D. All of the above

A

B. Albert’s stain

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55
Q

Diagnosis of Vibrio cholerae is made by culturing stool on selective medium such as TCBS or alkaline peptone broth. Treatment involves rehydration and what antibiotic?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracycline
C. Azithromycin
D. 4th generation cephalosporins

A

C. Azithromycin

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56
Q

Gram-stained smears of stool may show the typical “gull wing”~shaped rods. Dark-field or phase contrast microscopy may show the typical darting motility of the organisms
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

A

C. Campylobacter jejuni

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57
Q

Routine stains demonstrate gastritis, and Giemsa or special silver stains can show the curved or spiral-shaped organisms
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Vibrio Parahaemolyticus

A

C. Helicobacter pylori

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58
Q

The most common herpetic infection of childhood is?
A. Acute herpetic vulvovaginitis
B. Traumatic herpes
C. Acute herpetic pharyngo esophagitis
D. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

C. Acute herpetic pharyngo esophagitis

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59
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning viral encephalitis and meningitis is correct?
A. The spinal fluid protein is usually decreased in viral meningitis
B. Herpes simplex 1 and 2 is the leading cause of viral meningitis
C. The diagnosis of viral meningitis can be made by using an India ink stain
D. Herpes simplex virus type 1 is an important cause of viral encephalitis

A

D. Herpes simplex virus type 1 is an important cause of viral encephalitis

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60
Q

The following tests are used for the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori:
A. Nucleic acid amplification tests (PCR)
B. Detection of H. pylori antigen on urine specimens
C. Histopathological examination of gastric biopsy specimens
D. Clinical manifestations

A

C. Histopathological examination of gastric biopsy specimens

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61
Q

Intimate contacts of patients with suspected plague pneumonia should receive which of the following agents as chemoprophylaxis?
A. Gentamycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Penicillin
D. Rifampin

A

B. Doxycycline

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62
Q

You are the pathologist on duty when you were asked to read a specimen grown on sheep blood agar. Upon reviewing the case, the sample studied is cerebrospinal fluid from a 3 year old child who presented with fever, seizures and decrease in sensorium. The specimen showed small coccobacilli that did not show breakdown of red blood cells. They grew around colonies of staphylococci. What is this growth pattern called?
A. Hemolysis
B. Satellite phenomenon
C. Synergism
D. Swarming

A

B. Satellite phenomenon

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63
Q

A 2-year old boy was brought to the emergency department due to throat pain associated with drooling, fever and an inspiratory stridor. Lateral xray of the neck shows the characteristic “thumb sign”. This disease is caused by this small, encapsulated gram-negative, pleomorphic bacteria which sometimes occurs in pairs or chains. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Haemophilus influenzae type B
E. Epstein Barr virus

A

D. Haemophilus influenzae type B

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64
Q

RD, a 26-year old businessman is seen at a private clinic for evaluation of multiple genital ulcers that he noted developing over the past week. They initially started as pustules which are now ulcers. The ulcers are extremely tender and occasionally bleed. On physical examination, there are multiple bilateral deep ulcers with purulent bases that bleed easily; tender but soft on palpation. Which of the following organisms are likely to be found on culture of the lesions?
A. Haemophilus ducreyi
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

A. Haemophilus ducreyi

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65
Q

A 10-year old mountain girl was noted to have occasional cough and sneezing 3 days prior to consultation. The cough later on was noted to be explosive character with a “whoop” upon inhalation. She was brought to the rural health unit. The appropriate culture medium for the nasopharyngeal swab collected would be:
A. Regan-Lowe medium
B. Chocolate agar
C. Blood agar medium
D. None of the above

A

A. Regan-Lowe medium

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66
Q

Which virulence factor of B. pertussis causes histamine secretion?
A. Adenylate cyclase toxin
B. Pertussis toxin
C. Dermonecrotic toxin
D. Fimbriae
E. Tracheal cytotoxin

A

B. Pertussis toxin

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67
Q

A 20-year old college student living in the university dormitory develops severe headache, neck stiffness and fever. He was brought to the hospital when his dormmates cannot wake him up. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. A latex particle agglutination test confirms the etiological cause of the bacterial meningitis. Which is the most likely causative agent?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

C. Neisseria meningitidis

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68
Q

These organisms are members of the normal microbiota of the skin, oral cavity, large intestine, conjunctiva, and external ear canal. On Gram stain, they are highly pleomorphic, showing curved, clubbed, or pointed ends; long forms with beaded uneven staining; and occasionally coccoid or spherical forms
A. Propionibacterium acne
B. Actinomyces
C. Porphyromonas sp.
D. Prevoteiia sp.

