SURGCOM2 Flashcards
1
Q
Decreased bone mass results in a condition called
A) osteoporosis
B) osteomyelitis
C) ossification
D) ecchymosis
A
A) osteoporosis
2
Q
When a tourniquet is inflated during surgery, the surgeon is notified at which recommended time intervals?
A) At the half hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter
B) at the half hour and every half hour thereafter
C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter
D) at the hour and every half hour thereafter
A
C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter
3
Q
When catheterizing the patient
A) the patient must be shaved
B) the tip of the catheter must remain sterile
C) sterile technique is not necessary
D) the bag must be maintained above the table level
A
B) the tip of the catheter must remain sterile
4
Q
The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was
A) Ehrlich
B) Madame Curie
C) Alexander
D) Lister
A
D) Lister
5
Q
Screws come in which types?
A) cortical only
B) cortical and Kirschner
C) cancellous and cortical
D) trochanteric and kirschner
A
C) cancellous and cortical
6
Q
Place the stages of fracture healing in order: (1) hematoma formation,(2) remodeling,(3)fibrin network formation,(4)callus formation,(5)invasion of osteoblasts.
A) 1,3,5,4,2
B) 1,2,5,4,3
C) 1,3,2,4,5
D) 5,3,4,1,2
A
A) 1,3,5,4,2
7
Q
Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?
A) double wrapping
B) event related
C) Julian dating
D) time related
A
B) event related
8
Q
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?
A) flat
B) irregular
C) long
D) short
A
D) short
9
Q
Plaster Rolls for casting should be submerged in
A) Hot Water
B) Cold water
C) Neutral Temperature
D) Slightly warm
A
D) Slightly warm
10
Q
An emergency drug that increases myocardial cantractility is
A) calcium chloride
B) Levophed
C) Lasix
D) Isuprel
A
A) calcium chloride
11
Q
In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?
A) anterior cruciate ligament
B) patellar tendon
C) posterior cruciate ligament
D) quadriceps tendon
A
D) quadriceps tendon
12
Q
Which of the following would be least damaging to and most effective on a fire involving a laser generator or electrosurgical unit?
A) Class D halon extinguisher sprayed on unit
B) cotton blankets used to smother fire
C) sterile saline poured to douse fire
D) unplugging power cord to stop flow of electricity
A
A) Class D halon extinguisher sprayed on unit
13
Q
An olecranon fracture occurs in the
A) wrist
B) knee
C) elbow
D) finger
A
C) elbow
14
Q
Which laboratory study is done to determine compatibility of blood or perfused organs from donors to recipients?
A) arterial blood gas
B) complete metabolic panel
C) culture and sensitivity
D) type and crossmatch
A
D) type and crossmatch
15
Q
The loosening of a joint with some displacement of the articular surface from the joint capsule is called a/an:
A) dislocation
B) avulsion
C) fracture
D) subluxation
A
D) subluxation
16
Q
The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is:
A) protective
B) strict
C) enteric
D) drainage and secretions
A
A) protective
17
Q
Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies?
A) dry heat
B) ethylene oxide
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) ionizing radiation
A
D) ionizing radiation
18
Q
A fractured metacrapal would require a:
A) Long arm cast
B) Short arm cast
C) Cylinder cast
D) Splint
A
B) Short arm cast
19
Q
The patella is what type of bone?
A) Flat
B) Short
C) Sesmoid
D) Round
A
C) Sesmoid
20
Q
Tachycardia is a/an
A) heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
B) irregular heartbeat
C) thready,weak heartbeat
D) heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute
A
A) heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
21
Q
Orthopedic implants are covered by all of the following rules EXCEPT
A) different metals should not be mixed because they may react chemically
B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
C) a template must be used for sizing purposes
D) handle as little as possible before insertion
A
B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
22
Q
All of the following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT
A) ultraviolet light
B) laminar flow rooms
C) charcoal masks
D) space suits
A
C) charcoal masks
23
Q
Bone healing is termed
A) osteoporosis
B) osteoplasty
C) osteogenesis
D) osteomalacia
A
C) osteogenesis
24
Q
The implant used of small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction is called:
A) cancellous screw
B) steinmann pin
C) cortical screw
D) nail
A
B) steinmann pin
25
Inherited deficiences of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) hemophilia
C) pernicious anemia
D) erthroblastosis fetalis
B) hemophilia
26
The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine for which a stabiolization procedure may be done is:
A) Scoliosis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Exostosis
D) herniated nucleus pulposa
A) Scoliosis
27
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
C) AB
28
Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:
A) autografts for ACL repair
B) connections for hip movement
C) insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation
D) radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies
A) autografts for ACL repair
29
Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?
