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nbstsa review > SURGCOM2 > Flashcards

SURGCOM2 Flashcards

1
Q

Decreased bone mass results in a condition called

A) osteoporosis

B) osteomyelitis

C) ossification

D) ecchymosis

A

A) osteoporosis

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2
Q

When a tourniquet is inflated during surgery, the surgeon is notified at which recommended time intervals?

A) At the half hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter

B) at the half hour and every half hour thereafter

C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter

D) at the hour and every half hour thereafter

A

C) at the hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter

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3
Q

When catheterizing the patient

A) the patient must be shaved

B) the tip of the catheter must remain sterile

C) sterile technique is not necessary

D) the bag must be maintained above the table level

A

B) the tip of the catheter must remain sterile

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4
Q

The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was

A) Ehrlich

B) Madame Curie

C) Alexander

D) Lister

A

D) Lister

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5
Q

Screws come in which types?

A) cortical only

B) cortical and Kirschner

C) cancellous and cortical

D) trochanteric and kirschner

A

C) cancellous and cortical

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6
Q

Place the stages of fracture healing in order: (1) hematoma formation,(2) remodeling,(3)fibrin network formation,(4)callus formation,(5)invasion of osteoblasts.

A) 1,3,5,4,2

B) 1,2,5,4,3

C) 1,3,2,4,5

D) 5,3,4,1,2

A

A) 1,3,5,4,2

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7
Q

Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?

A) double wrapping

B) event related

C) Julian dating

D) time related

A

B) event related

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8
Q

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?

A) flat

B) irregular

C) long

D) short

A

D) short

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9
Q

Plaster Rolls for casting should be submerged in

A) Hot Water

B) Cold water

C) Neutral Temperature

D) Slightly warm

A

D) Slightly warm

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10
Q

An emergency drug that increases myocardial cantractility is

A) calcium chloride

B) Levophed

C) Lasix

D) Isuprel

A

A) calcium chloride

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11
Q

In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?

A) anterior cruciate ligament

B) patellar tendon

C) posterior cruciate ligament

D) quadriceps tendon

A

D) quadriceps tendon

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12
Q

Which of the following would be least damaging to and most effective on a fire involving a laser generator or electrosurgical unit?

A) Class D halon extinguisher sprayed on unit

B) cotton blankets used to smother fire

C) sterile saline poured to douse fire

D) unplugging power cord to stop flow of electricity

A

A) Class D halon extinguisher sprayed on unit

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13
Q

An olecranon fracture occurs in the

A) wrist

B) knee

C) elbow

D) finger

A

C) elbow

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14
Q

Which laboratory study is done to determine compatibility of blood or perfused organs from donors to recipients?

A) arterial blood gas

B) complete metabolic panel

C) culture and sensitivity

D) type and crossmatch

A

D) type and crossmatch

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15
Q

The loosening of a joint with some displacement of the articular surface from the joint capsule is called a/an:

A) dislocation

B) avulsion

C) fracture

D) subluxation

A

D) subluxation

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16
Q

The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is:

A) protective

B) strict

C) enteric

D) drainage and secretions

A

A) protective

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17
Q

Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies?

A) dry heat

B) ethylene oxide

C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

D) ionizing radiation

A

D) ionizing radiation

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18
Q

A fractured metacrapal would require a:

A) Long arm cast

B) Short arm cast

C) Cylinder cast

D) Splint

A

B) Short arm cast

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19
Q

The patella is what type of bone?

A) Flat

B) Short

C) Sesmoid

D) Round

A

C) Sesmoid

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20
Q

Tachycardia is a/an

A) heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

B) irregular heartbeat

C) thready,weak heartbeat

D) heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute

A

A) heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

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21
Q

Orthopedic implants are covered by all of the following rules EXCEPT

A) different metals should not be mixed because they may react chemically

B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used

C) a template must be used for sizing purposes

D) handle as little as possible before insertion

A

B) If the imkplantg is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used

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22
Q

All of the following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT

A) ultraviolet light

B) laminar flow rooms

C) charcoal masks

D) space suits

A

C) charcoal masks

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23
Q

Bone healing is termed

A) osteoporosis

B) osteoplasty

C) osteogenesis

D) osteomalacia

A

C) osteogenesis

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24
Q

The implant used of small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction is called:

A) cancellous screw

B) steinmann pin

C) cortical screw

D) nail

A

B) steinmann pin

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25
Q

Inherited deficiences of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is

A) Tay-Sachs disease

B) hemophilia

C) pernicious anemia

D) erthroblastosis fetalis

A

B) hemophilia

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26
Q

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine for which a stabiolization procedure may be done is:

A) Scoliosis

B) Osteoporosis

C) Exostosis

D) herniated nucleus pulposa

A

A) Scoliosis

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27
Q

Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

A

C) AB

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28
Q

Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:

A) autografts for ACL repair

B) connections for hip movement

C) insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation

D) radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies

A

A) autografts for ACL repair

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29
Q

Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?

A) camera head

B) inflow and outflow tubing

C) light cord

D) powered shaver

A

D) powered shaver

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30
Q

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?

A) anterior cruciate

B) posterior cruciate

C) medial collateral

D) lateral collateral

A

A) anterior cruciate

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31
Q

Visualization of a joint for diagnosis and conservative treatment of joint disease is called:

A) arthroplasty

B) arthrotomy

C) arthroscopy

D) arthrorrhaphy

A

C) arthroscopy

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32
Q

The Keller and McBride procedures are types of

A) bunionectomy procedures

B) shoulder repairs

C) ankle repairs

D) patellectomy

A

A) bunionectomy procedures

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33
Q

A pneumatic tourniquet is placed

A) as soon as the patient enters the OR

B) directly after the patient is prepped and draped

C) before the patient is prepped and draped

D) as soon as anesthesia says its ok

A

C) before the patient is prepped and draped

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34
Q

In orthopedic surgery, the veiwing of the progression of a prcedure on a television screen is known as

A) image intensification

B) radiography

C) portable filming

D) X-ray

A

A) image intensification

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35
Q

Harmful toxins created during laser surgery and electrosurgery come in the form of

A) heat

B) smoke plume

C) anesthesia

D) none of the above

A

B) smoke plume

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36
Q

Plaster is ready for application

A) when air bubbles cease to rise

B) when air bubbles begin to rise

C) after 2 minutes of submersion

D) after 10 minutes of submersion

A

A) when air bubbles cease to rise

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37
Q

Baker’s cysts are found in the :
A) popliteal fossa

B) interdigital fossa

C) intercarpal fossa

D) olecranon fossa

A

A) popliteal fossa

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38
Q

How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization?

A) bound tightly with rubber bands

B) bound loosely with electrical tape

C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket

D) coiled tightly in sealed peel-pack inside tray

A

C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket

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39
Q

The patients position for a Bristow procedure is:

A) semi-Fowler

B) prone

C) Sims

D) lithotomy

A

A) semi-Fowler

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40
Q

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

A) clavicle

B) humerus

C) scapula

D) sternum

A

C) scapula

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41
Q

Clostridium tetani causes

A) gangrene

B) nosocomial infection

C) lockjaw

D) malaria

A

C) lockjaw

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42
Q

Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between the wrist joints for cosmesis or discomfort describes which procedure?

A) Excision of Ganglion

B) Patellectomy

C) McBride Procedure

D) Metacarpal Arthroplasty

A

A) Excision of Ganglion

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43
Q

The bodies first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is

A) the immune response

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

C) cellular and chemical responses

D) phagocytosis

A

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

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44
Q

All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except

A) heat

B) pain

C) vasoconstriction

D) edema

A

C) vasoconstriction

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45
Q

The most commonly used implants in hand surgery are made of flexible

A) polypropylene

B) Silastic

C) tantellum

D) polyethylene

A

B) Silastic

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46
Q

Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?

A) heat cramps

B) heat exhaustion

C) heat stroke

D) heat wave

A

C) heat stroke

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47
Q

The laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

A) Gram stain

B) iodine stain

C) acid fast stain

D) differential stain

A

A) Gram stain

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48
Q

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

A) acetabulum

B) calcaneus

C) patella

D) talus

A

B) calcaneus

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49
Q

What artery is most often used to access a patients pulse?

