Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBSTSA Review > SURGCOM3 > Flashcards

SURGCOM3 Flashcards

1
Q

During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon generally stands

A) at the right side of the patient

B) at the bottom of the patients table

C) at the left side of the patient

D) in front of the first assistant

A

C) at the left side of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intraoperative cholangiograms can be performed either through open abdominal or laparoscopic procedures using a contrast medium directly into the common bile duct through a

A) cystocath

B) cholangiocath

C) T-tube

D) red rubber catheter

A

B) cholangiocath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To secure the Mayo stand from moving during draping, what should be done?

A) Push the Mayo stand against the wall.

B) Step on one leg of the Mayo stand.

C) Have the circulator hold the Mayo stand post.

D) Grasp the back side of the tray with one hand.

A

B) Step on one leg of the Mayo stand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of suprapubic bladder drainage?

A) kidney operation

B) vaginal hysterectomy

C) prostatic surgery

D) urethral injuries

A

A) kidney operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tetany is a serious potential post-op complication of which type of surgical intervention?

A) appendectomy

B) colon resection

C) gastrectomy

D) thyroidectomy

A

D) thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What syringe is used to evacuate bladder, prostate or Stone fragments?

A) Cystoscope

B) Ellik

C) Toomey

D) Both B and C

A

D) Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

infra

A) is a prefix that means beneath

B) is a suffix that means inside

C) means to enter

D) means above

A

A) is a prefix that means beneath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?

A) acetometer

B) glucometer

C) insulometer

D) ketometer

A

B) glucometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which position requires anesthesia administration and intubation to be performed on the patient’s stretcher prior to final positioning?

A) lateral

B) lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

C) prone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a mastectomy is scheduled to follow a breast biopsy and frozen section results indicate carcinoma, what is done?

A) Protect the field until second procedure begins.

B) Bring up a Mayo stand with new instruments for the mastectomy.

C) Use same instruments, but be sure to change all gloves first.

D) Re-prep, redrape patient; team changes gowns and gloves; and use new instruments.

A

D) Re-prep, redrape patient; team changes gowns and gloves; and use new instruments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Syndactyly refers to

A) an extra digit

B) an absent digit

C) webbing of the digits

D) an ear protrusion

A

C) webbing of the digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?

A) A cotton-tipped applicator is inserted into the external meatus.

B) A sterile tight-fitting condom is applied to the penis.

C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

D) A gloved finger is held firmly against the head of the penis.

A

C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?

A) hydrocele

B) ileal conduit

C) Koch pouch

D) orchiopexy

A

C) Koch pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Encephalocele is a

A) brain cells

B) deformation of cerebral lining

C) formation of CSF

D) hernia of the brain

A

D) hernia of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the reason for injecting saline through the cholangiogram catheter prior to the contrast media?

A) The saline will dilute the contrast dye.

B) The saline will dilate the common duct.

C) The saline will push any stones in the cystic duct through.

D) The saline will test patency of the cystic duct prior to injecting the contrast.

A

D) The saline will test patency of the cystic duct prior to injecting the contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Due to the vascular and friable nature of the liver, a surgeon may choose to use suture on which type of needle?

A) taper

B) blunt

C) spatula

D) cutting

A

B) blunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adduction means

A) movement away from the median plane

B) movement toward the median plane

C) movement superiorly

D) movement inferiorly

A

B) movement toward the median plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which towel is placed first when squaring off the operative site?

A) inferior margin

B) superior margin

C) same side as person applying towels

D) opposite side from person applying towels

A

C) same side as person applying towels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scanty amount of urine

A) hematuria

B) oliguria

C) hypouria

D) secturia

A

B) oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:

A) antibiotics

B) contrast media

C) distention fluids

D) topical analgesics

A

B) contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?

A) hydrocelectomy

B) orchiectomy

C) TURBT

D) TURP

A

C) TURBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential risk from administration of general anesthesia to a pregnant patient?

