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NBSTSA Review > SURGCOM7 > Flashcards

SURGCOM7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree?

A) alveoli

B) bronchi

C) bronchioles

D) lobes of the lung

A

A) alveoli

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2
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT?

A) Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.

B) Hair removal should be performed as close to the time of the procedure as possible.

C) Hair removal is dependent upon surgeon’s preference, patient factors, and surgical site.

D) Hair removal using a razor can result in microabrasions and increased microbial count.

A

A) Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.

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3
Q

Decompression of the portal circulation can be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT

A) splenorenal shunt

B) portocaval anastomosis

C) arteriovenous shunt

D) mesocaval shunt

A

C) arteriovenous shunt

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4
Q

Removal of plaque during a carotid endarterectomy requires

A) Cobb elevator

B) Hurd dissector

C) Freer elevator

D) None of the above

A

C) Freer elevator

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5
Q

Right- angled pedicle clamps would be found on a setup for

A) splenectomy

B) cholecystectomy

C) hemorroidectomy

D) thyroidectomy

A

A) splenectomy

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6
Q

Diagnostic procedure that permits visualization of the great vessels:

A) Bronchoscopy

B) Mediastinoscopy

C) Thoracoscopy

D) Pleuroscopy

A

B) Mediastinoscopy

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7
Q

Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries are called:

A) Lipodeposits

B) arterial induction

C) Atherosclerosis

D) Vasodilation

A

C) Atherosclerosis

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8
Q

A Sauerbruch is a/ an

A) elevator

B) raspatory

C) retractor

D) rongeur

A

D) rongeur

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9
Q

Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm?

A) accessory

B) hypoglossal

C) phrenic

D) vagus

A

C) phrenic

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10
Q

What are vessel loops and umbilical tapes commonly used for in vascular cases?

A) anastomosis

B) ligation

C) retraction

D) suturing

A

C) retraction

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11
Q

A Hurd dissector and pillar retractor is used for

A) appendectomy

B) plastic surgery

C) nasal surgery

D) tonsillectomy

A

D) tonsillectomy

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12
Q

The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural structures are called:

A) Cottonoids

B) Kitners

C) laps

D) Ray-Tecs

A

A) Cottonoids

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13
Q

Outpouching of the alveolar sac which leads to subsequent rupture resulting in a pneumothorax is called a/an:

A) aneurysm

B) bleb

C) atelactasis

D) arteriovenous fistula

A

B) bleb

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14
Q

The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is

A) IAPB

B) VADs

C) Pacemaker

D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B

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15
Q

Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time?

A) femoral

B) iliac

C) popliteal

D) radial

A

B) iliac

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16
Q

The instrument commonly used to remove plaque from the carotid during an endarterectomy is a/an:

A) Pituitary rongeur

B) Allis forceps

C) Freer elevator

D) Curette

A

C) Freer elevator

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17
Q

Which vessels are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and metabolic waste?

A) arteries

B) capillaries

C) venules

D) veins

A

B) capillaries

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18
Q

A thymectomy is commonly performed for malignant tumors and

A) myasthenia gravis

B) graves disease

C) muscular dystrophy

D) pneumothorax

A

A) myasthenia gravis

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19
Q

Which vessels are harvested for a coronary artery bypass?

A) Pulmonary vein and external mammary vein

B) Portal vein and hepatic artery

C) Saphenous vein and internal mammary artery

D) Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein

A

C) Saphenous vein and internal mammary artery

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20
Q

A Sarot is

A) bronchus clamp

B) scapula retractor

C) lung retractor

D) lung grasping clamp

A

A) bronchus clamp

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21
Q

Surgical removal of fibrinous deposits on the visceral and parietal pleura is called

A) posteriolateral thoracoplasty

B) talc poudrage

C) decortication of the lung

D) anterior thoracoplasty

A

C) decortication of the lung

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22
Q

Hypothermia is employed in cardiac surgery

A) to reduce oxygen consumption

B) to reduce elevated temperature

C) to slow metabolism

D) to induce ventricular fibrillation

A

A) to reduce oxygen consumption

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23
Q

Permission for turning the anesthetized patient from dorsal recumbent to a prone position must be obtained from the

A) surgeon

B) anesthesia provider

C) OR supervisor

D) circulator

A

B) anesthesia provider

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24
Q

Kerrison refers to a(n)

A) elevator

B) retractor

C) rongeur

D) rasp

A

C) rongeur

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25
Q

What would be the likely result of positioning the patient’s arms on armboards at a greater than 90° angle from the torso?