A

A. Propionibacterium acne

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69
Q

Which drug interfere with the premature termination of viral chain in SARS-COV2
A. Amantadine
B. Rimantadine
C. Ritonavir
D. Remdesivir

A

D. Remdesivir

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70
Q

A 32-year-old female was diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. The organism was found out to be bile-resistant, non~spore-forming, slender gram-negative rods that may appear as coccobacilli, This is most likely:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Fusobacterium necroporum

A

C. Bacteroides fragilis

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71
Q

A common complication of gonorrhea in females is infertility due to complications of pelvic inflammatory disease. This is attributed to what virulence factor?
A. Rmp
B. Pili
C. Lipooligosaccharide
D. Fbp
E. Opa

A

C. Lipooligosaccharide

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72
Q

A §-year-old male is seen by a primary care physician. The boy appears to have an infection of the hair and scalp. The physician suspects a dermatophyte and removes infected hairs by plucking them with forceps. Which of the following is true regarding the direct examination of the hair?
A. Use the basal portion of the hair or hair stubs for the examination.
B. Use 12% KOH and then add a drop of Methylene blue before placing the cover slip.
C. Use of black light is not important.
D. A and C only
E. All of the above

A

A. Use the basal portion of the hair or hair stubs for the examination.
B. Use 12% KOH and then add a drop of Methylene blue before placing the cover slip.

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73
Q

A bacterial structure involved in adherence is:
A. Capsule
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Pili
D. Teichoic acid

A

C. Pili

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74
Q

16-year old female complains of fever, joint pains involving the knees, elbows and fingers. She had a mild sore throat 3 weeks ago which resolved without medication. On physical examination, she has heart murmurs. She probably has:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

C. Rheumatic fever

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75
Q

A 27 year old male was brought to the hospital because of facial muscle spasm and has been unable to eat for 3 days. History revealed that the young man had been searching for scrap metal in a junkyard and accidentally stepped on a jagged piece of metal projecting from the soil. The symptoms experienced by the young man are consistent with the presumptive diagnosis of?
A. Gangrene
B. Carbuncle
C. Botulism
D. Tetanus

A

D. Tetanus

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76
Q

An 11 year old girl visited a clinic with white lesions around the mouth and tongue. The girl developed fever, swelling, and pain around the infected area for 2 days. A swab specimen was taken and microscopic examination showed budding spherical cells of fungi with hyphae. After 24 hours of a culture of the specimen, smooth cream-colored colonies were observed. This fungi is most probably:
A. Rhizopus oryzae
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
D. Candida albicans

A

D. Candida albicans

77
Q

A 2-year old, male sex worker presented with fever, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and abdominal pain. On physical examination, he was jaundiced, with RUQ tenderness, liver span of 10 cm mid clavicular line and 6cm mid sternal line, no splenomegaly nor lymphadenopathies. Hepatitis panel turned out to be HBsAg (+), HBeAg (+), anti-HBc IgM (+), anti HBc IgG (-), anti-HBs (-), anti-HAV IgM (-), anti HAV IgG (+), AntiHCV (-). The patient most likely
A. Has acute hepatitis B and is infectious
B. Has Chronic Hepatitis B infection
C. Has both hepatitis B and hepatitis E infection
D. Has chronic hepatitis A and acute hepatitis B infection

A

A. Has acute hepatitis B and is infectious

78
Q

Aflatoxin is usually present in moldy foods such as nuts and corn which can be poisonous for animals as well as humans. Name the possible pathogen which produces this toxin?
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Aspergillus niger

A

A. Aspergillus flavus

79
Q

Fungi were originally classified as plants but were later classified separately. Which of the following characteristics of fungi separates them from plants?
A. They get the energy they need to live from other organisms
B. They have cell walls
C. They grow in soil
D. All of the above

A

A. They get the energy they need to live from other organisms

80
Q

What is the leading cause of viral encephalitis in Asia?
A. West Nile Virus
B. Seoul Encephalitis
C. Japanese B Encephalitis
D. Manila Encephalitis

A

C. Japanese B Encephalitis

81
Q

These viruses have petal-shaped surface projections in a fringe have caused dead epidemics:
A. Adenoviruses
B. Filoviruses
C. Coronaviruses
D. Orthomyxoviruses

A

C. Coronaviruses

82
Q

A 5-year old child was noted to have fever, redness of eyes and colds followed by maculopapular rashes starting from the head and spreading to the chest and limbs. The following statement/s is/are true about the disease:
A. The rash appears just as circulating antibodies become detectable
B. Infection confers lifelong immunity
C. Disease can be prevented by vaccination
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q

Viral envelopes are:
A. Lipid-containing membranes that surround all viruses
B. Acquired from the host cell during viral maturation
C. Made up of capsomeres
D. All of the above