A) fetal death

B) lower birth weight

C) placenta previa

D) preterm labor

A

C) placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The STSR is scheduled to scrub on a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. This is the removal of

A) gallbladder

B) liver

C) bladder

D) common duct

A

A) gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Extracorporeal

A) pertaining to outside the body

B) above the chest

C) lateral to the pelvic girdle

D) above the cranial plexus

A

A) pertaining to outside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primi

A) little

B) before

C) first

D) above

A

C) first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fogarty biliary catheters are used

A) drain the gallbladder

B) drain the common bile duct

C) instill contrast medium

D) facilitate stone removal

A

D) facilitate stone removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The portion of the small intestine where a Meckles Diverticulum arises is the

A) Duodenum

B) jejunum

C) pylorus

D) distal ileum

A

D) distal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The inability to control urination is

A) reflux

B) urinary incontinence

C) hydrocele

D) vchronic bladder infection

A

B) urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dyspepsia is

A) lack of pepsin

B) heart burn

C) normal digestion

D) bad digestion

A

D) bad digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What incision is indicated for an esophagogastrectomy?

A) left paramedian

B) Upper vertical midline

C) Thoracoabdominal

D) Full midabdominal

A

C) Thoracoabdominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as

A) diaphyseal aclasis

B) hypercalcemic

C) hypercapnea

D) diaphoresis

A

D) diaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which structures are identified and preserved in thyroid surgery?

A) Parathyroid glands

B) Hyoid bone

C) Thyroglossal duct

D) Thyroid lobe

A

A) Parathyroid glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Amblyopia means

A) near sighted

B) far sighted

C) dim vision

D) double vision

A

C) dim vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A patient with chondromalacia would have an abnormal softening of the

A) bones

B) cells

C) ribs

D) cartilage

A

D) cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An arthrocentesis is a procedure to

A) fuse a joint

B) remove plaque from an artery

C) puncture and aspirate fluid from a joint

D) make a recording of an artery

A

C) puncture and aspirate fluid from a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of hernia results from a failure of the deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion into the scrotum?

A) direct

B) femoral

C) indirect

D) umbilical

A

C) indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which organ is responsible for the failure to produce insulin in a patient with type I diabetes?

A) kidney

B) liver

C) pancreas

D) spleen

A

C) pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Abdominal resection of the prostate gland through an incision into the bladder is known surgically as a

A) retropubic prostatectomy

B) suprapubic prostatectomy

C) transurethral prostatectomy

D) suprapubic cystostomy

A

B) suprapubic prostatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A common postoperative patient complaint folllowing a laparopscopic procedure is

A) headache

B) diarrhea

C) gastric upset

D) shoulder pain

A

D) shoulder pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of:

A) catheters

B) resectoscopes

C) evacuators

D) incisions

A

B) resectoscopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Adenocarcinoma means

A) tumor with in the spleen

B) pancreatic cancer

C) cancer of the small intestines

D) cancerous tumor of a gland

A

D) cancerous tumor of a gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tissue Death is called

A) necrosis

B) necatoriasis

C) nematodiasis

D) neoteny

A

A) necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Blepharospasm means

A) drooping eyelid

B) tumor of the orbital cavity

C) inflammation of the cornea

D) twitching of an eyelid

A

D) twitching of an eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is another name for an acquired ventral hernia through the linea semilunaris?

A) epigastric

B) femoral

C) inguinal

D) Spigelian

A

D) Spigelian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which type of viewing instrument would be used for surgical treatment of hemorrhoids?

A) anoscope

B) colonoscope

C) laparoscope

D) sigmoidoscope

A

A) anoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Agoraphobia means

A) fear of spiders

B) fear of crowds

C) fear of closed spaces

D) fear of flying

A

B) fear of crowds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the circulating nurse verify before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table?

A) The internal indicator has changed color.

B) The filter on the container lid has changed color.

C) The filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.

D) The numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.

A

C) The filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Drainage of an incision following a simple or modified radical mastectomy is accomplished by a

A) Penrose

B) sump

C) closed-wound drainage

D) cigarette drain

A

C) closed-wound drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:

A) anal fissure

B) fistula-in-ano

C) hemorrhoid

D) pilonidal cyst

A

C) hemorrhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Macrotia means

A) bad hearing

B) large ear

C) impaired judgement

D) tubes in the ear

A

B) large ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:

A) drape sheets

B) operative approaches

C) post-op dressings

D) wound drains

A

B) operative approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testes is called:

A) Spermatocelectomy

B) Orchiectomy

C) Hydrocelectomy

D) Vasectomy

A

C) Hydrocelectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?

A) anatomical timed

B) brushless/waterless

C) counted strokes

D) medical hand wash

A

D) medical hand wash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?

A) It is radiolucent.

B) Stirrups can be attached to rails.

C) It has a mesh drain attachment.