A) brachial plexus hyperextension

B) foot drop

C) hamstring strain

D) restriction of respiratory freedom

A

A) brachial plexus hyperextension

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26
Q

A kidney pedicle clamp is a

A) Lincoln

B) Herrick

C) Love

D) Little

A

B) Herrick

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27
Q

In which surgery would a closed drainage system be used?

A) Thoroscopic lung biopsy

B) Open thorocotomy

C) Lung volume reduction surgery

D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

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28
Q

During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):

A) move items only once if possible

B) position back table close to door

C) place as many instruments on Mayo stand as possible

D) request that circulating RN open all supplies for case after ST is gowned and gloved

A

A) move items only once if possible

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29
Q

Removal of atherosclerotic plaque from a major artery is termed

A) embolectomy

B) aneurysmectomy

C) endarterectomy

D) thrombectomy

A

C) endarterectomy

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30
Q

The procedure which may require the temporary use of an intraoperative bypass shunt is a/an:

A) Femoral-Popliteal Bypass Graft

B) Abdominal Aortic Aneurysmectomy

C) Carotid Endarterectomy

D) Aortic-Artery Bypass Graft

A

C) Carotid Endarterectomy

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31
Q

How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach?

A) 1–2 mm

B) 3–5 mm

C) 1–2 cm

D) 3–5 cm

A

C) 1–2 cm

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32
Q

Blunt nerve hooks are selected for a ________ setup.

A) vagotomy

B) colostomy

C) gastrojejunostomy

D) abdominal-perineal resection

A

A) vagotomy

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33
Q

Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and nonmagnetizing?

A) chromium

B) stainless steel

C) titanium

D) tungsten carbide

A

C) titanium

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34
Q

The term in situ graft represents the use of a/an

A) autograft

B) biograft

C) dacron graft

D) filamentous velour

A

A) autograft

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35
Q

What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?

A) bioburden

B) flora

C) fomites

D) biologicals

A

B) flora

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36
Q

The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:

A) location of the incision or wound

B) type and amount of drainage expected

C) ambulatory status of the patient post-op

D) condition of the incision/wound upon closure

A

C) ambulatory status of the patient post-op

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37
Q

Which setup would include distraction and compression compenents?

A) Harrington rods

B) Intrameduallary nail

C) Arthrodesis

D) Tibial shaft fracture

A

A) Harrington rods

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38
Q

Tissue expanders are used in

A) augmentation mammoplasty

B) reduction for gynecomastia

C) transrectus myocutaneous flap

D) breast reconstruction

A

D) breast reconstruction

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39
Q

How many ribs are considered “true” ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage?

A) three

B) seven

C) nine

D) twelve

A

B) seven

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40
Q

The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called the:

A) articulation

B) box lock

C) jaw

D) ratchets

A

B) box lock

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41
Q

What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the finger rings?

A) jaws

B) ratchets

C) shanks

D) tips

A

C) shanks

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42
Q

A Ballenger swivel knife is used in surgery of the

A) nose

B) ear

C) bladder

D) eye

A

A) nose

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43
Q

Patient identification is best made by:

A) comparing the name on the bed with the name on the OR schedule

B) asking the nurse to identify the patient

C) comparing the name on the patient’s identification band with the name on the OR schedule

D) asking the patient if he is Mr. Jones

A

C) comparing the name on the patient’s identification band with the name on the OR schedule

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44
Q

The reason for the 90* limit for extension of the patient’s arms on a padded armboard is;

A) avoiding injury to the ulnar nerve

B) avoiding injury to the brachial plexus

C) avoiding injury to the peroneal nerve

D) avoid injury to the sciatic nerve

A

B) avoiding injury to the brachial plexus

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45
Q

Which part of the artery is responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation?