A) camera head
B) inflow and outflow tubing
C) light cord
D) powered shaver
D) powered shaver
30
Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?
A) anterior cruciate
B) posterior cruciate
C) medial collateral
D) lateral collateral
A) anterior cruciate
31
Visualization of a joint for diagnosis and conservative treatment of joint disease is called:
A) arthroplasty
B) arthrotomy
C) arthroscopy
D) arthrorrhaphy
C) arthroscopy
32
The Keller and McBride procedures are types of
A) bunionectomy procedures
B) shoulder repairs
C) ankle repairs
D) patellectomy
A) bunionectomy procedures
33
A pneumatic tourniquet is placed
A) as soon as the patient enters the OR
B) directly after the patient is prepped and draped
C) before the patient is prepped and draped
D) as soon as anesthesia says its ok
C) before the patient is prepped and draped
34
In orthopedic surgery, the veiwing of the progression of a prcedure on a television screen is known as
A) image intensification
B) radiography
C) portable filming
D) X-ray
A) image intensification
35
Harmful toxins created during laser surgery and electrosurgery come in the form of
A) heat
B) smoke plume
C) anesthesia
D) none of the above
B) smoke plume
36
Plaster is ready for application
A) when air bubbles cease to rise
B) when air bubbles begin to rise
C) after 2 minutes of submersion
D) after 10 minutes of submersion
A) when air bubbles cease to rise
37
Baker’s cysts are found in the :
A) popliteal fossa
B) interdigital fossa
C) intercarpal fossa
D) olecranon fossa
A) popliteal fossa
38
How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization?
A) bound tightly with rubber bands
B) bound loosely with electrical tape
C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket
D) coiled tightly in sealed peel-pack inside tray
C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket
39
The patients position for a Bristow procedure is:
A) semi-Fowler
B) prone
C) Sims
D) lithotomy
A) semi-Fowler
40
The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?
A) clavicle
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) sternum
C) scapula
41
Clostridium tetani causes
A) gangrene
B) nosocomial infection
C) lockjaw
D) malaria
C) lockjaw
42
Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between the wrist joints for cosmesis or discomfort describes which procedure?
A) Excision of Ganglion
B) Patellectomy
C) McBride Procedure
D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty
A) Excision of Ganglion
43
The bodies first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is
A) the immune response
B) skin and mucous membrane linings
C) cellular and chemical responses
D) phagocytosis
B) skin and mucous membrane linings
44
All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except
A) heat
B) pain
C) vasoconstriction
D) edema
C) vasoconstriction
45
The most commonly used implants in hand surgery are made of flexible
A) polypropylene
B) Silastic
C) tantellum
D) polyethylene
B) Silastic
46
Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?
A) heat cramps
B) heat exhaustion
C) heat stroke
D) heat wave
C) heat stroke
47
The laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is
A) Gram stain
B) iodine stain
C) acid fast stain
D) differential stain
A) Gram stain
48
Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?
A) acetabulum
B) calcaneus
C) patella
D) talus
B) calcaneus
49
What artery is most often used to access a patients pulse?
A) Carotid
B) Radial
C) Brachial
D) Apical
B) Radial
50
Which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contaminants and fumes from the OR?
A) negative, bidirectional
B) negative, unidirectional
C) positive, bidirectional
D) positive, unidirectional
D) positive, unidirectional
51
Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?
A) Adson-Beckman
B) Charnley
C) Gelpi
D) Weitlaner
B) Charnley
52
Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy?
A) laser mask and laser goggles
B) arthroscopy boots and impervious apron
C) plastic face shield and N-95 respirator mask
D) lead apron and thyroid shield
D) lead apron and thyroid shield
53
An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as :
A) primary infection
B) acute infection
C) community-acquired infection
D) nosocomial infection
D) nosocomial infection
54
Which of the following is NOT a category of hazard for OR personnel or surgical patients?
A) biological
B) chemical
C) physical
D) physiological
D) physiological
55
Which term BEST describes the broad response plans in place applicable to any area of the country or any category of disaster?
A) all-hazards
B) emergency action plan
C) hot zoning
D) triage systems
A) all-hazards
56
The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is
A) young and healthy person
B) young with arthritis
C) old and healthy
D) old with osteoporotic bone disease
A) young and healthy person
57
What is the name of the system attached to all anesthesia machines to remove waste anesthesia gases?
A) scavenger
B) sequestering
C) shunting
D) suppression
A) scavenger
58
Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?
A) AAMI
B) facility policies
C) manufacturer
D) OSHA
C) manufacturer
59
An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting bone and marrow is
A) osteomalacia
B) osteoporosis
C) osteomyelitis
D) Paget,s disease
C) osteomyelitis
60
Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by
A) JCHO
B) OSHA
C) ASTM
D) CDC
A) JCHO
61
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?
A) above knee amputation (AKA)
B) below knee amputation (BKA)
C) bunionectomy
D) triple arthrodesis
C) bunionectomy
62
What gram stain turns red at the end of the staining procedure
A) gram-positive
B) gram-negative
C) acid fast positive
D) acid fast negative
B) gram-negative
63
An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body tempterature is known as malignant
A) hypothermia
B) hypervolemia
C) hypersalemia
D) hyperthermia
D) hyperthermia
64
What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?
A) osteoarthritis
B) osteochondrosis
C) osteomalacia
D) osteomyelitis
C) osteomalacia
65
What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?
A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.
B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.
C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.
C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
66
What would be the primary role of the surgical technologist in an intraoperative cardiac arrest?
A) Break scrub and dial 911.
B) Break scrub and quickly pull an open-heart setup.
C) Perform chest compressions on the patient.
D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.
D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.
67
The placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site, which are then connected to stabilizing bars, is called;
A) external fixation
B) skeletal fixation
C) internal fixation
D) compression fixation
A) external fixation
68
Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be
A) anaerobic
B) bacillic
C) antibiotic
D) aerobic
D) aerobic
69
The fixation device most commonly used for intratrochanteric fractures of the femur includes:
A) compression plates and screws
B) hinged replacement prothesis
C) rods/nails
D) Kirschber wires
A) compression plates and screws
70
What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?
A) External fixation of radius
B) ORIF
C) Carpal tunnel release
D) MPJ replacement
C) Carpal tunnel release
71
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
A) spores
B) fungus
C) Gram-positive
D) Pseudomonas
A) spores
72
What artery is most often used to access a patients pulse?
A) carotid
B) radial
C) brachial
D) apical
B) radial
73
Th epower drill or saw used to divide bone with a “side to side” cutting action is a/an:
A) reciprocating saw
B) rotary drill
C) oscillating saw
D) drill/reamer
C) oscillating saw
74
The electronic probe thermometer is primarily used for
A) oral
B) axillary
C) rectal
D) Both A and B
D) Both A and B
75
Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?
A) Andrews table
B) fracture table
C) vacuum beanbag
D) Wilson frame
B) fracture table
76
All of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT:
A) head
B) knee
C) side
D) waist
C) side
77
Which one of the following is the correct order for screw placement?
A) drill,tap,measure,screw
B) drill, measure, tap, screw
C) tap, drill, measure, screw
D) tap, measure, drill, screw
B) drill, measure, tap, screw
78
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) hemophilia
C) pernicious anemia
D) erythroblastosis fetalis
B) hemophilia
79
A fracture where healing has not taken place in the usual amount of time is reffered to as a/an:
A) nonunion
B) malunion
C) delayed union
D) subluxation
C) delayed union
80
Which of the following should be used by surgical team members to prevent potential injury from tasks involving heavy lifting, moving of equipment or patients, and long periods of standing or sitting?
A) permissible exposure limits
B) personal protective equipment
C) post-exposure prophylaxis
D) proper body mechanics
D) proper body mechanics
81
How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?
A) two
B) three
C) five
D) eight
C) five
82
A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is
A) rabies
B) gas gangrene
C) pateurellosis
D) tetanus
B) gas gangrene
83
Equipment needed to repair a femoral neck fracture using a compression screw and sliding plate includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) fracture table
B) C-arm(fluro)
C) Kwires
D) pneumatic tourniquet
D) pneumatic tourniquet
84
In which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
C) Third
85
What connects bone to bone?
A) Ligament
B) Tendon
C) Muscle
D) Bursa
A) Ligament
86
Pressurized water is most effective in containing:
A) Class A fires
B) Class B fires
C) Class C fires
D) all of the above
A) Class A fires
87
When drawing a blood supply for arterial blood gases (ABG’s), what is considered a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis?
A) 10 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
A) 10 minutes
88
Which of the following factors would have the least effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it?
A) weight of host
B) resistance of the host
C) dose and virulence of the organism
D) duration of exposure
A) weight of host
89
A type and cross match is done
A) on all surgical patients
B) if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necassary
C) on all hospital patients
D) in the OR
B) if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necassary
90
Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?
A) ethylene oxide
B) ionizing radiation
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam
D) saturated steam
91
Why would surface-mounted sliding doors be preferred over swinging doors in an operating room?
A) less costly
B) easier to clean
C) reduces air turbulence
D) uses less wall space
C) reduces air turbulence
92
What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizing and Esmarch bandage?
A) Start at the distal end of the extremity
B) Start at the Proximal end of the extremity
C) Start after the cuff is inflated
D) Start at the incision site
A) Start at the distal end of the extremity
93
The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is:
A) Bacillus atrophaeus
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
A) Bacillus atrophaeus
94
Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?
A) pull it
B) push it
C) cover it with plastic
D) open a window
A) pull it
95
Unless the patient is at risk of hypothermia, the temperature range in the OR should be between:
A) 55°F and 60°F
B) 63°F and 68°F
C) 68°F and 73°F
D) 75°F and 80°F
C) 68°F and 73°F
96
Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as
A) Dupuytren’s contracture
B) carpal tunnel syndrome
C) ganglia
D) Volkmann’s contracture
B) carpal tunnel syndrome
97
A patient given an Rh-incompatible perfused organ or blood could suffer which potentially fatal result?
A) all hazards response
B) anaphylactic reaction
C) hemolytic transfusion reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia response
C) hemolytic transfusion reaction
98
What is a common surgical approach for Colles’ fracture?
A) arthroscopy
B) carpal tunnel release
C) external fixation
D) open reduction internal fixation
C) external fixation
99
The body temperature taken orally is 98.68F. What is the celcius?
A) 37*C
B) 52*C
C) 110*C
D) 212*C
A) 37*C
100
Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?
A) arthralgia
B) derangement
C) osteoarthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
101
The method of fracture treatment where a pulling force is exerted directly on the bone itself via a pin in the bone using a system of weights and pulleys is called:
A) Buck’s traction
B) external fixation
C) open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)
D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension
D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension
102
Chronic dislocation of the patella may predispose the patient to a condition called:
A) osteomyelitis
B) chrondomalacia
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) osteoporosis
B) chrondomalacia
103
Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?
A) femur
B) humerus
C) radius
D) ulna
B) humerus
104
Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?
A) ACL repair
B) amputation
C) arthroplasty
D) arthroscopy
B) amputation
105
A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volume. This is
A) within normal range
B) below normal range
C) above normal range
D) inconclusive
A) within normal range
106
Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?
A) percutaneous pinning of simple fracture
B) external fixator application for Colles’ fracture
C) closed with cast application for greenstick fracture
D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
107
What is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be accessible to health care workers?
A) AAMI
B) MSDS
C) NIOSH
D) OSHA
B) MSDS
108
What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?
A) antibiotic irrigation
B) Freer elevator
C) lap sponges
D) pulse lavage
C) lap sponges
109
A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell called a
A) red blood count
B) white blood count
C) differential blood count
D) blood grouping
C) differential blood count
110
Which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases?
A) AAMI
B) ANSI
C) NIOSH
D) NFPA
C) NIOSH
111
Long Cancellous screws placed with a gliding hole for the shaft provide:
A) compression of bone fragments
B) approximatiuon of bone fragments
C) distraction of bone fragments
D) subluxation of bone fragments
A) compression of bone fragments
112
In which type of disaster would hot, warm, and cold zone triage protocols be used?
A) airline crash
B) interstate highway pileup
C) nuclear plant meltdown
D) storm surge flooding
C) nuclear plant meltdown
113
Hands only CPR is not recommended for victims of
A) drowning
B) trauma
C) airway obstruction
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
114
A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the
A) rectum
B) esophagus
C) axilla
D) tympanic area
C) axilla
115
After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurse checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0g. This reading is
A) within normal range
B) below normal range
C) above normal range
D) inconclusive
B) below normal range
116
The space caused by separation of wound edges is called
A) lag phase
B) evisceration
C) fibrous scarring
D) dead space
D) dead space
117
Which of the following is an emergent pathological process that creates systemic hypercoagulation followed by hypocoagulability and internal hemorrhaging?
A) anaphylactic reactions
B) coronary heart disease
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) malignant hyperthermia
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
118
What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?
A) bursa
B) canaliculi
C) ganglion
D) osteocytes
A) bursa
119
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is
A) an electrical recording of the heart
B) an X-ray defining heart structures
C) an X-ray of the cardiac portion of the stomach
D) a stress test on the heart
A) an electrical recording of the heart
120
What immune protection is available to the fetus?
A) natural active
B) natural passive
C) active artificial
D) passive artificial
B) natural passive
121
What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?
A) cavitation
B) chelation
C) emulsification
D) solubilization
A) cavitation
122
What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?
A) ammonia
B) bleach
C) peroxide
D) vinegar
B) bleach
123
Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?
A) calcium
B) iron
C) magnesium
D) zinc
A) calcium
124
Osteogenesis or bone growth can be induced by
A) bone grafting, autogenous
B) bone grafting, homogeneous
C) hormone installation
D) electrical stilulation
D) electrical stilulation
125
When an infection is caused by a patient’s own normal flora, the source would be referred to as:
A) endogenous
B) exogenous
C) transient
D) airborne
A) endogenous
126
The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the
A) collateral ligament
B) cruciate ligament
C) lateral meniscus
D) medial meniscus
D) medial meniscus
127
Which of the following bacilli are spore forming anaerobes, found in soil, and capable of causing gas gangrene
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) mycobacteria
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Bacillus subtilis
A) Clostridium perfringens
128
Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?
A) complex
B) greenstick
C) luxation
D) subluxation
D) subluxation
129
Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?
A) alligator
B) cobra
C) duck bill
D) rat tooth
B) cobra
130
Bacteria that live only in the presence of oxygen are called:
A) parasites
B) anaerobes
C) pathogens
D) aerobes
D) aerobes
131
Preoperative chest X-rays
A) are not necessary for the surgical patient
B) are necessary only for the thoracic surgical patient
C) are necessary only on the surgical patient with a chronic cough
D) should be done on all surgical patients
D) should be done on all surgical patients
132
What does the letter D stand for in reference to the chain-of-survival concept in cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A) death reduction
B) definitive treatment
C) depth of compression
D) destination planning
B) definitive treatment
133
What would the circulating RN assess by weighing soiled sponges after use in a surgical procedure on a neonate?
A) blood loss
B) contamination
C) irrigation totals
D) potential retained object
A) blood loss
134
Death to bone tissue due to a lack of circulation is:
A) arthritis
B) avascular necrosis
C) malunion
D) osteomyelitis
B) avascular necrosis
135
Compression force of the distal femur upon the tibia produces varying types of fractures of the
A) patella
B) tibia plateau
C) femoral condyle
D) head of the femur
B) tibia plateau
136
Which fracture commonly occurs in childhood?
A) Spiral
B) Compound
C) Greenstick
D) Comminuted
C) Greenstick
137
Herpes simplex is commonly called
A) cold sore
B) shingles
C) smallpox
D) chicken pox
A) cold sore
138
Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?
A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
139
Which of the following is commonly used as a tissue fixative and preservative for surgical specimens sent to pathology?
A) ethylene oxide
B) formalin
C) glutaraldehyde
D) polymethyl methacrylate
B) formalin
140
Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?
A) AAMI
B) CDC
C) EPA
D) FDA
D) FDA
141
Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?
A) active (hot) wire/prong
B) ground pin/prong
C) bipolar wire/prongs
D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong
C) bipolar wire/prongs
142
Concepts concerning polymethylmethacrylate use on the surgical field include all of the following except:
A) room and component temperature will affect the setting time
B) contact of the polymer and your skin may cause a dermatitis reaction
C) avoid excessive exposure to the vapors produced during mixing of the polymer and the powder
D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use
D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use
143
Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called
A) decontamination
B) debridement
C) dehiscence
D) desiccation
B) debridement
144
Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?
A) exercise
B) heredity
C) hormonal
D) nutrition
C) hormonal
145
Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?
A) blunt probe
B) powered shaver
C) spinal needle
D) trocar cannula
A) blunt probe
146
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?
A) acromioclavicular
B) coracoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
147
Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:
A) rods
B) nails
C) plates
D) screws
B) nails
148
A hemostatic agent used to control bleeding from an open bone is:
A) heparin sodium
B) protamine sulfate
C) methylene blue
D) bone wax
D) bone wax
149
The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?
A) amphiarthrosis
B) coxarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) synarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
150
Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?
A) Brun curette
B) Gigli saw
C) intramedullary reamer
D) suction brush attachment
C) intramedullary reamer
151
The condition that involves the proximal interphalangeal(PIP) joint of the foot is called
A) bunion
B) dupuytrens
C) hammertoe
D) hallux valgus
C) hammertoe
152
What type of bone is the patella?
A) flat
B) irregular
C) long
D) sesamoid
D) sesamoid
153
What living cells are more complex, have nuclei and include protozoa, fungi, green, red and brown algae?
A) Eukaryotic
B) Facultative
C) Prokaryotic
D) Passive
A) Eukaryotic
154
During a procedure involving a power saw in use, the surgical technician in the scrub role should
A) clean the blade
B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use
C) suction bone debris
D) do nothing
B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use
155
Microorganisms that cause disease are known as:
A) carriers
B) pathogens
C) vectors
D) saprophytes
B) pathogens
156
A tear in the lateral or medial knee cartilage is repaired by performing a/an:
A) Synovectomy
B) Menisectomy
C) Patellectomy
D) Arthrodesis
B) Menisectomy
157
When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as:
A) autoimmunity
B) rejection syndrome
C) anaphylaxis
D) passive immunity
A) autoimmunity
158
What term means low or decreased blood volume?
A) Anoxemia
B) Hypovolemia
C) Hypoxia
D) Hypocapnia
B) Hypovolemia
159
What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?
A) changeover
B) concurrent cleaning
C) terminal cleaning
D) turnover
D) turnover
160
Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization?
A) reduce tray weight
B) penetration of sterilant
C) easy grouping of instruments
D) easy removal of instruments
B) penetration of sterilant
161
The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into two groups is:
A) Gram Stain
B) acid-fast stain
C) simple stain
D) sensitivity study
A) Gram Stain
162
All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT:
A) air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour
B) humidity between 35% and 72%
C) positive air pressure maintained
D) temperature between 64°F and 70°F
C) positive air pressure maintained
163
Which of the following is not part of the fire triangle?
A) fuel
B) carbon dioxide
C) an ignition source
D) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
164
Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called
A) flail chest
B) Cheyne-Stokes syndrome
C) emphysema
D) mediastinal shift
D) mediastinal shift
165
Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR
A) The scrub nurse
B) The circulating Nurse
C) The anesthesiologist
D) The surgeon’s assistant
B) The circulating Nurse
166
Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:
A) depth gauge
B) guide pin
C) pilot drill
D) reamer
B) guide pin
167
Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?
A) avulsion
B) comminuted
C) greenstick
D) oblique
C) greenstick
168
The preferred type of fire extinguisher used for operating room fires is
A) water based
B) CO2
C) dry powder
D) oil based
B) CO2
169
During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used?
A) cold water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH
C) hot water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
D) cold sterile water and enzymatic solution with low pH
B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH
170
Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours?
A) glutaraldehyde
B) isopropyl alcohol
C) quaternary ammonium compounds
D) sodium hypochlorite
A) glutaraldehyde
171
Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?
A) moist
B) necrotic
C) dry
D) warm
B) necrotic
172
Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections?
A) extensive knowledge of anatomy
B) high GPA while a student
C) participation in the “time out”
D) strict surgical conscience
D) strict surgical conscience
173
The medical term for a bunion is called
A) Talipes Valgus
B) Hallux Valgus
C) Hallux Varus
D) Talipes Varus
B) Hallux Valgus
174
Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?
A) impervious apron under gown
B) additional sterile sleeves
C) space suit or body exhaust suits
D) high-efficiency particulate air masks
C) space suit or body exhaust suits
175
What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 10 cm
A) 1 cm
176
What components are required for a fire and are found in an OR setting?
A) O2
B) Fuel
C) Source no ignition
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
177
When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?
A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them
B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely
C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them
D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely
A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them
178
A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a/an?
A) Pott’s fracture
B) Colles’ fracture
C) Smiths Fracture
D) Bennetts Fracture
B) Colles’ fracture
179
Microorganisms that can be macroscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are:
A) bacteria
B) rickettsiae
C) protozoa
D) parasitic worms
D) parasitic worms
180
In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?
A) ankle
B) hip
C) knee
D) wrist
C) knee
181
The first-line drug used in the treatment of severe anaphylactic reaction is:
A) adenosine diphosphate
B) epinephrine
C) oxidized cellulose
D) thrombin
B) epinephrine
182
To activate a fire extinguisher, what will be the correct order of the following: 1)Sweep 2)Aim 3)Squeeze 4) pull
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 3,2,1,4
C) 4,2,3,1
D) 4,3,2,1
C) 4,2,3,1
183
Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?
A) head
B) neck
C) greater trochanter
D) lesser trochanter
A) head
184
Which procedure is not absolutely necessary in patieht identification
A) identification by the anesthesiologist, who checks the wristband, chart,and operating schedule
B) identification by the surgeon before administration of an anesthetic
C) Identification by the circulating nurse, who checks the writsband, chart, and operating schedule
D) Identification by the scrub nurse before the procedure begins
D) Identification by the scrub nurse before the procedure begins
185
A Free Lock compression screw system is indicated for correction of a/an _____fracture.
A) hip
B) wrist
C) elbow
D) cervical
A) hip
186
Which orthopedic hip procedure is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis?
A) AO external fixation
B) Total hip arthroplasty
C) Femoral endoprosthesis
D) Modular endo prosthesis
B) Total hip arthroplasty
187
Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?
A) antiseptic
B) disinfectant
C) emulsifier
D) enzymatic
D) enzymatic
188
An infection in the bone is termed
A) osteomalacia
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteitis
D) osteoporosis
B) osteomyelitis
189
What is the clinical term for the lesions that appear on the skin of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A) abrasions
B) carbuncles
C) plaque
D) urticaria
D) urticaria
190
Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?
A) colonoscopes
B) hypodermic needles
C) laryngoscopes
D) pulse oximeters
D) pulse oximeters
191
The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, peraly white, or charred-appearing surface is
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
C) third
192
The electronic probe thermometer is primarily used for
A) oral
B) axillary
C) rectal
D) Both A and B
D) Both A and B
193
Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to
A) immediately intervene with patiemt care
B) attend the anesthesiologist during crisis
C) maintain sterile Mayo with instruments
D) both A and B
C) maintain sterile Mayo with instruments
194
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
A) spores
B) fungus
C) Gram-positive
D) Pseudomonas
A) spores
195
Which of the following cleaning methods for surgical instrumentation relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments?
A) manual soak
B) ultrasonic cleaner
C) washer decontaminator
D) washer sterilizer
B) ultrasonic cleaner
196
If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?
A) The anesthesiologist
B) The circulating nurse
C) The surgeon
D) The scrub nurse
A) The anesthesiologist
197
The procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called
A) incision and drainage
B) dessication
C) lysis of adhesions
D) debridement
D) debridement
198
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by
A) primary intention
B) secondary intention
C) third intention
D) fourth intention
B) secondary intention
199
What is the electrical engineering safety device required for all operating room electrical outlets?
A) flip top cover
B) red-color designation
C) current converter
D) ground fault interrupter
D) ground fault interrupter
200
A microbial relationship in which one organism lives completely at the expense of the host is:
A) parasitism
B) commensalism
C) symbiosis
D) antibiosis
A) parasitism