A

B. Acquired from the host cell during viral maturation

84
Q

A structural component that is found in all viruses is:
A. Envelope
B. DNA
C. Capsid
D. Spikes

A

C. Capsid

85
Q

A young man consults at the OPD and is a little embarrassed to tell about his complaint. He states that he has a problem around his groin. Upon inspection, the physician finds a well demarcated and moist rash around his groin and the insides of both his legs. What might his problem be?
A. Tinea unguium
B. Tinea corporis
C. Bacterial folliculitis
D. Tinea cruris
E. None of the above

A

D. Tinea cruris

86
Q

Characteristic of fungi that makes it capable of growth as a yeast or mold depending on environmental conditions
A. Heterotrophic
B. Dimorphic
C. Chemotrophic
D. Decomposer

A

B. Dimorphic

87
Q

DNA viruses that produce wart-like lesions:
A. Poxviruses
B. Herpesviruses
C. Papillomaviruses
D. Flaviviruses

A

C. Papillomaviruses

88
Q

Bullet-shaped virus
A. Poxvirus
B. Bacteriophage
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Polyomavirus

A

C. Rhabdovirus

89
Q

Parvovirus infection causes:
A. Fulminant hepatitis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. Meningoencephalitis

A

C. Hydrops fetalis

90
Q

Barbie, a 24-year old actress, comes into your office to show you how her skin is changing. She is concerned about the red color on her chest. You recognize these hyperpigmented macules as a certain superficial mycosis. When illuminated by a wood lamp, it fluoresces bright yellow. What is the etiologic agent of her complaint?
A. Hortaea werneckii
B. Epidermophyton floccosum
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Piedraia hortae
E. None of the above

A

C. Malassezia furfur

91
Q

A mass of fungal elements is called:
A. Pseudohyphae
B. Mycelium
C. Hyphae
D. Septum
E. Yeast

A

B. Mycelium

92
Q

A filamentous fungal subunit is a:
A. Coenocyte
B. Hypha
C. Mycelium
D. Septum
E. Yeast

A

B. Hypha

93
Q

The following feature/s differentiate a fungal cell from human cell:
A. 80s ribosomes
B. Presence of an endoplasmic reticulum
C. Ergosterol as the major membrane sterol
D. Enzymes that allow them to use carbon dioxide as their sole carbon source
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

94
Q

This toxin is responsible for the generalized desquamation of the staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome:
A. TSST-1
B. Exfoliative toxins
C. Enterotoxins
D. Hemolysins

A

B. Exfoliative toxins

95
Q

A mother of a 4-year-old boy brought her son to the pediatrician due to skin lesions characterized as raised, fluid-filled which later become filled with pus, then become encrusted. These lesions continuously spread. Some of his playmates have these lesions too. This is a case of:
A. Furuncle
B. Carbuncle
C. Boil
D. Impetigo

A

D. Impetigo

96
Q

A 36-year-old engineer sustained a 2 cm dog bite on his right neck. Management of the patient includes:
A. Give RIG at 20 IU/kg IM at the site of the bite
B. Give 3 doses of killed rabies vaccine
C. Both
D. Neither

A

D. Neither

97
Q

Which of the following dermatomes is most commonly affected in herpes zoster?
A. Trigeminal dermatome
B. Thoracic dermatome
C. Ulnar dermatome
D. Lower-limb dermatome

A

B. Thoracic dermatome

98
Q

Aside from excessive sleepiness, a patient with Gambian sleeping sickness manifests with a delayed sensation to pain called:
a. Winterbottom’s sign
b. Kerandel’s sign
c. Romana’s sign
d. Chagoma

A

b. Kerandel’s sign

99
Q

This enzyme is carried by some RNA viruses and it produces a DNA copy of the RNA genome of the virus:
a. Neuraminidase
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Provirus
d. Hemagglutinin

A

b. Reverse transcriptase

100
Q

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) came to your clinic complaining of a patchy and confluent whitish pseudomembranous lesion on the tongue and palate. He claims to use an inhaler with steroid as his maintenance medicine. On examination of the lesion showed pseudohyphae and budding cells. What is the causative agent for this condition?
a. Cryptococcus
b. Candida
c. Aspergillus
d. Rhizopus
e. Pneumocystis

A

b. Candida

101
Q

The classic triad of Congenital Rubella Syndrome includes:
a. Hepatosplenomegaly
b. Deafness
c. Growth retardation
d. All of the above

A

b. Deafness

102
Q

The following statements are true about the human normal flora, EXCEPT:
a. The normal flora changes continuously throughout life.
b. Different regions of the skin support different flora.
c. The normal flora inhabit the skin and mucous membranes of healthy individuals
d. All of the above

A

a. The normal flora changes continuously throughout life.