A) tunica adventitia

B) tunica intima

C) tunica media

D) vasa vasorum

A

C) tunica media

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46
Q

A low-molecular-weight protein that, when combined with heparin, causes a loss of anticoagulant activity postoperatively is

A) papaverine

B) protamine sulfate

C) tromethamine

D) Angiovist

A

B) protamine sulfate

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47
Q

Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior?

A) bronchus

B) diaphragm

C) larynx

D) trachea

A

C) larynx

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48
Q

The most frequent conditions requiring the use of a permanent pacemaker are

A) coronary or mitral insufficiency

B) pulmonary artery or vein stenosis

C) heart block, bradyarrhythmia

D) pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect

A

C) heart block, bradyarrhythmia

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49
Q

In orthopedic surgery, the veiwing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as

A) image intensification

B) radiography

C) portable filming

D) x-ray

A

A) image intensification

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50
Q

A Hurd dissector and pillar retractor is used for

A) appendectomy

B) plastic Surgery

C) nasal surgery

D) tonsillectomy

A

D) tonsillectomy

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51
Q

Which of the following statements about lateral kidney positioning is INCORRECT?

A) The lower leg is flexed, the upper leg is straight, and a pillow is between them.

B) The lower leg is straight and the upper leg is flexed, with a pillow under the lower leg.

C) A small roll is placed under the nonoperative side axillary area to facilitate respiration.

D) The patient’s flank is positioned over the kidney lift to provide greater exposure of the operative area.

A

B) The lower leg is straight and the upper leg is flexed, with a pillow under the lower leg.

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52
Q

The most commonly used incision for surgical procedures of the heart is

A) right lateral

B) left lateral

C) anterior thoracotomy

D) median sternotomy

A

D) median sternotomy

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53
Q

A Wilson frame may be used on which of the following surgeries.

A) Hepatic Resection

B) LAVH

C) Craniotomy

D) Lumbar Laminectomy

A

D) Lumbar Laminectomy

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54
Q

A precipitous drop in the patients blood or fluid volume is

A) hypovolemia

B) hypervolemia

C) hypertension

D) ischemia

A

A) hypovolemia

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55
Q

Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin’s solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing?

A) bolster

B) perineal

C) pressure

D) wet-to-dry

A

D) wet-to-dry

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56
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?

A) hypothermia

B) lung deflation

C) left ventricular venting

D) warming with heat exchanger

A

A) hypothermia

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57
Q

All of the following are sutures used in Cardiothoracic surgery to suture vessels or vascular grafts, except:

A) polytetraflouroethylene (PTFE or Gore-Tex)

B) Polypropylene (Prolene)

C) Polyester (Dacron)

D) Surgical Gut (Chromic)

A

D) Surgical Gut (Chromic)

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58
Q

The CORRECT sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is:

A) #15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter

B) #10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter

C) #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter

D) #12 blade, 14 g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter

A

C) #11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, small bore suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter

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59
Q

Traction applied directly on bone via pins, wires, or tongs is

A) internal

B) closed

C) skeletal

D) counter pressure

A

C) skeletal

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60
Q

Which of the following are NOT considered countable items for potential of retained foreign objects?

A) dressings

B) instruments

C) sharps

D) sponges

A

A) dressings

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61
Q

During a preoperative visit, the anesthesia provider assigned an ASA classification of V to the oatient. That means that:

A) the patient is a very poor risk for surgery

B) the patient is in the best health for surgery

C) the patient will be unable to pay for surgery

D) the patient is a minor

A

A) the patient is a very poor risk for surgery

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62
Q

Cloward instrumentation would be included for surgery of the

A) hip

B) femur

C) cervical spine

D) lumbar spine

A

C) cervical spine

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63
Q

Blood enters the heart through the ____________ and the ___________, emptying oxygen _________ blood into the _________________

A) Coronary Arteries, pulmonary veins, rich, left ventricle

B) Inferior, Superior vana cava, poor, right atrium

C) Aorta, coronary arteries, poor, left atrium

D) Inferior, Superior Vena Cava, poor, left atrium

A

B) Inferior, Superior vana cava, poor, right atrium

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64
Q

Which term describes the condition of a surgical technologist’s skin following skin prep?