D) It can be adjusted for fluoroscopic exams.

A

C) It has a mesh drain attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What procedure is performed to reconstruct the external ear?

A) Rotation Flap

B) Lobularplasty

C) External auditory fixation

D) Otoplasty

A

D) Otoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In a Cholecystectomy, which structures are ligated and divided?

A) Cystic duct and cystic artery

B) Common bile duct and hepatic duct

C) Cystic duct and common bile duct

D) Hepatic duct and cystic artery

A

A) Cystic duct and cystic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The radiographic diagnostic test used to outline the structures of the kidney ureters and bladder is known as

A) MRI

B) retrigrade pylogram

C) GU radiograph

D) KUB

A

D) KUB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The use of distilled water during a highly invasive genitourinary procedure such as a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is prohibited for irrigation because of the potential for

A) hemolysis of RBCs

B) electrolytic dissipation of current

C) increase of blood pressure

D) body fluid shift

A

A) hemolysis of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which member of the surgical team gives permission for the patient to be positioned or transferred?

A) CRNA

B) circulator

C) CSFA

D) CST

A

A) CRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bone healing is termed

A) osteoporosis

B) osteoplasty

C) osteogenesis

D) osteomalacia

A

C) osteogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the term for the mechanism of injury in a trauma patient that takes into account velocity of the injuring force, flexibility of the tissue, and shape of the injuring force?

A) advance directive

B) informatics

C) kinematics

D) trauma designation

A

C) kinematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A lower oblique incision is a/an

A) Pfannenstiel

B) inguinal

C) paramedian

D) midabdominal

A

B) inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during thyroidectomy?

A) Green

B) Harrington

C) malleable

D) Weinberg

A

A) Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Overabsorbtion of irrigation fluid that may result in vascular overload is known as

A) extravasation

B) intravasation

C) hemolysis

D) hydronephrosis

A

A) extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million?

A) adrenal

B) hilum

C) nephron

D) psoas

A

C) nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the temporary position for a female patient for placement of urinary catheter prior to abdominal hysterectomy?

A) frog-legged

B) jackknife

C) low lithotomy

D) semi-Fowler’s

A

A) frog-legged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is termed

A) sliding

B) pantaloon

C) femoral

D) spigelian

A

B) pantaloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Colporrhaphy means

A) repair of the cervix

B) anterior repair of the bladder

C) posterior repair of the rectal fistula

D) suturing of the vagina

A

D) suturing of the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

An alternative approach to surgical TURP utilizing a cystoscopic setup as its base is

A) suprapubic prostatectomy

B) transcystoscopic urethroplasty

C) perineal prostatectomy

D) retropubic prostatectomy

A

B) transcystoscopic urethroplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the name for the first lymph node in the axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with a breast biopsy, lumpectomy, or mastectomy?

A) attendant

B) guardian

C) leader

D) sentinel

A

D) sentinel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Intracellular fluid would be found

A) within the cell

B) between the cell

C) below the cell

D) above the cell

A

A) within the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cryptorchidism is:

A) Hypertrophy of testes

B) Sterility

C) Undescended testes

D) Immature testes

A

C) Undescended testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

McBurney is an incision used for

A) appendectomy

B) cholecystectomy

C) herniorrhaphy

D) pilonidal cystectomy

A

A) appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?

A) endoshears

B) wire loop snare

C) ESU loop electrode

D) #11 blade on #7 handle

A

C) ESU loop electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the:

A) Ureter

B) Bladder Neck

C) Kidney Pedicle

D) Prostate gland

A

C) Kidney Pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure?

A) electrocardiograph

B) glucometer

C) pulse oximeter

D) sphygmomanometer

A

D) sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis?

A) Stage I

B) Stage II

C) Stage III-b

D) Stage IV

A

D) Stage IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The suffix that means to suture is

A) orrhexis

B) plasty

C) rrhagia

D) rrhaphy

A

D) rrhaphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The pancreatic duct (the duct of wirsung) and the common bile duct from the liver drain their contents into this section of the intestine:

A) jejunum

B) ileum

C) cecum

D) duodenum

A

D) duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following describes the configuration of a Mayo stand cover?

A) flat

B) rigid

C) cylindrical

D) wraparound

A

C) cylindrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Anesthetic means

A) agent that produces a state of well being

B) agent that inhibits breathing

C) agent to eliminate sensation

D) agent to create relaxation

A

C) agent to eliminate sensation

82
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?