A) Carotid

B) Radial

C) Brachial

D) Apical

A

B) Radial

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50
Q

Which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contaminants and fumes from the OR?

A) negative, bidirectional

B) negative, unidirectional

C) positive, bidirectional

D) positive, unidirectional

A

D) positive, unidirectional

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51
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?

A) Adson-Beckman

B) Charnley

C) Gelpi

D) Weitlaner

A

B) Charnley

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52
Q

Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy?

A) laser mask and laser goggles

B) arthroscopy boots and impervious apron

C) plastic face shield and N-95 respirator mask

D) lead apron and thyroid shield

A

D) lead apron and thyroid shield

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53
Q

An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as :

A) primary infection

B) acute infection

C) community-acquired infection

D) nosocomial infection

A

D) nosocomial infection

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54
Q

Which of the following is NOT a category of hazard for OR personnel or surgical patients?

A) biological

B) chemical

C) physical

D) physiological

A

D) physiological

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55
Q

Which term BEST describes the broad response plans in place applicable to any area of the country or any category of disaster?

A) all-hazards

B) emergency action plan

C) hot zoning

D) triage systems

A

A) all-hazards

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56
Q

The ideal candidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is

A) young and healthy person

B) young with arthritis

C) old and healthy

D) old with osteoporotic bone disease

A

A) young and healthy person

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57
Q

What is the name of the system attached to all anesthesia machines to remove waste anesthesia gases?

A) scavenger

B) sequestering

C) shunting

D) suppression

A

A) scavenger

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58
Q

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?

A) AAMI

B) facility policies

C) manufacturer

D) OSHA

A

C) manufacturer

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59
Q

An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting bone and marrow is

A) osteomalacia

B) osteoporosis

C) osteomyelitis

D) Paget,s disease

A

C) osteomyelitis

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60
Q

Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by

A) JCHO

B) OSHA

C) ASTM

D) CDC

A

A) JCHO

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61
Q

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?

A) above knee amputation (AKA)

B) below knee amputation (BKA)

C) bunionectomy

D) triple arthrodesis

A

C) bunionectomy

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62
Q

What gram stain turns red at the end of the staining procedure

A) gram-positive

B) gram-negative

C) acid fast positive

D) acid fast negative

A

B) gram-negative

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63
Q

An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body tempterature is known as malignant

A) hypothermia

B) hypervolemia

C) hypersalemia

D) hyperthermia

A

D) hyperthermia

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64
Q

What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?

A) osteoarthritis

B) osteochondrosis

C) osteomalacia

D) osteomyelitis

A

C) osteomalacia

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65
Q

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.

B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.

C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.

A

C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

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66
Q

What would be the primary role of the surgical technologist in an intraoperative cardiac arrest?

A) Break scrub and dial 911.

B) Break scrub and quickly pull an open-heart setup.

C) Perform chest compressions on the patient.

D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.

A

D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.

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67
Q

The placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site, which are then connected to stabilizing bars, is called;

A) external fixation

B) skeletal fixation

C) internal fixation

D) compression fixation

A

A) external fixation

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68
Q

Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be

A) anaerobic

B) bacillic

C) antibiotic

D) aerobic

A

D) aerobic

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69
Q

The fixation device most commonly used for intratrochanteric fractures of the femur includes:

A) compression plates and screws

B) hinged replacement prothesis

C) rods/nails

D) Kirschber wires

A

A) compression plates and screws

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70
Q

What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?

A) External fixation of radius

B) ORIF

C) Carpal tunnel release

D) MPJ replacement

A

C) Carpal tunnel release

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71
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

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72
Q

What artery is most often used to access a patients pulse?

A) carotid

B) radial

C) brachial

D) apical

A

B) radial

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73
Q

Th epower drill or saw used to divide bone with a “side to side” cutting action is a/an:

A) reciprocating saw

B) rotary drill

C) oscillating saw

D) drill/reamer

A

C) oscillating saw

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74
Q

The electronic probe thermometer is primarily used for

A) oral

B) axillary

C) rectal

D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B

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75
Q

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?