A) debrided

B) medically clean

C) surgically clean

D) sterile

A

C) surgically clean

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65
Q

Dextran is used parenterally to

A) expand blood plasma volume

B) renourish vital tissue

C) carry oxygen through the system

D) decrease blood viscosity

A

A) expand blood plasma volume

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66
Q

All of the following are required for repair of a nasal fracture EXCEPT a(n)

A) bayonet forceps

B) Ballenger swivel knife

C) splint

D) Asch forceps

A

B) Ballenger swivel knife

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67
Q

Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity?

A) Dacron

B) Gore-Tex

C) PTFE

D) saphenous vein

A

D) saphenous vein

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68
Q

What is the proper way to open a small, sterilely wrapped item for delivery to the sterile field?

A) First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

B) First flap is pulled and opened toward self, the side flaps are pulled open, and the last flap is pulled and opened away from self; then item is tossed onto field.

C) Right flap is pulled and tucked into palm, left flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened toward self, and the bottom flap is opened away from self and secured before tossing onto field.

D) Left flap is pulled and tucked into palm, right flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked, and bottom flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

A

A) First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

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69
Q

Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of :

A) rheumatic fever

B) tuberculosis

C) heart block

D) angina

A

A) rheumatic fever

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70
Q

Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts fall?

A) bulky

B) one-layer

C) pressure

D) rigid

A

D) rigid

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71
Q

A Doyen is a

A) rib shears

B) rib cutter

C) rib spreader

D) rib raspatory

A

D) rib raspatory

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72
Q

What intraoperative test determines the needed reversal or addition of heparin?

A) Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

B) Activated clotting time (ACT)

C) Activated partial thromboplastin time(APPT)

D) None of the above

A

B) Activated clotting time (ACT)

73
Q

Traction applied directly on bone via pins, wires, or tongs is

A) internal

B) closed

C) skeletal

D) counter pressure

A

C) skeletal

74
Q

Which procedure is the removal of the entire lung?

A) Segmentectomy

B) Lobectomy

C) Pneumonectomy

D) Wedge

A

C) Pneumonectomy

75
Q

What is the treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities?

A) Permacath

B) Greenfield filter

C) Vas-cath

D) Porto-cath

A

B) Greenfield filter

76
Q

Which suction tip is meant to be used during abdominal surgery?

A) Poole

B) Yankauer

C) Frasier

D) Tonsil

A

A) Poole

77
Q

The procedure that is performed for dialysis that produces a direct anastamosis between an artery and a vein is

A) gortex graft insertion

B) AV shunt

C) endarterectomy

D) AV fistula

A

D) AV fistula

78
Q

Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?

A) Count packages, leaving paper bands around and intact to prevent mixing of sponges before use.

B) Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.

C) Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with RN.

D) Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.

A

C) Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with RN.

79
Q

A _______ is a mouth gag.

A) Burlisher

B) Blair

C) Dingman

D) Forman

A

C) Dingman

80
Q

A patient is scheduled for a Radical Nephrectomy and will be placed in the lateral position. How many people will be needed to position the patient?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

A

C) 4

81
Q

What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?

A) aerobic culture tube

B) insufflation tubing

C) myringotomy tube

D) Lukens tube

A

D) Lukens tube

82
Q

Where is the safety belt or strap placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table?

A) 2 inches proximal to the ankles

B) 2 inches distal to the knees

C) 2 inches proximal to the knees

D) 2 inches distal to the perineal region

A

C) 2 inches proximal to the knees

83
Q

What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item?

A) radiofrequency

B) radiographic

C) radiolucent

D) radiopaque

A

D) radiopaque

84
Q

The prime consideration in a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy is

A) shunting blood flow

B) hemorrhage control

C) bypassing occlusion

D) removal of thromboembolic material

A

B) hemorrhage control

85
Q

How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?

A) They cannot be used at all.

B) They should be opened to full length.

C) They should have rings attached to them.

D) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge sticks.”

A

D) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge sticks.”

86
Q

Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?

A) supine

B) prone

C) frog-legged

D) posterolateral

A

D) posterolateral

87
Q

What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile surgical drapes?