103
Q

Anaerobic bacteria are characterized by the absence of the following metabolic system/s:
a. Catalase
b. Cytochrome systems
c. Superoxide dismutase
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

104
Q

A 30-year old policeman consulted due to a painless ulcer on the shaft of his penis. He admits to have had unprotected sexual contact with a girl he met in a bar. What could be the microorganism involved?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Chlamydophila trachomatis
c. Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Treponema pallidum

A

d. Treponema pallidum

105
Q

Standard test to diagnose COVID 19
a. Antigen test
b. Antibody test
c. RT-PCR test
d. Serology test

A

c. RT-PCR test

106
Q

This enteric bacteria presents with an iridescent “sheen” on differential media:
a. Salmonella sp.
b. Shigella sp.
c. Escherichia sp
d. Proteus sp.

A

c. Escherichia sp

107
Q

A 5-year old male child was admitted due to colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. Patient looked malnourished. Past medical history revealed sudden onset of wheezing 3 weeks ago. He has eosinophilia. 2 hours after admission, patient passed out a bolus of worms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Filariasis
b. Ascariasis
c. Enterobiasis
d. Strongyloidiasis

A

b. Ascariasis

108
Q

A receptor for the human immunodeficiency virus is
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8

A

c. CD4

109
Q

Streptococci are differentiated from the staphylococci when viewed microscopically following the gram stain procedure by:
a. Staphylococci are gram positive, while streptococci are gram negative
b. Staphylococci are gram positive and grow in grape-like clusters, while streptococci are also gram positive, but grow in chains
c. Staphylococci are gram positive cocci, while streptococci are gram positive bacilli
d. They cannot be differentiated microscopically.

A

b. Staphylococci are Gram positive and grow in grape-like clusters, while streptococci are also Gram positive, but grow in chains

110
Q

An abscess developed following abdominal surgery on an elderly woman. Abscess fluid plated on blood, nutrient and EMB agar grew no colonies. The specimen showed the presence of coccobacilli. Identical media produced colonies when incubated in candle jar. This microorganism is:
a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
b. Porphyromonas
c. Bacteroides fragilis
d. Actinomyces

A

c. Bacteroides fragilis

111
Q

Microbial colonization may result in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Prolonged carrier state
b. Elimination of the microorganism without affecting the host
c. Infection
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

112
Q

A 7-year old boy was brought to the emergency room due to profuse, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain and tenesmus. On physical examination, there is a non-reducible rectal prolapse. Which of the following would you expect to be seen on fecalysis?
a. Enterobius vermicularis egg
b. Trichuris trichiura egg
c. Necator americanus egg
d. Ascaris lumbricoides egg

A

a. Enterobius vermicularis egg

113
Q

Dark-field microscopy is used in visualizing which of the following organism?
a. Mycobacteria
b. Mycoplasma
c. Spirochetes
d. Legionella

A

c. Spirochetes

114
Q

All of the following bacteria have polysaccharide capsules that confer protection against phagocytosis, EXCEPT:
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

115
Q

This species of Plasmodium prefers senescent RBCs.
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale

A

c. Plasmodium malariae

116
Q

A 75-year old male develops diarrhea 5 days after starting antibiotic treatment for a serious staphylococcal infection. What is the most likely causative agent?
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Shigella sonnei

A

b. Clostridium difficile

117
Q

Mr. Romantico was diagnosed with UTI. Urinalysis showed a pH of 8 (alkaline urine). What typical organism is causing Mr. Romantico’s UTI?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Providencia sp.

A

c. Proteus vulgaris

118
Q

A 50-year old man complained of epigastric pain aggravated by food intake, accompanied by nausea and weight loss. You suspect gastric ulcer. The microorganism associated with the condition is:
a. Gram-positive spiral rod
b. Transmitted from person to person
c. Anaerobic
d. Characterized with peritrichous flagella

A

b. Transmitted from person to person

119
Q

Mrs. Miranda, 33 years old, experienced urinary frequency. She also complained of hypogastric pain. Urinalysis showed pyuria and hematuria. Her vital signs are stable. You did a biochemical test suggestive of Escherichia coli? What would you expect on TSI?
a. Non-lactose fermenter with gas formation
b. Lactose fermenter without gas formation
c. Lactose fermenter with gas formation
d. Non lactose fermenter without gas formation

A

c. Lactose fermenter with gas formation

120
Q

What is the main infectious pathology of blood flukes?
a. Direct invasion of the gastrointestinal mucosa
b. Hypersensitivity reaction to eggs deposited in the venous system
c. Mechanical obstruction due to high worm load
d. Gastric irritation due to deposited eggs
e. Direct invasion of the liver tissue