A) allograft fascia lata

B) autograft fascia lata

C) polypropylene mesh tape

D) radiopaque vaginal packing

A

D) radiopaque vaginal packing

83
Q

The suffix lysis means

A) removal

B) activation

C) breaking down

D) adding

A

C) breaking down

84
Q

What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?

A) diaphragmatic

B) epigastric

C) incisional

D) pantaloon

A

D) pantaloon

85
Q

All of the following procedures may be completed through a cystoscope EXCEPT

A) biopsy of a bladder tumor

B) removal of foreign body in bladder

C) total removal of bladder tumor

D) cystogram for diagnostic studies

A

C) total removal of bladder tumor

86
Q

Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient?

A) #15 blade and Knight scissors

B) #10 blade and curved Mayo scissors

C) #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

D) #12 blade and straight tenotomy scissors

A

C) #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

87
Q

A subphrenic abscess occurs in the

A) pancreas

B) spleen

C) lung

D) liver

88
Q

All of the following national agencies have regulations or protocols for health care workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their work environment EXCEPT:

A) CDC

B) NIOSH

C) NFPA

D) OSHA

89
Q

What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser?

A) Babcock forceps

B) basket stone forceps

C) entrapment sack

D) vessel loops

A

B) basket stone forceps

90
Q

Which of the following activities would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual?

A) conversation in close proximity

B) pregnancy and childbirth

C) sharing used hypodermic needles

D) unprotected sexual relations

A

A) conversation in close proximity

91
Q

Lateroflexion means

A) bent over

B) position for a nephrectomy

C) clinical analasys of the flexibility of the post total knee prothesis

D) bending to the side

A

D) bending to the side

92
Q

Removal of a sample of tissue for a pathological diagnosis is

A) lumpectomy

B) specimen

C) biopsy

D) wedge resection

93
Q

Erythrocytopenia is

A) Excessive red blood cells

B) Deficiency of red cells

C) death of red blood cells

D) inability to produce red blood cells

A

B) Deficiency of red cells

94
Q

Antibiotic that can cause staining and hypoplasia of the enamel of the developing teeth in children and should not be administered.

A) Tetracycline

B) Sulfonamides

C) Keflex

D) PCN

A

A) Tetracycline

95
Q

Which of the following is the major cause of serious trauma suffered by pediatric patients?

A) bicycle falls

B) birth injuries

C) electrical burns

D) motor vehicle accidents

A

D) motor vehicle accidents

96
Q

Which special patient population group has a 30% to 80% statistical likelihood of coexisting psychiatric illness in addition to the diagnosis for which they are coming to surgery?

A) HIV/AIDS

B) geriatric

C) physically challenged

D) substance abuse

A

D) substance abuse

97
Q

Hirschsprung disease is synonymous with

A) bowel obstruction

B) malrotation

C) ileal stenosis

D) Meckel diverticulum

A

A) bowel obstruction

98
Q

A condition that causes bowel obstruction when one section of intestine telescopes over another and mostly occurs in children is

A) evisceration

B) Crohn disease

C) gastroschisis

D) intussusceptions

A

D) intussusceptions

99
Q

A Whipple operation is surgically termed a

A) pancreatectomy

B) pancreatoduodenectomy

C) pancreatic cyst marsupialization

D) transduodenal sphincterotomy

A

B) pancreatoduodenectomy

100
Q

Where is the safety belt or strap placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table?

A) 2 inches proximal to the ankles

B) 2 inches distal to the knees

C) 2 inches proximal to the knees

D) 2 inches distal to the perineal region

A

C) 2 inches proximal to the knees

101
Q

The suffix that means to suture is:

A) -orrhexis

B) -plasty

C) -rrhagia

D) -rrhaphy

A

D) -rrhaphy

102
Q

A congenital anomaly is a/an:

A) normal condition that one has at birth

B) abnormal condition existing at birth

C) birthmark

D) condition acquired after birth

A

B) abnormal condition existing at birth

103
Q

Intestinal obstruction by twisting of the intestines is

A) pyloric stenosis

B) volvulus

C) neuroblastoma

D) encephalocele

A

B) volvulus

104
Q

You are scheduled to scrub on a cheiloplasty. The anatomical part to be revised is the:

A) hand

B) ear

C) eyelid

D) lip

105
Q

What is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children?