A) circle

B) rectangle

C) square

D) triangle

A

C) square

88
Q

What is the thickest part of the heart?

A) epicardium

B) endocardium

C) myocardium

D) pericardium

A

C) myocardium

89
Q

During surgery, towel clips

A) may be removed only by the circulator

B) may not be removed once fastened

C) may be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen

D) may be removed and discarded from the field

A

C) may be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen

90
Q

In which procedural set up would a T-tube be found?

A) Exploration of the common bile duct

B) Cholecystectomy

C) Cholelithotripsy

D) Choledochoscopy

A

A) Exploration of the common bile duct

91
Q

Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?

A) It is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity.

B) It is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side.

C) It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.

D) It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right side.

A

C) It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.

92
Q

What precautions should be taken when dealing with a patient with diabetes?

A) The room should be heated to prevent hypothermia

B) Nutritional supplements should be given pre-operatively

C) Antiembolic stockings may be used postoperatively to aid in circulation

D) Diabetes patients are prone to respiratory obstructions

A

C) Antiembolic stockings may be used postoperatively to aid in circulation

93
Q

Which of the following procedures is/are performed under flouroscopic (C-ARM) control?

A) endarterectomy

B) cardiac pacemaker insertion

C) vena cava filtering device placement

D) both B and C

A

D) both B and C

94
Q

Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?

A) catheters

B) shunts

C) guidewires

D) peel-away sheaths

A

B) shunts

95
Q

Compression of the subclavian vessels and the brachial plexus usually caused by the first rib is surgically known as

A) cervical sympathectomy

B) thoracic outlet syndrome

C) thoracic sympathectomy

D) decortication

A

B) thoracic outlet syndrome

96
Q

What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients?

A) Dacron patch

B) porcine valve

C) fascia lata

D) fibrin glue

A

A) Dacron patch

97
Q

When performing an arteriotomy, the surgeon will require a #11 blade and

A) Potts Smith scissor

B) Metzenbaum

C) Lahey

D) Stevens

A

A) Potts Smith scissor

98
Q

The surgery scheduled as “Greenfield filter insertion” indicates a diagnosis of

A) emboli formation

B) venous stasis

C) arteriovascular occlusion

D) Kidney failure

A

A) emboli formation

99
Q

Lacrimal probes are

A) Bakes

B) Bowman

C) Van Buren

D) Hegar

A

B) Bowman

100
Q

All of the following instruments can be found on a nasal setup EXCEPT

A) freer elevator

B) bayonet forceps

C) Potts forceps

D) Frazier suction tube

A

C) Potts forceps

101
Q

A procedure performed in patients with empyema is called

A) Thoracoplasty

B) Sympathectomy

C) Pulmonary decortication

D) Pericardial window

A

C) Pulmonary decortication

102
Q

In which procedural setup would a T-tube be found?

A) exploration of the common bile duct

B) cholecystectomy

C) cholelithotripsy

D) choledochoscopy

A

A) exploration of the common bile duct

103
Q

A stefee plate is a

A) shoulder replacement

B) knee joint replacement

C) femoral replacement

D) spinal implant

A

D) spinal implant

104
Q

Which instrument is a retractor?

A) Harrington

B) Doyen

C) Crile

D) Allen

A

A) Harrington

105
Q

A Babcock is used to

A) grasp bone

B) grasp delicate structures

C) clamp vessels

D) retract soft tissue

A

B) grasp delicate structures

106
Q

An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?

A) circumferential extremity

B) midline vertical abdominal

C) two-step prep with scrub and paint

D) vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position

A

A) circumferential extremity

107
Q

Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?

A) pneumonectomy

B) upper lobectomy

C) decortication of the lung

D) pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

A

D) pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

108
Q

What is the preferred solution used for bronchial washings?

A) Sterile water

B) Sterile saline

C) Heparanized saline

D) Ringers lactate

A

B) Sterile saline

109
Q

Which setup would include a Gomco clamp?

A) Colostomy

B) Breast augmentation

C) Circumcision

D) Femoral popliteal bypass

A

C) Circumcision

110
Q

What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter?