A) Andrews table

B) fracture table

C) vacuum beanbag

D) Wilson frame

A

B) fracture table

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76
Q

All of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT:

A) head

B) knee

C) side

D) waist

A

C) side

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77
Q

Which one of the following is the correct order for screw placement?

A) drill,tap,measure,screw

B) drill, measure, tap, screw

C) tap, drill, measure, screw

D) tap, measure, drill, screw

A

B) drill, measure, tap, screw

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78
Q

Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is

A) Tay-Sachs disease

B) hemophilia

C) pernicious anemia

D) erythroblastosis fetalis

A

B) hemophilia

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79
Q

A fracture where healing has not taken place in the usual amount of time is reffered to as a/an:

A) nonunion

B) malunion

C) delayed union

D) subluxation

A

C) delayed union

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80
Q

Which of the following should be used by surgical team members to prevent potential injury from tasks involving heavy lifting, moving of equipment or patients, and long periods of standing or sitting?

A) permissible exposure limits

B) personal protective equipment

C) post-exposure prophylaxis

D) proper body mechanics

A

D) proper body mechanics

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81
Q

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

A) two

B) three

C) five

D) eight

A

C) five

82
Q

A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is

A) rabies

B) gas gangrene

C) pateurellosis

D) tetanus

A

B) gas gangrene

83
Q

Equipment needed to repair a femoral neck fracture using a compression screw and sliding plate includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) fracture table

B) C-arm(fluro)

C) Kwires

D) pneumatic tourniquet

A

D) pneumatic tourniquet

84
Q

In which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

A

C) Third

85
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A) Ligament

B) Tendon

C) Muscle

D) Bursa

A

A) Ligament

86
Q

Pressurized water is most effective in containing:

A) Class A fires

B) Class B fires

C) Class C fires

D) all of the above

A

A) Class A fires

87
Q

When drawing a blood supply for arterial blood gases (ABG’s), what is considered a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis?

A) 10 minutes

B) 20 minutes

C) 30 minutes

D) 1 hour

A

A) 10 minutes

88
Q

Which of the following factors would have the least effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it?

A) weight of host

B) resistance of the host

C) dose and virulence of the organism

D) duration of exposure

A

A) weight of host

89
Q

A type and cross match is done

A) on all surgical patients

B) if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necassary

C) on all hospital patients

D) in the OR

A

B) if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necassary

90
Q

Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?

A) ethylene oxide

B) ionizing radiation

C) peracetic acid

D) saturated steam

A

D) saturated steam

91
Q

Why would surface-mounted sliding doors be preferred over swinging doors in an operating room?

A) less costly

B) easier to clean

C) reduces air turbulence

D) uses less wall space

A

C) reduces air turbulence

92
Q

What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizing and Esmarch bandage?

A) Start at the distal end of the extremity

B) Start at the Proximal end of the extremity

C) Start after the cuff is inflated

D) Start at the incision site

A

A) Start at the distal end of the extremity

93
Q

The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is:

A) Bacillus atrophaeus

B) Bacillus subtilis

C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

D) Staphylococcus aureus

A

A) Bacillus atrophaeus

94
Q

Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?

A) pull it

B) push it

C) cover it with plastic

D) open a window

A

A) pull it

95
Q

Unless the patient is at risk of hypothermia, the temperature range in the OR should be between:

A) 55°F and 60°F

B) 63°F and 68°F

C) 68°F and 73°F

D) 75°F and 80°F

A

C) 68°F and 73°F

96
Q

Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as

A) Dupuytren’s contracture

B) carpal tunnel syndrome

C) ganglia

D) Volkmann’s contracture

A

B) carpal tunnel syndrome

97
Q

A patient given an Rh-incompatible perfused organ or blood could suffer which potentially fatal result?

A) all hazards response

B) anaphylactic reaction

C) hemolytic transfusion reaction

D) malignant hyperthermia response

A

C) hemolytic transfusion reaction

98
Q

What is a common surgical approach for Colles’ fracture?