A) cardiogenic

B) hypervolemic

C) hypovolemic

D) septic

106
Q

During a laparotomy, the surgeon packs the abdominal contents away from the diseased area with

A) Raytec 4x4s

B) Moist laps

C) Gelfoam and thrombin

D) Dry laps

A

B) Moist laps

107
Q

What is the name of a gastric mass of indigestible vegetable fiber and hair that may require surgical excision?

A) bezoar

B) calculus

C) polyp

D) ulcer

108
Q

What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?

A) edema

B) impotence

C) premature ejaculation

D) surgical site infection

A

D) surgical site infection

109
Q

Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?

A) Bowman’s capsule

B) cortex

C) medulla

D) renal pelvis

A

D) renal pelvis

110
Q

Cheiloplasty means

A) shaping of the lip

B) repair of the lip

C) rebuilding the lip

D) lip reconstruction

A

A) shaping of the lip

111
Q

A lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery may include removal of which ribs?

A) 5 and 6

B) 7 and 8

C) 9 and 10

D) 11 and 12

A

D) 11 and 12

112
Q

Tenolysis

A) suturing of tendens

B) destruction of tendons

C) anastomosis of a ruptured tendon

D) inflammation of a tendon

A

B) destruction of tendons

113
Q

Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands?

A) Gerota’s fascia

B) tunica vaginalis

C) peritoneal sac

D) costal periosteum

A

A) Gerota’s fascia

114
Q

Bulging of intestinal tissue into the vagina is

A) cystocele

B) hydrocele

C) vaginocele

D) rectocele

A

D) rectocele

115
Q

Which handheld retractor is specifically designed for use in open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver?

A) Army-Navy (USA)

B) Green

C) Harrington

D) Parker

A

C) Harrington

116
Q

The triangle of Calot is an anatomical space bounded by structures in which surgical procedure?

A) appendectomy

B) cholecystectomy

C) herniorrhaphy

D) thyroidectomy

A

B) cholecystectomy

117
Q

Decreased bone mass results in a condition called

A) osteoporosis

B) osteomyelitis

C) ossification

D) ecchymosis

A

A) osteoporosis

118
Q

The surgical pediactric patient with an increased metabolic rate requires all of the following EXCEPT

A) oxygen

B) caloric intake

C) blood transfusions

D) fluids

A

C) blood transfusions

119
Q

A surgical procedure to crush a stone is

A) lithiasis

B) lithectomy

C) lithotripsy

D) lithoptosis

A

C) lithotripsy

120
Q

Bladder stones are crushed with a

A) basket catheter

B) lithotrite

C) cautery

D) resectoscope

A

B) lithotrite

121
Q

A patient undergoing bariatric surgery may require extra time for general anesthetic reversal because anesthetic agents may be accumulated in and slowly eliminated from what type of tissue?

A) adipose fat

B) hypertrophic liver

C) lung alveoli

D) smooth muscle

A

A) adipose fat

122
Q

Herniorrhaphy means

A) removal of the herniated sac

B) suturing of the hernia

C) application of a surgical mesh

D) enlargement of the hernia

A

B) suturing of the hernia

123
Q

The Pereyra needle is used in which specialty area of surgery?

A) Neurology

B) Urology

C) Orthopedics

D) Ophthalmology

A

B) Urology

124
Q

Before handing a penrose drain to the surgeon

A) place it on a Allis clamp

B) attach a safety pin to it

C) cut it to the desired length

D) moisten it in saline

A

D) moisten it in saline

125
Q

Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?

A) cephalosporins

B) penicillins

C) sulfonamides

D) tetracyclins

A

C) sulfonamides

126
Q

Blunt dissection of the gallbladder from the sulcus of the liver requires the use of a

A) Metzenbaum

B) Kelly

C) tampon

D) peanut

127
Q

Paramedian

A) beside the median

B) lateral to the midline

C) medial plane

D) lateral plane

A

A) beside the median

128
Q

What kind of tube is used to decompress the stomach or as a means of feeding the patient?

A) Nasogastric tube

B) Esophageal Tube

C) Gastrostomy Tube

D) T-Tube

A

C) Gastrostomy Tube

129
Q

An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting bone and marrow is

A) osteomalacia

B) osteoporosis

C) osteomyelitis

D) Paget’s disease

A

C) osteomyelitis

130
Q

The region of the abdomen below the stomach is

A) epi pubic

B) hypergastric

C) hypogastric

D) umbilical

A

C) hypogastric

131
Q

Which type of suture would be used to invert the stump of an appendix?