A) Robinson

B) Groshong

C) Fogarty

D) Foley

A

C) Fogarty

111
Q

Conservative treatment of occlusive disease involving recanalization to restore the lumen of a vessel is called

A) PTFE

B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty(PTA)

C) Greenfield filter

D) endarterectomy

A

B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty(PTA)

112
Q

The patient is scheduled for a LAVH. How will they be positioned?

A) Lithotomy

B) Trendelburg

C) Dorsal Recumbent

D) Prone

A

A) Lithotomy

113
Q

During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:

A) 8 –10 mm Hg

B) 10–12 mm Hg

C) 12–15 mm Hg

D) 15–20 mm Hg

A

C) 12–15 mm Hg

114
Q

Which of the following describes the configuration of a Mayo stand cover?

A) flat

B) rigid

C) cylindrical

D) wraparound

A

C) cylindrical

115
Q

What is the purpose of a radiofrequency tracking system in the operating room?

A) Aid in chargeable items being input into system.

B) Assist CSPD personnel in locating instrument trays.

C) Prevent potential for patient misidentification.

D) Reduce possibility of retained foreign objects.

A

D) Reduce possibility of retained foreign objects.

116
Q

When performing a thorocotomy, the wound edges are covered to protect them from bruising with what?

A) Nothing is used, to prevent loosing something

B) Moist lap pads or towels

C) To and Fros

D) 4 x 4s

A

B) Moist lap pads or towels

117
Q

A neuro headrest skull clamp is called a(n)

A) Sachs

B) Frazier

C) Adson

D) Mayfield

A

D) Mayfield

118
Q

The instrument commonly used to clamp the aorta during an abdominal aneurysmectomy is a/an

A) Satinsky

B) DeBakey

C) Glover

D) Cooley

A

A) Satinsky

119
Q

A Scoville retractor is used in a

A) total knee replacement

B) meniscectomy

C) laminectomy

D) carpel tunnel release

A

C) laminectomy

120
Q

A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis would undergo which procedure?

A) embolectomy

B) endarterectomy

C) arteriovenous fistula and shunt

D) inferior vena cava filter placement

A

C) arteriovenous fistula and shunt

121
Q

What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient?

A) coarctation

B) stenosis

C) prolapsed

D) arteriosis

A

A) coarctation

122
Q

Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepackaged in units of five?

A) Cottonoids

B) dissectors

C) laparotomy

D) Ray-Tecs

A

C) laparotomy

123
Q

The treatment of choice for patent ductus arteriosus is:

A) patch graft

B) suture ligation of the duct

C) Atrial Septoplasty

D) posterior Sagittal Anorectoplasty

A

B) suture ligation of the duct

124
Q

The sterile component of the electrosurgical unit (ESU) is the

A) grounding pad

B) generator

C) footpedal

D) active electrode

A

D) active electrode

125
Q

Tissue expanders are used in

A) augmentation mammoplasty

B) reduction for gynecomastia

C) transrectus myocutaneous flap

D) breast reconstruction

A

D) breast reconstruction

126
Q

An Auvard is a

A) forceps

B) dissector

C) speculum

D) sound

A

C) speculum

127
Q

A Bailey is a

A) clamp

B) rongeur

C) dissecting forceps

D) rib approximator

A

D) rib approximator

128
Q

What is the name of the common disposable surgical gown style?

A) cylindrical

B) turnaround

C) wraparound

D) circumferential

A

C) wraparound

129
Q

What substance is introduced through a thoracoscope to deal with recurrent pleural effusion attributable to advanced cancer?

A) Chemotherapeutics

B) Talc

C) Tetracycline

D) Hemostatic agents

A

B) Talc

130
Q

Which gloving method should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?

A) assisted gloving

B) closed gloving

C) open gloving

D) triple gloving

A

B) closed gloving

131
Q

The coronary arteries originate from the:

A) ascending aorta

B) descending aorta

C) pulmonary artery

D) subclavian artery

A

A) ascending aorta

132
Q

Which of the following is the correct order from outermost to innermost layers of blood vessels:
(1) tunica adventia (2) tunica media (3) tunica intima

A) 1,2,3

B) 3,2,1

C) 3,1,2

D) 1,3,2

A

A) 1,2,3

133
Q

What drug is used to effect coronary thrombolysis in the cardiac catheterization laboratory?