A) arthroscopy

B) carpal tunnel release

C) external fixation

D) open reduction internal fixation

A

C) external fixation

99
Q

The body temperature taken orally is 98.68F. What is the celcius?

A) 37*C

B) 52*C

C) 110*C

D) 212*C

A

A) 37*C

100
Q

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?

A) arthralgia

B) derangement

C) osteoarthritis

D) rheumatoid arthritis

A

D) rheumatoid arthritis

101
Q

The method of fracture treatment where a pulling force is exerted directly on the bone itself via a pin in the bone using a system of weights and pulleys is called:

A) Buck’s traction

B) external fixation

C) open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)

D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension

A

D) skeletal traction with balanced suspension

102
Q

Chronic dislocation of the patella may predispose the patient to a condition called:

A) osteomyelitis

B) chrondomalacia

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) osteoporosis

A

B) chrondomalacia

103
Q

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

A) femur

B) humerus

C) radius

D) ulna

A

B) humerus

104
Q

Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?

A) ACL repair

B) amputation

C) arthroplasty

D) arthroscopy

A

B) amputation

105
Q

A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volume. This is

A) within normal range

B) below normal range

C) above normal range

D) inconclusive

A

A) within normal range

106
Q

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?

A) percutaneous pinning of simple fracture

B) external fixator application for Colles’ fracture

C) closed with cast application for greenstick fracture

D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

A

D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

107
Q

What is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be accessible to health care workers?

A) AAMI

B) MSDS

C) NIOSH

D) OSHA

A

B) MSDS

108
Q

What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?

A) antibiotic irrigation

B) Freer elevator

C) lap sponges

D) pulse lavage

A

C) lap sponges

109
Q

A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell called a

A) red blood count

B) white blood count

C) differential blood count

D) blood grouping

A

C) differential blood count

110
Q

Which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases?

A) AAMI

B) ANSI

C) NIOSH

D) NFPA

A

C) NIOSH

111
Q

Long Cancellous screws placed with a gliding hole for the shaft provide:

A) compression of bone fragments

B) approximatiuon of bone fragments

C) distraction of bone fragments

D) subluxation of bone fragments

A

A) compression of bone fragments

112
Q

In which type of disaster would hot, warm, and cold zone triage protocols be used?

A) airline crash

B) interstate highway pileup

C) nuclear plant meltdown

D) storm surge flooding

A

C) nuclear plant meltdown

113
Q

Hands only CPR is not recommended for victims of

A) drowning

B) trauma

C) airway obstruction

D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

114
Q

A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the

A) rectum

B) esophagus

C) axilla

D) tympanic area

A

C) axilla

115
Q

After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurse checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0g. This reading is

A) within normal range

B) below normal range

C) above normal range

D) inconclusive

A

B) below normal range

116
Q

The space caused by separation of wound edges is called

A) lag phase

B) evisceration

C) fibrous scarring

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

117
Q

Which of the following is an emergent pathological process that creates systemic hypercoagulation followed by hypocoagulability and internal hemorrhaging?

A) anaphylactic reactions

B) coronary heart disease

C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

D) malignant hyperthermia

A

C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

118
Q

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

A) bursa

B) canaliculi

C) ganglion

D) osteocytes

A

A) bursa

119
Q

An electrocardiogram (ECG) is

A) an electrical recording of the heart

B) an X-ray defining heart structures

C) an X-ray of the cardiac portion of the stomach

D) a stress test on the heart

A

A) an electrical recording of the heart

120
Q

What immune protection is available to the fetus?

A) natural active

B) natural passive

C) active artificial

D) passive artificial

A

B) natural passive

121
Q

What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?

A) cavitation

B) chelation

C) emulsification

D) solubilization

A

A) cavitation

122
Q

What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?

A) ammonia

B) bleach

C) peroxide

D) vinegar

A

B) bleach

123
Q

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

A) calcium

B) iron

C) magnesium

D) zinc

A

A) calcium

124
Q

Osteogenesis or bone growth can be induced by

A) bone grafting, autogenous

B) bone grafting, homogeneous

C) hormone installation

D) electrical stilulation

A

D) electrical stilulation

125
Q

When an infection is caused by a patient’s own normal flora, the source would be referred to as:

A) endogenous

B) exogenous

C) transient

D) airborne

A

A) endogenous

126
Q

The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the

A) collateral ligament

B) cruciate ligament

C) lateral meniscus

D) medial meniscus

A

D) medial meniscus

127
Q

Which of the following bacilli are spore forming anaerobes, found in soil, and capable of causing gas gangrene

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) mycobacteria

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Bacillus subtilis

A

A) Clostridium perfringens

128
Q

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?

A) complex

B) greenstick

C) luxation

D) subluxation

A

D) subluxation

129
Q

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

A) alligator

B) cobra

C) duck bill

D) rat tooth

A

B) cobra

130
Q

Bacteria that live only in the presence of oxygen are called:

A) parasites

B) anaerobes

C) pathogens

D) aerobes

A

D) aerobes

131
Q

Preoperative chest X-rays

A) are not necessary for the surgical patient

B) are necessary only for the thoracic surgical patient

C) are necessary only on the surgical patient with a chronic cough

D) should be done on all surgical patients

A

D) should be done on all surgical patients

132
Q

What does the letter D stand for in reference to the chain-of-survival concept in cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

A) death reduction

B) definitive treatment

C) depth of compression

D) destination planning

A

B) definitive treatment

133
Q

What would the circulating RN assess by weighing soiled sponges after use in a surgical procedure on a neonate?

A) blood loss

B) contamination

C) irrigation totals

D) potential retained object

A

A) blood loss

134
Q

Death to bone tissue due to a lack of circulation is:

A) arthritis

B) avascular necrosis

C) malunion

D) osteomyelitis

A

B) avascular necrosis

135
Q

Compression force of the distal femur upon the tibia produces varying types of fractures of the

A) patella

B) tibia plateau

C) femoral condyle

D) head of the femur

A

B) tibia plateau

136
Q

Which fracture commonly occurs in childhood?

A) Spiral

B) Compound

C) Greenstick

D) Comminuted

A

C) Greenstick

137
Q

Herpes simplex is commonly called

A) cold sore

B) shingles

C) smallpox

D) chicken pox

A

A) cold sore

138
Q

Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?

A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light

B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight

C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights

D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring

A

B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight

139
Q

Which of the following is commonly used as a tissue fixative and preservative for surgical specimens sent to pathology?

A) ethylene oxide

B) formalin

C) glutaraldehyde

D) polymethyl methacrylate

A

B) formalin

140
Q

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?

A) AAMI

B) CDC

C) EPA

D) FDA

A

D) FDA

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?

A) active (hot) wire/prong

B) ground pin/prong

C) bipolar wire/prongs

D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong

A

C) bipolar wire/prongs

142
Q

Concepts concerning polymethylmethacrylate use on the surgical field include all of the following except:

A) room and component temperature will affect the setting time

B) contact of the polymer and your skin may cause a dermatitis reaction

C) avoid excessive exposure to the vapors produced during mixing of the polymer and the powder

D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use

A

D) polymethylmethacrylate should be prepared at the beginning of the case so it is ready at the desired time of use

143
Q

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

A) decontamination

B) debridement

C) dehiscence

D) desiccation

A

B) debridement

144
Q

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

A) exercise

B) heredity

C) hormonal

D) nutrition

A

C) hormonal

145
Q

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

A) blunt probe

B) powered shaver

C) spinal needle

D) trocar cannula

A

A) blunt probe

146
Q

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?

A) acromioclavicular

B) coracoclavicular

C) glenohumeral

D) sternoclavicular

A

C) glenohumeral

147
Q

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:

A) rods

B) nails

C) plates

D) screws

A

B) nails

148
Q

A hemostatic agent used to control bleeding from an open bone is:

A) heparin sodium

B) protamine sulfate

C) methylene blue

D) bone wax

A

D) bone wax

149
Q

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis

B) coxarthrosis

C) diarthrosis

D) synarthrosis

A

C) diarthrosis

150
Q

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?

A) Brun curette

B) Gigli saw

C) intramedullary reamer

D) suction brush attachment

A

C) intramedullary reamer

151
Q

The condition that involves the proximal interphalangeal(PIP) joint of the foot is called

A) bunion

B) dupuytrens

C) hammertoe

D) hallux valgus

A

C) hammertoe

152
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A) flat

B) irregular

C) long

D) sesamoid

A

D) sesamoid

153
Q

What living cells are more complex, have nuclei and include protozoa, fungi, green, red and brown algae?

A) Eukaryotic

B) Facultative

C) Prokaryotic

D) Passive

A

A) Eukaryotic

154
Q

During a procedure involving a power saw in use, the surgical technician in the scrub role should

A) clean the blade

B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use

C) suction bone debris

D) do nothing

A

B) lightly apply irrigation to the blade in use

155
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease are known as:

A) carriers

B) pathogens

C) vectors

D) saprophytes

A

B) pathogens

156
Q

A tear in the lateral or medial knee cartilage is repaired by performing a/an:

A) Synovectomy

B) Menisectomy

C) Patellectomy

D) Arthrodesis

A

B) Menisectomy

157
Q

When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as:

A) autoimmunity

B) rejection syndrome

C) anaphylaxis

D) passive immunity

A

A) autoimmunity

158
Q

What term means low or decreased blood volume?

A) Anoxemia

B) Hypovolemia

C) Hypoxia

D) Hypocapnia

A

B) Hypovolemia

159
Q

What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?

A) changeover

B) concurrent cleaning

C) terminal cleaning

D) turnover

A

D) turnover

160
Q

Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization?

A) reduce tray weight

B) penetration of sterilant

C) easy grouping of instruments

D) easy removal of instruments

A

B) penetration of sterilant

161
Q

The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into two groups is:

A) Gram Stain

B) acid-fast stain

C) simple stain

D) sensitivity study

A

A) Gram Stain

162
Q

All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT:

A) air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour

B) humidity between 35% and 72%

C) positive air pressure maintained

D) temperature between 64°F and 70°F

A

C) positive air pressure maintained

163
Q

Which of the following is not part of the fire triangle?

A) fuel

B) carbon dioxide

C) an ignition source

D) oxygen

A

B) carbon dioxide

164
Q

Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called

A) flail chest

B) Cheyne-Stokes syndrome

C) emphysema

D) mediastinal shift

A

D) mediastinal shift

165
Q

Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR

A) The scrub nurse

B) The circulating Nurse

C) The anesthesiologist

D) The surgeon’s assistant

A

B) The circulating Nurse

166
Q

Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:

A) depth gauge

B) guide pin

C) pilot drill

D) reamer

A

B) guide pin

167
Q

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

A) avulsion

B) comminuted

C) greenstick

D) oblique

A

C) greenstick

168
Q

The preferred type of fire extinguisher used for operating room fires is

A) water based

B) CO2

C) dry powder

D) oil based

A

B) CO2

169
Q

During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used?

A) cold water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH

B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH

C) hot water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH

D) cold sterile water and enzymatic solution with low pH

A

B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH

170
Q

Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours?

A) glutaraldehyde

B) isopropyl alcohol

C) quaternary ammonium compounds

D) sodium hypochlorite

A

A) glutaraldehyde

171
Q

Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?

A) moist

B) necrotic

C) dry

D) warm

A

B) necrotic

172
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections?

A) extensive knowledge of anatomy

B) high GPA while a student

C) participation in the “time out”

D) strict surgical conscience

A

D) strict surgical conscience

173
Q

The medical term for a bunion is called

A) Talipes Valgus

B) Hallux Valgus

C) Hallux Varus

D) Talipes Varus

A

B) Hallux Valgus

174
Q

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

A) impervious apron under gown

B) additional sterile sleeves

C) space suit or body exhaust suits

D) high-efficiency particulate air masks

A

C) space suit or body exhaust suits

175
Q

What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?

A) 1 cm

B) 2 cm

C) 5 cm

D) 10 cm

A

A) 1 cm

176
Q

What components are required for a fire and are found in an OR setting?

A) O2

B) Fuel

C) Source no ignition

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

177
Q

When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?

A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them

B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely

C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them

D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely

A

A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them

178
Q

A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a/an?

A) Pott’s fracture

B) Colles’ fracture

C) Smiths Fracture

D) Bennetts Fracture

A

B) Colles’ fracture

179
Q

Microorganisms that can be macroscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are:

A) bacteria

B) rickettsiae

C) protozoa

D) parasitic worms

A

D) parasitic worms

180
Q

In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?

A) ankle

B) hip

C) knee

D) wrist

A

C) knee

181
Q

The first-line drug used in the treatment of severe anaphylactic reaction is:

A) adenosine diphosphate

B) epinephrine

C) oxidized cellulose

D) thrombin

A

B) epinephrine

182
Q

To activate a fire extinguisher, what will be the correct order of the following: 1)Sweep 2)Aim 3)Squeeze 4) pull

A) 1,2,3,4

B) 3,2,1,4

C) 4,2,3,1

D) 4,3,2,1

A

C) 4,2,3,1

183
Q

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?

A) head

B) neck

C) greater trochanter

D) lesser trochanter

A

A) head

184
Q

Which procedure is not absolutely necessary in patieht identification

A) identification by the anesthesiologist, who checks the wristband, chart,and operating schedule

B) identification by the surgeon before administration of an anesthetic

C) Identification by the circulating nurse, who checks the writsband, chart, and operating schedule

D) Identification by the scrub nurse before the procedure begins

A

D) Identification by the scrub nurse before the procedure begins

185
Q

A Free Lock compression screw system is indicated for correction of a/an _____fracture.

A) hip

B) wrist

C) elbow

D) cervical

A

A) hip

186
Q

Which orthopedic hip procedure is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis?

A) AO external fixation

B) Total hip arthroplasty

C) Femoral endoprosthesis

D) Modular endo prosthesis

A

B) Total hip arthroplasty

187
Q

Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?

A) antiseptic

B) disinfectant

C) emulsifier

D) enzymatic

A

D) enzymatic

188
Q

An infection in the bone is termed

A) osteomalacia

B) osteomyelitis

C) osteitis

D) osteoporosis

A

B) osteomyelitis

189
Q

What is the clinical term for the lesions that appear on the skin of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?

A) abrasions

B) carbuncles

C) plaque

D) urticaria

A

D) urticaria

190
Q

Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?

A) colonoscopes

B) hypodermic needles

C) laryngoscopes

D) pulse oximeters

A

D) pulse oximeters

191
Q

The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, peraly white, or charred-appearing surface is

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

C) third

192
Q

The electronic probe thermometer is primarily used for

A) oral

B) axillary

C) rectal

D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B

193
Q

Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to

A) immediately intervene with patiemt care

B) attend the anesthesiologist during crisis

C) maintain sterile Mayo with instruments

D) both A and B

A

C) maintain sterile Mayo with instruments

194
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

195
Q

Which of the following cleaning methods for surgical instrumentation relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments?

A) manual soak

B) ultrasonic cleaner

C) washer decontaminator

D) washer sterilizer

A

B) ultrasonic cleaner

196
Q

If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?

A) The anesthesiologist

B) The circulating nurse

C) The surgeon

D) The scrub nurse

A

A) The anesthesiologist

197
Q

The procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called

A) incision and drainage

B) dessication

C) lysis of adhesions

D) debridement

A

D) debridement

198
Q

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by

A) primary intention

B) secondary intention

C) third intention

D) fourth intention

A

B) secondary intention

199
Q

What is the electrical engineering safety device required for all operating room electrical outlets?

A) flip top cover

B) red-color designation

C) current converter

D) ground fault interrupter

A

D) ground fault interrupter

200
Q

A microbial relationship in which one organism lives completely at the expense of the host is:

A) parasitism

B) commensalism

C) symbiosis

D) antibiosis

A

A) parasitism

nbstsa review (29 decks)

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