A) buried

B) purse string

C) mattress

D) tension

A

B) purse string

132
Q

Which surgical position is used exclusively for anorectal surgical procedures?

A) Kraske

B) supine

C) Trendelenburg

D) reverse Trendelenburg

133
Q

Orchiopexy can be defined as

A) fixation of an ovary

B) uterine suspension

C) testicle removal

D) fixation of a testicle

A

D) fixation of a testicle

134
Q

Slow heart rate…..

A) tachycardia

B) hypovolamia

C) bradycardia

D) hypoglycemia

A

C) bradycardia

135
Q

Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion?

A) deflecting mechanism

B) obturator

C) sheath

D) telescoping bridge

A

B) obturator

136
Q

The suffix -tome means

A) to seperate

B) instrument to cut

C) to hollow out

D) to split

A

B) instrument to cut

137
Q

The procedure where a hooked wire is inserted under flouroscopy into the suspicious tissue is called

A) a hook wire

B) wire localization

C) staging

D) frozen section

A

B) wire localization

138
Q

Tachypnea means

A) rapid heart rate

B) fast breathing

C) pneumothoracic adhesions

D) painful breathing

A

B) fast breathing

139
Q

Which of the following statements regarding transfer of an awake, mobile patient from stretcher to OR table is INCORRECT?

A) Both table and stretcher must be locked to prevent movement during transfer.

B) One staff member is positioned on table side to receive patient and one on stretcher side to stabilize.

C) Instruct patient to keep the blanket on during transfer, preventing hypothermia and for privacy.

D) The safety strap is secured tightly across patient’s waist to prevent possible fall due to narrow OR table.

A

D) The safety strap is secured tightly across patient’s waist to prevent possible fall due to narrow OR table.

140
Q

What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?

A) Hypotension

B) Airway impairment

C) Hypothermia

D) Metabolic depression

A

B) Airway impairment

141
Q

All of the following statements refer to pilonidal cyst surgery EXCEPT

A) it is performed with an elliptical incision

B) the wound frequently heals by granulation

C) probes are required on setup

D) the cyst is removed, but the tract remains

A

D) the cyst is removed, but the tract remains

142
Q

Angioma means

A) tumor of the artery

B) tumor of the bicuspid valve

C) tumor of the heart muscle

D) tumor of a vessel

A

D) tumor of a vessel

143
Q

What type of hernia protrudes through the transversalis fascia in the area of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A) direct

B) femoral

C) indirect

D) umbilical

144
Q

What is the correct order from the outer most to the innermost tissue layers that make up the wall of the stomach: 1)serosa 2)mucosa 3)muscularis 4)submucosa

A) 1,2,3,4

B) 4,3,2,1

C) 3,2,1,4

D) 2,3,4,1

A

A) 1,2,3,4

145
Q

Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?

A) Bougie

B) Hegar

C) Van Buren

D) Walther

146
Q

Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?

A) lateral

B) low-lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

A) lateral

147
Q

An instrument used to view the large intestine is a/an

A) gastroscope

B) endoscopy

C) colonoscope

D) bronchoscope

A

C) colonoscope

148
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common permanent colostomy?

A) end

B) loop

C) end-loop

D) sigmoid

A

D) sigmoid

149
Q

Overabsorbtion of irrigation fluid that may result in vascular overload is known as

A) extravasation

B) intravasation

C) hemolysis

D) hydronephrosis

A

A) extravasation

150
Q

The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?

A) anterior axillary

B) Langer’s

C) midclavicular

D) semilunar

A

B) Langer’s

151
Q

The abbreviation ung refers to

A) tincture

B) ointment

C) as directed

D) spirits

A

B) ointment

152
Q

Acromegaly means

A) enlarged extremities

B) enlarged skull

C) enlarged aorta

D) enlarged ovaries

A

A) enlarged extremities

153
Q

Cholelithiasis

A) the crushing of kidney stones

B) the crushing of gallstones

C) the condition of gallstones

D) the absence of gallstones

A

C) the condition of gallstones

154
Q

Which muscles are incised in the midline of the neck once the skin flaps are completed during a thyroidectomy?