A) Tissue plasminogen activator

B) Heparin

C) Streptokinase

D) Both a and c

A

D) Both a and c

134
Q

Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?

A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.

B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.

C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.

D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.

A

D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.

135
Q

Stapedectomy requires all of the following items EXCEPT

A) small microsuction

B) speculum

C) prothesis

D) autograft

A

D) autograft

136
Q

Trendelenburg, reverse Trendelenburg, Fowler’s, and lithotomy are variations of which basic position?

A) decubitus

B) lateral

C) prone

D) supine

A

D) supine

137
Q

Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure?

A) bronchoscopy

B) laryngoscopy

C) mediastinoscopy

D) thoracoscopy

A

C) mediastinoscopy

138
Q

Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?

A) hemostats

B) retractors

C) scissors

D) tissue forceps

A

C) scissors

139
Q

The only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs are

A) carotid

B) subclavian

C) coronary

D) pulmonary

A

D) pulmonary

140
Q

What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?

A) decompress the bladder

B) instill contrast media into the biliary system

C) monitor central venous pressure changes

D) provide access for peritoneal dialysis

A

C) monitor central venous pressure changes

141
Q

Electrical impulses that stimulate the heart muscle is achieved with

A) pacemaker

B) arterial defibrillation

C) ESU

D) alligator clamp

A

A) pacemaker

142
Q

The cardiac phase when the ventricles contract is

A) systole

B) diastole

C) fibrillation

D) relaxation

A

A) systole

143
Q

What instrument is used to reapproximate the ribs following an open thoracotomy?

A) Doyen

B) Bailey

C) Alexander

D) Bethune

A

B) Bailey

144
Q

The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:

A) Protamine sulfate

B) thrombin

C) heparin

D) ringer’s lactate

A

C) heparin

145
Q

The vessel used to increase the overall blood supply to the heart following a CABG is the:

A) saphenous artery

B) brachial artery

C) carotid artery

D) internal mammary artery

A

D) internal mammary artery

146
Q

Plaque removal from a vessel is termed

A) embolectomy

B) thrombectomy

C) shunt

D) endarterectomy

A

D) endarterectomy

147
Q

With what is the median sternotomy closed?

A) fine gauge polypropylene

B) fine gauge surgical silk

C) heavy gauge stainless steel wire

D) heavy gauge chromic gut

A

C) heavy gauge stainless steel wire

148
Q

A forceps used to remove stones in biliary surgery is a

A) mixter

B) Lahey gall duct

C) Potts-Smith

D) Randall

A

D) Randall

149
Q

For a right Nephrectomy, the patient should be placed in the ________ position.

A) right lateral kidney

B) left lateral kidney

C) Sims

D) Kraske

A

B) left lateral kidney

150
Q

What are the operative mortality rates of patients with ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and shock?

A) 10% to 20%

B) 20% to 40%

C) 50% to 60%

D) > 80%

A

D) > 80%

151
Q

Specialized instruments for a cleft lip repair would include

A) Cupids bow

B) Logan’s bow

C) arch bar

D) wire scissors

A

B) Logan’s bow

152
Q

An Auvard is a

A) forceps

B) dissector

C) speculum

D) sound

A

C) speculum

153
Q

In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as

A) image intensification

B) radiology

C) portable filming

D) X-ray

A

A) image intensification

154
Q

A rongeur used extensively in surgery of the spine and in neurosurgery is the

A) Adson

B) Cobb

C) Kerrison

D) Cloward

A

C) Kerrison

155
Q

A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter insertion requires

A) a sterile setup

B) a crash cart

C) an IV technician

D) None of the above

A

A) a sterile setup

156
Q

The lung is divided into anatomical regions. The right lung has ______lobes and the left lung has_______lobes.

A) two and two

B) three and two

C) three and three

D) two and three

A

B) three and two

157
Q

The movement of blood through a vessel can beassessed by

A) arteriogram

B) Cardiac catheterization

C) Doppler device

D) Angiogram

A

C) Doppler device

158
Q

The scissors used for intravascular access during an endarterectomy are called:

A) Metzenbaum

B) Jameson

C) Potts

D) Tenotomy

A

C) Potts

159
Q

If a knitted graph is preclotted, it

A) minimizes bleeding

B) makes a graft more pliable

C) facilities attachment

D) prevents rejection

A

A) minimizes bleeding

160
Q

The Lempert elevator is used in the surgery of the

A) eye

B) nose

C) ear

D) bones

A

C) ear

161
Q

A retractor used in a laminectomy is a

A) Weitlaner

B) Finochietto

C) Harrington

D) Beckman

A

D) Beckman

162
Q

Common artery bypass procedures include all of the following except:

A) axillo-popliteal

B) femoro-femoral

C) axillo femoral

D) femoro-popliteal

A

A) axillo-popliteal

163
Q

On which setup would bougies be found?

A) tonsillectomy

B) esophagoscopy

C) radical neck

D) parotidectomy

A

B) esophagoscopy

164
Q

Skeletal traction is accomplished with

A) Sayre sling

B) Minerva jacket

C) Crutchfield tongs

D) Steffee system

A

C) Crutchfield tongs

165
Q

By what action does a “cigarette” drain remove fluid from a wound?

A) active

B) capillary

C) suction

D) wicking

A

D) wicking

166
Q

Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?

A) carotid artery and subclavian vein

B) right atrium and ascending aorta

C) right ventricle and descending aorta

D) femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein

A

B) right atrium and ascending aorta

167
Q

The closing of a defect between the lower heart chambers is a procedure referred to as a:

A) Closure of the Patent Ductus Arteriosus

B) Commissurotomy

C) Repair of a Ventricular Septal Defect

D) Transmyocardial Revascularization

A

C) Repair of a Ventricular Septal Defect

168
Q

A kidney pedicle clamp is a

A) Lincoln

B) Herrick

C) Love

D) Little

A

B) Herrick

169
Q

The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?

A) arthroscopy

B) craniotomy

C) laparotomy

D) tonsillectomy

A

D) tonsillectomy

170
Q

The instrument used in a spleenectomy is a

A) Doyen

B) Allen

C) Jacobs

D) pedicle clamp

A

D) pedicle clamp

171
Q

Which position requires anesthesia administration and intubation to be performed on the patient’s stretcher prior to final positioning?

A) lateral

B) lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

C) prone

172
Q

Wescott scissors are used in

A) plastic surgery

B) ophthalmic surgery

C) vascular surgery

D) orthopedic surgery

A

B) ophthalmic surgery

173
Q

All of the following are true regarding the rigid bronchoscope EXCEPT

A) used for procedures which require a large bore endoscope

B) used for removal of a tissue mass and foreign bodies

C) patients who have difficulty hyperextending the neck and difficult jaw manipulation

D) complications include injury to the tracheal bronchial structures if patient moves

A

C) patients who have difficulty hyperextending the neck and difficult jaw manipulation

174
Q

A self-retaining retractor is a

A) Weitlaner

B) Lincoln

C) Hibbs

D) Deaver

A

A) Weitlaner

175
Q

A sac-like dilation and thinning of an artery wall that can lead to rupture of the vessel is a/an:

A) bifurcation

B) claudication

C) aneurysm

D) stenosis

A

C) aneurysm

176
Q

Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?

A) Balfour

B) Bookwalter

C) Greenburg

D) Thompson

A

A) Balfour

177
Q

Stone forceps on a kidney set are

A) Lewkowitz

B) Randall

C) Satinsky

D) Mayo

A

B) Randall

178
Q

What is the proper prep proticol for a patient scheduled for a skin graft?

A) Use one prep kit for the recipient site and leave the donor site clear

B) Use a separate setup for each site and prep the donor site first

C) Use separate setup for each site and prep the recipient site first

D) So not prep either site

A

B) Use a separate setup for each site and prep the donor site first

179
Q

Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body orifice?

A) flexible ureteroscope

B) flexible colonoscope

C) rigid hysteroscope

D) rigid sigmoidoscope

A

A) flexible ureteroscope

NBSTSA Review (29 decks)

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