A

b. Hypersensitivity reaction to eggs deposited in the venous system

121
Q

The following associations of viruses with cancers are true, EXCEPT:
a. Epstein Barr virus - Infectious mononucleosis
b. Human Herpesvirus 6 - Kaposi sarcoma
c. Human T-lymphotropic virus-1 - leukemia
d. None of the above

A

b. Human Herpesvirus 6 - Kaposi sarcoma

122
Q

Mr. Yow, 55-year old, businessman, was admitted due to nonproductive cough, fever and difficulty of breathing. Pertinent in his history is a travel to attend a business forum in Singapore. He was diagnosed with Legionnaire’s disease. Which of the following risk factors would you ask from him?
a. Presence of diabetes mellitus
b. Smoking
c. Prolonged stay in a lake
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

123
Q

Your patient complains of an “itching rash” on her abdomen. On examination, you find that the lesions are red, circular, with a vesiculated border and a healing central area. You suspect tinea corporis. Of the following choices, the MOST appropriate laboratory procedure to make the diagnosis is a:
a. Potassium hydroxide mount of skin scrapings
b. Giemsa stain for multinucleated giant cells
c. Fluorescent antibody stain of the vesicle fluid
d. Fourfold rise in antibody titer against the organism

A

a. Potassium hydroxide mount of skin scrapings

124
Q

The following are extraintestinal species of amebas, EXCEPT:
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Acanthamoeba spp.
d. Entamoeba gingivalis

A

a. Entamoeba histolytica

125
Q

The largest tapeworm inhabiting the small intestines of human.
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Echinococcus granulosus

A

a. Diphyllobothrium latum

126
Q

A 50-year old woman who is an intravenous drug user and has been a commercial sex worker for the past 25 years has aortitis. She has no mucosal ulcerations or exanthems. Her VDRL test is negative and her FTA absorption test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Early primary syphilis
b. Lyme disease
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
e. Latent syphilis

A

d. Tertiary syphilis

127
Q

The gametocytes of Plasmodium falciparum presents as:
a. Oval-shaped
b. Round-shaped
c. Banana-shaped
d. Elongated

A

c. Banana-shaped

128
Q

Which of the following anti-TB medications has the potential to cause pyridoxine deficiency?*
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide

A

a. Isoniazid

129
Q

These itchy and irritating arthropods are associated with warm weather as this is needed for their development.
a. Sarcoptes scabiei
b. Phthirus pubis
c. Pulex irritans
d. Pediculus humanus capitis

A

d. Pediculus humanus capitis

130
Q

Bacteria are protected from phagocytosis by:
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Capsule
c. Lipoprotein
d. Peptidoglycan
e. Outer membrane

A

b. Capsule

131
Q

After a flood, several residents of a barangay manifested with profuse diarrhea with rice-water stools and dehydration. The preferred culture medium for the suspected microorganism is:
a. Blood agar
b. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile sucrose agar
c. Triple sugar agar
d. Thioglycolate medium

A

b. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile sucrose agar

132
Q

An individual is known to have chronic Hepatitis B disease. Which serological marker should be monitored to determine if the blood contains the infectious virus?
a. HBcAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBeAg
d. IgM HBc

A

c. HBeAg

133
Q

An 18-year-old sexually active woman develops left lower quadrant pain and fever. On physical examination, she has tenderness in the left adnexa, and a mass suggestive of a uterine tube abscess is palpated. The patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of the following bacteria is considered to be a common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Neisseria gonorrheae
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

b. Chlamydia trachomatis

134
Q

An 11 months-old infant was brought to the emergency room presenting with poor feeding, hypotonia and difficulty of breathing. Upon taking the history, the mother revealed that she used honey as a sweetener for her baby’s milk. What is the most likely causative agent?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Corynebacterium diphtheria
e. Clostridium botulinum

A

e. Clostridium botulinum

135
Q

In Gram staining, which of the following is used as a mordant?
a. Crystal violet
b. Iodine
c. Acetone
d. Safranin

A

b. Iodine

136
Q

These are large brick-shaped viruses that cause benign epidermal tumors and maculopapular to vesicular skin lesions:
a. Herpesviruses
b. Poxviruses
c. Papillomaviruses
d. Polyomaviruses

A

b. Poxviruses

137
Q

A 50-year-old man came for consultation due to clawing of the fourth and fifth digits with loss of distal parts of the digits of both hands, suggesting leprosy. The causative agent of this disease is:
a. Susceptible to INH and Rifampin
b. Grows in cooler areas of the body
c. Diagnosed through direct microscopy of skin scrapings or earlobe biopsy
d. Dapsone is first line therapy
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

138
Q

A five-year old child develops acute glomerulonephritis following impetigo. The causative bacterium is catalase-negative, Gram-positive coccus that has M12 surface protein. The most likely causative agent is:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

d. Streptococcus pyogenes

139
Q

A 22-year-old male, salesman, came to the ER complaining with undocumented fever, headache, stiff neck and vomiting that started about 2 days prior to consult. On physical examination, patient appeared to be awake but irritable, with nuchal rigidity and (+) Kernig’s sign. What diagnostic work-ups will you request to support your diagnosis?
a. Lumbar puncture
b. Complete blood count
c. Blood culture
d. Cranial CT scan
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

140
Q

An 8-year old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic due to fever and sore throat for the past 2 days. He has ulcerative lesions in his mouth, vesicular lesions on his left hand and right foot. The most probable cause of his disease is:
a. Coxsackie A virus
b. Human herpesvirus 6
c. Human papilloma virus
d. Human immunodeficiency virus

A

a. Coxsackie A virus

141
Q

A 48-year old farmer was brought to the hospital due to yellowish discoloration of the sclerae. He had a history of fever and headache 1 week prior to consultation. Physical exam showed jaundice, subconjunctival suffusion and small wounds on his lower extremities. The following statement/s is/are true about the disease:
a. During the febrile illness, the etiologic agent is present in the bloodstream
b. Human infection is only accidental
c. Disease may be treated with doxycycline and penicillin
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

142
Q

A patient presents with acute diarrhea. Fecal smear revealed a ciliated protozoan. Which of the following is the infective agent?
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Escherichia coli
d. Balantidium coli

A

d. Balantidium coli

143
Q

Which of the following trematodes have been implicated to cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Clonorchis sinensis
c. Fasciola hepatica
d. Schistosoma haematobium

A

d. Schistosoma haematobium

144
Q

This lesion is described as unilateral, painless, bipalpebral edema with conjunctivitis caused by Trypanosoma cruzi:
a. Chagoma
b. Romana’s sign
c. Raccoon’s eye
d. Papilledema

A

b. Romana’s sign

145
Q

The extraintestinal amebiasis that is characterized by an abscess that contains thick chocolate brown pus (anchovy pus)
a. Pulmonary amebiasis
b. Hepatic amebiasis
c. Cutaneous amebiasis
d. Genitourinary amebiasis

A

b. Hepatic amebiasis

146
Q

A female sex worker developed purulent vaginal discharge but failed to seek medical treatment. Later, she developed papules and pustules on her hands, forearms and legs. She sought consult when she had painful swelling of her wrists. What is the most probable diagnosis of the joint swelling?
a. Gouty arthritis
b. TB synovitis
c. Gonococcal arthritis
d. Osteoarthritis

A

c. Gonococcal arthritis

147
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is characterized by high grade fever, diffuse red rash that later desquamates, abdominal cramps and diarrhea, shock and multi-organ failure in women who use tampon during their menstrual period. Which of the following explains the clinical manifestations of this illness?
a. Hemolysis
b. Antigen-antibody reaction
c. Cytokine release
d. Tissue necrosis

A

c. Cytokine release

148
Q

To treat a patient with a life-threatening fungal infection, you choose an antifungal drug that causes pore formation in the fungal membrane and actually kills the cells. Which drug would this be?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Griseofulvin
c. Ketoconazole
d. Nystatin

A

a. Amphotericin B

149
Q

The following statements are true of HIV, EXCEPT:
a. It may take months for disease to develop. Infected hosts usually make antibodies, but they do not clear the infection, so virus persists lifelong.
b. New antigenic variants periodically arise in infected hosts, with most mutations occurring in envelope glycoproteins.
c. Clinical symptoms may develop at any time from 3 months to many years after infection.
d. The exceptions to long incubation periods for lentivirus disease include AIDS in children, infectious anemia in horses, and encephalitis in young goats

A

b. New antigenic variants periodically arise in infected hosts, with most mutations occurring in envelope glycoproteins.

150
Q

A 29-year old male with a history of wading in flood waters in Sta. Cruz, Ilocos Sur during typhoon Maring, presented with fever, jaundice and oliguria. The drug of choice for the etiologic agent is:
a. Levofloxacin
b. Penicillin G
c. Amikacin
d. Gentamycin

A

b. Penicillin G

151
Q

The following are soil-transmitted helminths, EXCEPT:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Trichuris trichiura

A

c. Enterobius vermicularis

152
Q

A 36-year old male presented with an infected foot from stepping on a nail 2 days ago. The nail penetrated through the sole of his tennis shoe. He sprayed some antiseptic but did not seek medical help because he has his last tetanus booster about a year ago and he thought that would take care of the wound. The foot appeared inflamed around the wound with a little blue-green pus on the bandage. The organism isolated is an oxidase-positive Gram negative rod which does not ferment any carbohydrates. The organism is most likely:
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Escherichia coli
d. Proteus vulgaris

A

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

153
Q

There is an outbreak of watery diarrhea in 6 members of a party of 20 who ate at a Chinese restaurant the day before. Fried rice is implicated. What is the most likely causative agent?
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Rotavirus
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Staphylococcus aureus

A

a. Bacillus cereus

154
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is associated with papillomavirus
a. Type 16
b. Type 6
c. Type 11
d. All of the above

A

a. Type 16

155
Q

The characteristic/s of prokaryotic cells include/s:
a. Cell membranes contain peptidoglycan
b. Absence of nuclear envelopes
c. Presence of 80s ribosomes
d. All of the above

A

b. Absence of nuclear envelopes

156
Q

Your patient is a 1-month-old infant with whitish lesions in the mouth that are diagnosed as oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush). Which one of the following is the best choice of drug to treat this infection?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Caspofungin
c. Fluconazole
d. Flucytosine

A

c. Fluconazole

157
Q

Cytokine storm in COVID 19 is caused predominantly by what proinflammatory cells?*
a. IL8
b. TNFa
c. IL10
d. IL6

A

d. IL6

158
Q

The method of choice for specimen collection for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis is:
a. Tissue biopsy
b. Direct fecal smear
c. Scotch tape swab
d. Enzyme immunoassay

A

c. Scotch tape swab

159
Q

Humoral immunity is a type of adaptive immunity that results in the circulation of which of the following throughout the blood?
a. Antigens
b. Macrophages
c. Natural killer cells
d. Antibodies

A

d. Antibodies

160
Q

The following viruses are sexually transmitted:
a. Human immunodeficiency virus
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Herpes simplex virus 1
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

161
Q

The following are opportunistic fungi, EXCEPT:
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Candida albicans
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

162
Q

Vaccines are available against the most common high-risk human papilloma virus types that cause genital infections. Which population are they aimed at?
a. All female adults
b. All adult men and women
c. Women with pre-cancerous cervical lesions
d. All adolescents and young adults, both boys and girls

A

d. All adolescents and young adults, both boys and girls

163
Q

An 9-year old boy presented with sore throat and low grade fever. On physical examination, there is a grayish “pseudomembrane” over both tonsillar pillars and there is a “bull neck” appearance due to enlarged lymph nodes. Which of the following describes the causative agent?
a. Beta hemolytic, gram-positive cocci that occurs in chains and is catalase positive
b. Short, gram-positive, non–spore forming, catalase positive rod with characteristic tumbling-end-over-end motility
c. A large, aerobic, gram-positive rod that occurs in chains
d. Club-shaped gram-positive, non-spore forming rod
e. Large gram-positive anaerobic rods that form a double zone of Beta hemolysis around colonies

A

d. Club-shaped gram-positive, non-spore forming rod

164
Q

Bioterrorism agents are microorganisms or toxins that could be used to produce death and disease in humans, animals or plants. They are genetically modified to increase virulence, make them resistant to vaccines or enhance their ability to be disseminated in the environment. The following agents have the highest potential for bioterrorism, EXCEPT:
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Poxviruses
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Franciscella tularensis
e. Escherichia coli

A

b. Poxviruses

165
Q

Julio, 35 years old male, residing in Mexico, comes to the hospital with an ulcerative lesion on his left thumb for 2 weeks. He got a cut while taking care of the plants in his garden. On the first week, the lesion did not grow or spread; but on the second week, it spread to the forearm and was more painful. The sample from the infected site was cultured for fungal examination, a cream-colored colony appeared within 3 days. The colony growth appeared brown after a few days and changed to black and fuzzy in appearance after a week of incubation. Which of the following is the likely pathogen?
a. Epidermophyton flocussum
b. Tinea versicolor
c. Sporothrix schenckii
d. Basidiobolus ranarum

A

c. Sporothrix schenckii

166
Q

All of the following cause zoonotic infections, EXCEPT:
a. Francisella tularensis
b. Leptospira interrogans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Bacillus anthracis

A

c. Bordetella pertussis

167
Q

A 23-year old medical student consulted due to fever, muscle pains and headache for 2 days and epigastric pain today. She lives near a creek. At the clinic, she is febrile (39.5C) with generalized rash that blanches under pressure. Her complete blood count showed leukopenia, lymphocytosis and a platelet count of 73,000/microliter. The most likely etiologic agent is:
a. Parvovirus
b. Yellow fever virus
c. Dengue virus
d. Cytomegalovirus

A

c. Dengue virus

168
Q

This tapeworm is equipped with four suckers and a cone-shaped armed rostellum and its eggs form membrane-enclosed packets of 5-20 eggs:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia saginata
e. Hymenolepis nana

A

b. Dipylidium caninum

169
Q

Which antibody titers indicate recent or recurrent streptococcal infection and are found more often in rheumatic individuals:
a. Anti-streptolysin O
b. Anti-hyaluronidase
c. Anti-DNAse B
d. Anti-M protein
e. VDRL

A

a. Anti-streptolysin O

170
Q

An 18-year old woman complains of painful urination. The microorganism involved is most likely:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Proteus mirabilis

A

b. Escherichia coli

171
Q

This virus causes a sexually transmitted disease with no genital signs and symptoms:
a. Parvovirus B19
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. Human T-lymphotropic virus -1

A

c. Hepatitis B virus

172
Q

A 54-year old man develops pyogenic infection along the suture line after knee surgery. The laboratory released a preliminary report of a beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive, Gram-positive coccus. The most likely causative agent is
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

b. Staphylococcus aureus

173
Q

Tetanus toxin diffuses to terminals of inhibitory cells in the spinal cord and brainstem and blocks:
a. Release of acetylcholine
b. Cleavage of SNARE proteins
c. Release of inhibitory glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid
d. Release of protective antigen

A

c. Release of inhibitory glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid

174
Q

Mycobacteria can be diagnosed by the following staining procedure/s:
a. Auramine-rhodamine fluorochrome stain
b. Kinyoun stain
c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

175
Q

The key test that separates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococci is:
a. Susceptibility to novobiocin
b. Catalase test
c. Coagulase test
d. Urease test

A

c. Coagulase test

176
Q

Viral carcinogenesis involve the following, EXCEPT:
a. Suppression of the negative regulators of cell growth-the tumor suppressor genes
b. Activation of the cellular oncogenes
c. Short term viral infections in humans
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

177
Q

A 10-year old girl, fond of eating street foods, had tea colored urine followed by fever >38oC, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and jaundice. Her mother is an anti-vaxxer, hence the patient did not receive any vaccine. What is the possible diagnosis?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis E

A

b. Hepatitis A

178
Q

The peptidoglycan layer is composed of:
a. N-acetylglucosamine
b. Tetrapeptide side chains
c. Peptide crossbridges
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

179
Q

This is a one-way transfer of genetic material (usually plasmids) from donor to recipient by means of physical contact.
a. Conjugation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Binary fission

A

a. Conjugation

180
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid from a 2-week-old infant with meningitis shows rods with tumbling motility. These bacteria are found to be Gram-positive and do not form spores. What is the most likely etiologic agent?
a. Actinomyces
b. Bacillus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Listeria

A

d. Listeria

181
Q

An organism produces double-hemolysis on egg yolk agar. This is due to what toxin?
a. Alpha toxin
b. Beta toxin
c. Exotoxin A
d. Hyaluronidase

A

a. Alpha toxin

182
Q

A positive tuberculin test implies:
a. Immunity to the disease
b. Active disease
c. Infection in the past
d. Absence of primary infection

A

c. Infection in the past

183
Q

An 80-year old male consulted due to chronic cough, with brownish phlegm. He complained of a 5-kg weight loss in the past 2 months. Chest xray revealed reactivation tuberculosis. A Mycobacterium tuberculosis testing and susceptibilities was ordered and he was started on standard anti-Koch therapy. RT-PCR confirmed Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is the standard culture medium to be used?
a. Blood agar
b. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
e. Tellurite-containing medium

A

d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium

184
Q

A 15-year old girl developed fever, malaise, migratory joint pains and swollen joints. She was diagnosed with carditis. What in the patient’s history should be asked in relation to the patient’s signs and symptoms? History of _______
a. Skin infections when she was 3-5 years old
b. Difficult and frequent urination
c. Pneumonia in the past 3-5 months
d. Pharyngitis in the past 1-4 weeks

A

d. Pharyngitis in the past 1-4 weeks

185
Q

High titers of HIV are found in two body fluids:
a. Blood and breast milk
b. Saliva and breast milk
c. Blood and semen
d. Gastric juice and sweat

A

c. Blood and semen

186
Q

The GeneXpert MTB/RIF test:
a. Identifies the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex
b. Detects genes that encode rifampicin resistance
c. Uses RT-PCR
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

187
Q

A 40-year old woman consulted at a private clinic due to burning sensation on urination and urinary frequency. She claims that her urine smells like ammonia. The cause of her urinary tract infection is most likely:
a. Escherichia coli
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Proteus mirabilis

A

d. Proteus mirabilis

188
Q

Erythematous scaling lesion in intertriginous area with pruritus:
a. Tinea capitis
b. Tinea barbae
c. Tinea corporis
d. Tinea pedis

A

c. Tinea corporis

Revalida (11 decks)

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