A) sternocliedomastoid

B) strap

C) sternothyroid

D) sternoclavicular

155
Q

End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, and Roux-en-Y are techniques for:

A) bowel anastomosis

B) mastectomy wound closure

C) mesh placement in herniorrhaphy

D) surgical skin prep solution application

A

A) bowel anastomosis

156
Q

Movement of a body part toward the midline is referred to as

A) lateral

B) adduction

C) abduction

D) pronation

A

B) adduction

157
Q

Hematemesis

A) condition of clotting blood

B) condition of the inability for you blood to clot

C) vomiting blood

D) swallowing blood

A

C) vomiting blood

158
Q

Hyperemesis

A) excessive urination

B) excessive vomiting

C) excessive bleeding

D) excessive diarrhea

A

B) excessive vomiting

159
Q

An agent used against fever is:

A) antiemetic

B) analgesic

C) antipyretic

D) anticholinergic

A

C) antipyretic

160
Q

Pain in the head:

A) cephalomegaly

B) cephalodynia

C) cephaloalgia

D) cephalitis

A

B) cephalodynia

161
Q

When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?

A) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 25% of normal

B) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

C) when one kidney is normal and the other is functioning at or below 25% of normal

D) when one kidney is normal and the other if functioning at or below 10% of normal

A

B) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

162
Q

A gastroplasty

A) reduces stomach size

B) corrects gastric junction stenosis

C) releases adhesions

D) provides avenue for hyperalimentation

A

A) reduces stomach size

163
Q

Which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiosis, candidiasis, or cytomegalovirus infections?

A) HIV/AIDS

B) diabetic

C) geriatric

D) trauma

A

A) HIV/AIDS

164
Q

An agent used against fever is

A) antiemetic

B) analgesic

C) antipyretic

D) anticholinergic

A

C) antipyretic

165
Q

With what amount and which fluid is a 16 Fr., two-way Foley catheter with 5 cc balloon filled?

A) 5 mL of sterile water

B) 5 mL of sterile normal saline

C) 10 mL of sterile water

D) 10 mL of sterile normal saline

A

C) 10 mL of sterile water

166
Q

Defogging the video camera is usually the responsibility of the

A) circulator

B) surgeon

C) scrub person

D) camera operator

A

D) camera operator

167
Q

A red blood cell is known as a/an

A) erythrocyte

B) leukocyte

C) thrombocyte

D) cytopenia

A

A) erythrocyte

168
Q

Up to what area of the arms does a surgical technologist scrub?

A) 1 inch below the elbows

B) 2 inches below the elbows

C) 1 inch above the elbows

D) 2 inches above the elbows

A

D) 2 inches above the elbows

169
Q

The term referring to chewing is

A) subungal

B) mastication

C) osculation

D) micturation

A

B) mastication

170
Q

In a gastrointestinal closure, the mucosa of the intestinal tract is closed with

A) chromic 4-0 or 3-0

B) silk 4-0 or 3-0

C) dacron 3-0 or 2-0

D) Novafil 3-0 or 2-

A

A) chromic 4-0 or 3-0

171
Q

Rhinoplasty means to

A) fixation of the mandible

B) restoration of the esophagus

C) patent airway

D) shaping of the nose

A

D) shaping of the nose

172
Q

Which term indicates low or decreased blood volume?

A) anoxemia

B) hypovolemia

C) hypoxia

D) hypocapnia

A

B) hypovolemia

173
Q

What other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with a bariatric procedure?

A) cholelithiasis

B) degenerative osteoarthritis

C) non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

D) obstructive sleep apnea

A

A) cholelithiasis

174
Q

An entire tumor/ mass removal is termed

A) needle biopsy

B) staging biopsy

C) excisional biopsy

D) incisional biopsy

A

C) excisional biopsy

175
Q

What is the name of the common disposable surgical gown style?

A) cylindrical

B) turnaround

C) wraparound

D) circumferential

A

C) wraparound

176
Q

When transporting a patient on a stretcher through the OR suite corridors, which method should be followed?

A) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing feet first and the patient flat and restrained.

B) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing head first and the patient flat and restrained.

C) Push the stretcher with the patient facing feet first in the position most comfortable for the patient.

D) Push the stretcher with the patient facing head first in the position most comfortable for the patient.

A

C) Push the stretcher with the patient facing feet first in the position most comfortable for the patient.

177
Q

Dextrocardia is

A) heart displaced to the right

B) heart displaced to the left

C) heart retroverted in the thoracic cavity

D) excessive amount of dextrose in the heart

A

A) heart displaced to the right

178
Q

Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?

A) They should be counted while all still on back table.

B) They are unnecessary if only one tray is opened for use.

C) They are required by state law for every surgical procedure.

D) They have been replaced by routine practice of post-op x-ray to verify no retained instruments.

A

A) They should be counted while all still on back table.

179
Q

Which of the following dilators are used to dilate the urethra?

A) Hanks

B) Hagar

C) Cysto

D) Van Buren

A

D) Van Buren

180
Q

Afebrile means

A) without fever

B) brittle bones

C) Having a high fever

D) showing signs of infection

A

A) without fever

181
Q

The proper method of removing the gallbladder specimen after complete dissection and irrigation of the operative site in a laparopscopic cholecystectomy is to

A) utilize an endobag

B) pull gallbladder through the largest port

C) decompress the gallbladder by suctioning bile before removal

D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

182
Q

One One-thousandth of a liter

A) Minum

B) Millimeter

C) Milligram

D) Milliliter

A

D) Milliliter

183
Q

A penile defect in which the urethra ends on the ventral surface of the penile shaft or in the perineum is termed

A) epispadias

B) Chordee

C) phimosis

D) hypospadias

A

D) hypospadias

184
Q

Transurethral

A) urethral patency

B) pertaining to across the urethra

C) beyond the bladder

D) urethral obstruction

A

B) pertaining to across the urethra

185
Q

Vomiting from preoperative narcotics can predispose patients with diabetes to fluid and electrolyte imbalances resulting in:

A) hypertension

B) hypotension

C) hyperglycemia

D) hypoglycemia

A

D) hypoglycemia

186
Q

A preoperative diagnosis of cholelithiasis indicates a/an

A) infection in the large intestine

B) adnormal condition of the vagina

C) abnormal condition of kidney stones

D) condition of gallstones

A

D) condition of gallstones

187
Q

Which level of trauma center designation can meet all the needs required for treating patients on a 24-hour basis?

A) Level I

B) Level II

C) Level III

D) Level IV

A

A) Level I

188
Q

The procedure preformed to open a stricture at the gastric outlet on an infant is

A) gastrectomy

B) pyloral myotomy

C) pyloric stenting

D) Ramstedt

A

B) pyloral myotomy

189
Q

Vaporization and coagulation of hemorrhoidal tissue can be accomplished with

A) cautery, bipolar

B) cautery, monopolar

C) CO2 laser

D) cryosurgery

A

C) CO2 laser

190
Q

What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?

A) benign prostatic hypertrophy

B) carcinoma of the prostate

C) erectile dysfunction

D) stress incontinence

A

A) benign prostatic hypertrophy

191
Q

The purpose of the kidney lift is to

A) increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest

B) increase the space between the ribs

C) stabilize the patient

D) support the body in the flexed position

A

A) increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest

192
Q

Filiforms are used to:

A) Bypass urethral obstruction

B) Perform urethrogram

C) Stent the ureter

D) Remove stones

A

A) Bypass urethral obstruction

193
Q

Pathogenic is

A) bacteria

B) invading echoli

C) streptococous aureus

D) agent which produces disease

A

D) agent which produces disease

194
Q

Microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure is termed

A) spermatogenesis

B) orchiopexy

C) vasovasostomy

D) vasectomy

A

C) vasovasostomy

195
Q

What would be the likely result of positioning the patient’s arms on armboards at a greater than 90° angle from the torso?

A) brachial plexus hyperextension

B) foot drop

C) hamstring strain

D) restriction of respiratory freedom

A

A) brachial plexus hyperextension

196
Q

The telescoping of the proximal intestine into the lumen of the distal intestine is called

A) volvulus

B) intussusception

C) pyloric stenosis

D) ileal atresia

A

B) intussusception

197
Q

The suffix -meter is a term for?

A) vision

B) measure

C) treatment

D) viewing

A

B) measure

198
Q

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the scrotumis a/n

A) hydrocele

B) eneterocele

C) varicocele

D) hydronephrosis

A

A) hydrocele

199
Q

What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy?

A) excising Gerota’s fascia from around the kidney

B) cutting between the ligaclips placed on the renal vessels

C) insufflating the peritoneal cavity after initial port placement

D) chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

A

D) chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

200
Q

Which two members of the surgical team are responsible for performing the counts to prevent retained items?

A) circulator and surgeon

B) circulator and surgical technologist

C) surgeon and first assistant

D) surgeon and surgical technologist

A

B) circulator and surgical technologist

NBSTSA Review (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions