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NBSTSA Review > SURGCOM4 > Flashcards

SURGCOM4 Flashcards

1
Q

Platelets are essential for:

A) coagulation of blood

B) controlling of infection

C) carrying oxygen

D) combating histamine effect

A

A) coagulation of blood

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2
Q

On the surface of the Earth, what causes objects to accelerate downward?

A) Energy

B) Excitation

C) Gravity

D) Electrical charges

A

C) Gravity

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3
Q

Otoplasty is performed for which of the following diagnosis?

A) otosclerosis

B) microtia

C) blepharochalasis

D) syndactylism

A

B) microtia

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4
Q

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

A) decontamination

B) debridement

C) dehiscence

D) desiccation

A

B) debridement

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5
Q

How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?

A) two

B) three

C) four

D) five

A

C) four

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6
Q

During a pedical flap mammoplasdty reconstruction, a commonly used muscle is the:

A) External oblique

B) Transverse rectus abdominis

C) Internal oblique

D) Flexor digitorum profundus

A

B) Transverse rectus abdominis

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7
Q

The valve to the right ventricle is the:

A) tricuspid

B) bicuspid

C) semilunar

D) pulmonary

A

A) tricuspid

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8
Q

The terminal portion of the large intestine is the

A) sigmoid

B) rectum

C) anus

D) anal canal

A

D) anal canal

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9
Q

The main purpose for Webril is

A) cast padding

B) under pneumatic tourniquet

C) pressure dressing

D) both A and B

A

D) both A and B

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10
Q

The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the

A) hilus

B) renal pelvis

C) renal capsule

D) cortex

A

A) hilus

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11
Q

Another name for a “mole” is a;

A) verruca

B) nevus

C) microtia

D) dermatochalasis

A

B) nevus

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12
Q

Which of the following are oil-producing glands?

A) apocrine

B) ceruminous

C) merocrine

D) sebaceous

A

C) merocrine

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13
Q

All of the following statements are true of the fiber optic light cord EXCEPT

A) A the cable is composed of thousands of glass or plastic fibers

B) the fibers are aligned in parallel longitudinal bundles

C) the cord can be overflexed and coiled

D) fibers are easily broken

A

C) the cord can be overflexed and coiled

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14
Q

Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?

A) apocrine

B) ceruminous

C) merocrine

D) sebaceous

A

A) apocrine

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15
Q

Which term describes the right and left (side to side) movements of a robotic manipulator that has 3-D capability?

A) axis

B) pitch

C) roll

D) yaw

A

D) yaw

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16
Q

The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the

A) azygos

B) hepatic

C) cephalic

D) basilic

A

A) azygos

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17
Q

The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the

A) mesovarian

B) ovarian

C) suspensory

D) broad

A

C) suspensory

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18
Q

Type of laser used to remove red and orange tattoo pigment?

A) Nd:YAG

B) CO2

C) Eximer

D) KTP

A

D) KTP

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19
Q

The space casued by the seperation of wound edges is called

A) lag phase

B) eviseration

C) fibrous scarring

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

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20
Q

Primary union wound healing occurs:

A) bottom to top

B) top to bottom

C) end to end

D) side to side

A

D) side to side

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21
Q

Mumps occur in the

A) sublingual glands

B) submandibular glands

C) parotid glands

D) thyroid glands

A

C) parotid glands

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22
Q

Which study assists a surgeon with determining the MOST effective antibiotic therapy for treatment of an SSI?

A) isotope scanning

B) plethysmography

C) culture and sensitivity

D) hemoglobin and hematocrit

A

C) culture and sensitivity

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23
Q

The nucleus palposus is the

A) cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

B) result of a ruptured dick

C) outer layer of fibrocartilage with in the disk

D) covering of the intervetebral disk

A

A) cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

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24
Q

Cross-matching of blood

A) determines patients blood type

B) determines Rh factor of both patient and donor

C) determines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC’s with recipient serum

D) determines blood group of donor

A

C) determines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC’s with recipient serum

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25
Q

Which type of laser uses gases that are toxic and potentially fatal, and therefore rarely used in the OR setting?

A) argon

B) CO2

C) excimer

D) krypton

A

C) excimer

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26
Q

Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?

A) blepharoplasty

B) cheiloplasty

C) mentoplasty

D) rhytidectomy

A

D) rhytidectomy

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27
Q

The postoperative complication attributed to glove powder entering a wound is

A) granulomata

B) infection

C) inflammation

D) keloid formation

A

A) granulomata

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28
Q

Which burn classification is characterized by dry white skin and generally have little pain associated with this burn?

A) First degree

B) Second degree

C) third degree

D) Fourth degree

A

C) third degree

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29
Q

Clean cut wounds are classified as

A) lacerated

B) contused

C) incised

D) disrupted

A

C) incised

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30
Q

When performing a rhinoplasty, the hump in the nose is removed with a/an:

A) Osteotome

B) Periosteal elevator

C) Reciprocating saw

D) Chisel

A

D) Chisel

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31
Q

Wound classification where entry was made into the respiratory tract under controlled conditions with no break in aseptic technique?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

A

B) Class II

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32
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly, it can result in:

A) adhesions

B) granulation

C) ischemia

D) keloids

A

C) ischemia

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33
Q

The function of the trachea is to

A) conduct air into the larynx

B) serve as a pathway for food into the esophagus

C) serve as a resonating chamber for speech

D) conduct air to and from the lungs

A

D) conduct air to and from the lungs

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34
Q

The white outer layer of the eyeball is the

A) conjunctiva

B) sclera

C) choroid

D) retina

A

B) sclera

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35
Q

Wound classification in which the procedure was completed under ideal conditions with a primary closure?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

A

A) Class I

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36
Q

Dr. T has scheduled a FTSG. Why would he opt for this instead of STSG?

A) It will be grafted near a joint

B) It will heal more quickly

C) It will cause more contracture

D) It contains less padding tissue than STSG

A

A) It will be grafted near a joint

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37
Q

Question 37
Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?

A) Permanent implants are placed, and the nipple-to-nipple distance is measured for symmetry.

B) Permanent implants are placed and filled with measured amount of saline to determine volume.

C) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with measured amounts of saline to determine volume.

D) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.

A

D) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.

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38
Q

The largest part of the brain is the

A) brain stem

B) cerebrum

C) diencephalon

D) cerebellum

A

B) cerebrum

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39
Q

The tubes or cup-like extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called

A) glomeruli

B) convoluted tubules

C) Bowman’s capsules

D) calyces

A

D) calyces

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40
Q

The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the

A) aortic semilunar

B) pulmonary semilunar

C) bicuspid

D) tricuspid

A

D) tricuspid

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41
Q

An item used for padding that has smooth and clingy layers is called

A) Webril

B) stockingnette

C) telfa

D) gypsum

A

A) Webril

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42
Q

Which of the following signs would you expect if a patient was hemorrhaging?

A) slow pulse

B) hypertension

C) cool moist skin

D) flushed face

A

C) cool moist skin

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43
Q

Hypaque, Cystografin, and Renografin are:

A) antiseptic prep solutions

B) bacterial staining compounds

C) contrast media

D) tissue preservatives

A

C) contrast media

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44
Q

What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?

A) contracture

B) dermachalasis

C) polydactyly

D) syndactyly

A

D) syndactyly

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45
Q

Roentgenography, named for the German physicist who discovered it, is better known today as:

A) echocardiography

B) pulse oximetry

C) radiography

D) ultrasonography

A

C) radiography

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46
Q

The removal of devitalized tissue is:

A) dermabrasion

B) escharotomy

C) fasciotomy

D) debridement

A

D) debridement

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47
Q

Another name for a suture ligature is a:

A) free tie

B) stick tie

C) tie-on-a-passer

D) ligature reel

A

B) stick tie

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48
Q

Auscultation involves use of a(n):

A) otoscope

B) stethoscope

C) laparoscope

D) bronchoscope

A

B) stethoscope

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49
Q

The mineral essential for the formation of red blood cells is:

A) sodium

B) iodine

C) calcium

D) iron

A

D) iron

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50
Q

Which of the following parts for robotic surgery should not be sterilized?

A) Manipulators

B) The collar that connects the endoscope

C) The endoscope

D) Surgical instrumentation

A

A) Manipulators

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51
Q

The ability of the robot to see in dim light is known as

A) stereo vision

B) binaural vision

C) sensitivity

D) depth perception

A

C) sensitivity

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52
Q

Following a contaminated traumatic injury, the patient must be preventatively treated for

A) hepatitis

B) gas gangrene

C) tetanus bacillus

D) bacterenia

A

C) tetanus bacillus

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53
Q

What term is used when the surgeon performs the surgical procedure miles away from the surgeon?

A) Expert systems

B) Telesurgery

C) Coordinate geometry

D) Degrees of Freedom

A

B) Telesurgery

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54
Q

Formation of excessive scar tissue in skin, fascia, muscle or a joint

A) Contracture

B) edema

C) Granuloma

D) Hematoma

A

A) Contracture

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55
Q

The term used to discribe the laser beam that can disperse in all directions, causing a decrease in intensity; spreading over a large area

A) Reflection

B) Scattering

C) Transmission

D) Absorption

A

B) Scattering

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56
Q

Which nonsuture needle is used for insufflation of carbon dioxide into the abdomen for laparoscopy?

A) arterial

B) hypodermic

C) spinal

D) Veress

A

D) Veress

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57
Q

The bones of the palm of the hand are reffered to as

A) phalanges

B) carpals

C) metacarpals

D) calcaneous

A

C) metacarpals

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58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?

A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.

B) Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.

C) Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.

D) Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.

A

A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.

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59
Q

Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure?

A) elliptical

B) oblique

C) paramedian

D) Z-shaped

A

A) elliptical

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60
Q

Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:

A) malar implants

B) mastopexy

C) mentoplasty

D) marsupialization

A

B) mastopexy

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61
Q

The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:

A) chin

B) lower lip

C) upper lip

D) nasal septum

A

A) chin

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62
Q

In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what percentage range of capacity?

A) 10% to 20%

B) 25% to 40%

C) 50% to 79%

D) 96% to100%

A

D) 96% to100%

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63
Q

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located

A) along the side of the neck

B) above and near the ear

C) under the tongue

D) in the back of the neck

A

A) along the side of the neck

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64
Q

A suture at the secondary suture line is a:

A) stick tie

B) ligature

C) traction suture

D) retention suture

A

D) retention suture

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65
Q

Wound classification with a dirty traumatic wound that is over 4 hours old.

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

A

D) Class IV

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66
Q

The four agents mixed together for injection during a tumescent liposuction are:

A) Analgesic, Heparin, Papaverine, dye

B) Antibiotic, Scopolomine, Dexamethasone, Vasopressor

C) Local anesthetic, apinephrine, Wydase, Saline

D) Cholinergic, thrombin, Atracurium, calcium

A

C) Local anesthetic, apinephrine, Wydase, Saline

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67
Q

The Spleen is located

A) in the left hypochondriac region

B) behind the liver

C) behind the left kidney

D) behind the right kidney

A

A) in the left hypochondriac region

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68
Q

The TRAM in room 5 will utilize which muscle to recontruct the patients breast?

A) Internal oblique

B) Pectoralis

C) Transverse Rectus

D) External oblique

A

C) Transverse Rectus

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69
Q

Which of the following lasers does not require a laser beam?

A) carbon dioxide

B) holmium

C) argon

D) Nd:YAG

A

C) argon

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70
Q

When a vessel cannot be accessed percutaneously for angiography, how else could it be done?

A) auscultation

B) cut-down

C) digital subtraction

D) palpation

A

B) cut-down

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71
Q

All are advantages of robotic surgery EXCEPT

A) reduction of hand tremors

B) plays a role in distant surgical interventions

C) it is expensive and uses valuable resources

D) robotic images are three-dimensional

A

C) it is expensive and uses valuable resources

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72
Q

Which type of suture is often used to create a vascular anastomosis?

A) synthetic, absorbable, multifilament on a 3/8 circle cutting needle

B) synthetic, nonabsorbable, multifilament on a 1/2 circle taper needle

C) synthetic, absorbable, monofilament on a Keith straight needle

D) synthetic, nonabsorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles

A

D) synthetic, nonabsorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles

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73
Q

Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?

A) breast

B) hand

C) lip

D) palate

A

A) breast

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74
Q

One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the “master gland” is the

A) thyroid

B) pituitary

C) pineal

D) adrenal

A

B) pituitary

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75
Q

Inflammatory lesion surrounding a foreign substance in a wound

A) Granuloma

B) Granulation

C) cyst

D) tumor

A

A) Granuloma

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76
Q

Which of the following is a safety mechanism engineered into the ESU that alerts the surgical team that the device is being activated?

A) audible tone

B) flashing light on pencil

C) smoke from generator

D) vibration of electrodes

A

A) audible tone

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77
Q

Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?

A) free flap

B) full thickness

C) pedicle flap

D) split thickness

A

C) pedicle flap

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78
Q

For which anatomic area is ultrasonography ineffective?

A) amniotic sac

B) heart

C) lungs

D) veins

A

C) lungs

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79
Q

During peripheral nerve repair, which of the following suture would commonly be used?

A) chromic gut

B) silk

C) nylon

D) stainless steel

A

C) nylon

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80
Q

What is the chemical name of Gore-Tex suture?

A) polybutester

B) polypropylene

C) polyglactin 910

D) polytetrafluoroethylene

A

D) polytetrafluoroethylene

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81
Q

The outer layer of the kidney is known as the

A) medulla

B) glomerulus

C) nephron

D) cortex

A

D) cortex

82
Q

For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?

A) cleft lip repair

B) otoplasty for microtia

C) TRAM flap reconstruction

D) fasciectomy for Dupuytren’s contracture

A

B) otoplasty for microtia

83
Q

Rapid serial film changers and pressure injectors are used in which diagnostic imaging study?

A) angiogram

B) CT scan

C) echocardiogram

D) MRI scan

A

A) angiogram

84
Q

Which type of suture ties has an attached needle?

A) free tie

B) ligature reel

C) suture ligature

D) tie-on-a-passer

A

C) suture ligature

85
Q

What is the name of a small, white, mature surface scar that appears during the maturation phase?

A) cicatrix

B) granuloma

C) keloid

D) seroma

A

A) cicatrix

86
Q

Which diagnostic method requires use of an image intensifier?

A) CT scanning

B) MRI scanning

C) fluoroscopy

D) ultrasonography

A

C) fluoroscopy

87
Q

Not all patients are suitable for MIS. The term is for patients who have scarring of internal organs due to previous abdominal surgeries is

A) abdominal adhesions

B) wound dehiscence

C) intestinal polyps

D) evisceration

A

A) abdominal adhesions

88
Q

When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?

A) at conception

B) first trimester

C) second trimester

D) third trimester

A

B) first trimester

89
Q

The smooth, triangular area at the bottom of the bladder that contains three openings is called the

A) internal sohincter

B) urinary meatus

C) trigone

D) external os

A

C) trigone

90
Q

The ability of a machine, microscope, human, and robot to differentiate between two objects is called

A) resolution

B) binaural vision

C) cylindrical geometry

D) degrees of freedom

A

A) resolution

91
Q

Complications of wound closure when the organs protrude through the edges of the wound is

A) adhesions

B) dehiscence

C) evisceration

D) hemorrhage

A

C) evisceration

92
Q

Which type of laser has a wavelength that creates a bright blue-green visible light within a plasma tube?

A) argon

B) CO2

C) Ho:YAG

D) Nd:YAG

A

A) argon

93
Q

The longer wavelengths of the color spectrum are seen in what color?

A) Violet

B) Green

C) Blue

D) Red

A

D) Red

94
Q

Inadvertant removal of which on of the following drains during the first 48 hours after placement would cause the least concern?

A) T-Tube (gravity Drain)

B) wound sump drain

C) closed wound suction drain

D) nasogastric tube

A

D) nasogastric tube

95
Q

The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the

A) palatine bone

B) vomer

C) pterygoid hamulus

D) hyoid bone

A

D) hyoid bone

96
Q

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk of the body?

A) 18%

B) 14%

C) 10%

D) 6%

A

A) 18%

97
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause of a patient burn from alternate exit pathway of ESU current?

A) fingernail bed under the pulse oximeter

B) placement site of electrocardiogram (ECG) leads

C) skin over a bony prominence such as the scapula

D) soles of the feet under the sequential pulsing pads

A

B) placement site of electrocardiogram (ECG) leads

98
Q

Which of the following interweaves its fibers during the maturation phase of wound healing and increases its tensile strength?

A) collagen

B) enzymes

C) fibrin

D) protein

A

A) collagen

99
Q

Which study uses frequencies of 1 to 10 million Hertz through human tissue for diagnostic purposes?

A) tomography

B) capnography

C) ultrasonography

D) electromyography

A

C) ultrasonography

100
Q

The mesentery is

A) a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan

B) A word synonymous with “fatty apron”

C) the membrane covering the surface of mpst abdominal organs

D) A structure that supports the sigmoid colon

A

A) a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan

101
Q

An “up and down” movement of a robot’s arm is known aas

A) roll

B) yaw

C) pitch

D) rotation

A

C) pitch

102
Q

Which absorbable suture provides for the MOST extended wound support?

A) Vicryl

B) Monocryl

C) PDS Plus

D) Polysorb

A

C) PDS Plus

103
Q

Brown and Padgett are examples of which type of equipment used for skin grafting?

A) knife dermatome

B) drum dermatome

C) motor dermatome

D) mesher

A

C) motor dermatome

104
Q

The descending colon is attached at this anatomical feature:

A) hepatic flexure

B) anterior flexure

C) splenic flexure

D) cecum

A

C) splenic flexure

105
Q

A patient is brought into the emergency room with the following injuries; a large bruise on the thigh, an irregular cut on the forhead, and the skin scraped off the arm. The wounds would be described as:

A) incise wound of thigh, abrasion of forehead, burns of the arm

B) avulsion of thigh, contused forehead, abrasion of arm

C) contused wound of thigh, contused forehead, abrasion of arm

D) abrasion of thigh, puncture wound to forehead, lacerated arm

A

C) contused wound of thigh, contused forehead, abrasion of arm

106
Q

Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?

A) abdominoplasty

B) blepharoplasty

C) mentoplasty

D) otoplasty

A

B) blepharoplasty

107
Q

All are guidelines for proper handling of a telescope EXCEPT

A) take care to prevent scratches or dents in the shaft of the scope

B) always hold the scope by its shaft

C) use warm water or a defogger to prevent the lens from fogging during surgery

D) everyone who handles the scope from processing to end stage is responsible to ensure integrity of the instrument

A

B) always hold the scope by its shaft

108
Q

A collection of fluid in tissue would result in all of the following except:

A) hemostasis

B) a culture medium of bacteria

C) pressure on adjacent organs

D) elevation of skin flap with the loss of vascularity and predisposition to wound disruption

A

A) hemostasis

109
Q

The sterile liquid placed on the donor skin site as a lubricant when a split-thickness skin graft is taken is:

A) Povidone-iodine

B) Hibliclens

C) Mineral Oil

D) Alcohol

A

C) Mineral Oil

110
Q

A gap left in wound caused by separation of wound edges

A) granulation

B) hematoma

C) debridement

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

111
Q

Which of the following tissues is NOT part of the abdominal wall closure when retention sutures are placed?

A) fascia lata

B) mesentery

C) peritoneum

D) subcutaneous fat

A

B) mesentery

112
Q

Laser that is invisible to the human eye and requires a helium-neon laser beam that produces a red light to make it visible. It is used in a wide variety of surgeries including microsurgery.

A) Holmium Yag

B) Argon

C) CO2

D) KTP

A

C) CO2

113
Q

Sutures may be available with a designation of “plus” for some sutures, which means they:

A) are longer strands than the original versions

B) have more than one needle in the package

C) have a heavier gauge needle for thicker tissues

D) are impregnated with an antibacterial coating

A

D) are impregnated with an antibacterial coating

114
Q

Which of the following wounds would be assigned a Class I?

A) compound femoral fracture

B) gunshot wound to the abdomen

C) appendectomy with no major intestinal spillage

D) inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique

A

D) inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique

115
Q

What is the term for the process of starting up when a computer is initially turned on?

A) bolding

B) booting

C) burning

D) browsing

A

B) booting

116
Q

The following equipment must be available during a laser laryngoscopy:

A) water and wet cottonoids

B) tracheotomy tray,wet towels

C) bronchoscope, tracheotomy tray

D) None of the above

A

A) water and wet cottonoids

117
Q

What is used to close the epidermal layer when a subcuticular wound closure has been done for good cosmesis?

A) suture bridge

B) skin closure tapes

C) split lead shots

D) suture anchors

A

B) skin closure tapes

118
Q

Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?

A) 20

B) 30

C) 40

D) 50

A

C) 40

119
Q

The upper, flaring portion of hipbone is the

A) ischium

B) pubis

C) ilium

D) femoral head

A

C) ilium

120
Q

The supportive structure of the male reproductive system is the

A) inguinal canal

B) cremaster muscle

C) vas deferens

D) spermatic cord

A

D) spermatic cord

121
Q

The number of pairs of ribs is

A) 12

B) 10

C) 8

D) 7

A

A) 12

122
Q

The small sensitive structure of the female homologous to the male penis is the

A) hymen

B) clitoris

C) perineum

D) vestibule

A

B) clitoris

123
Q

The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart, which is called the

A) sinoatrial node

B) atrioventricular node

C) atrioventricular bundle

D) Purkinje fibers

A

A) sinoatrial node

124
Q

All of the following rules cover handling of prosthetic devices during plastic surgery procedures EXCEPT

A) powder must be wiped from gloves before handling

B) prosthesis must be dried completely before implant

C) gloves must be used to prevent skin oils from causing inflammatory response

D) prosthesis must be placed on lint-free surface to sterilize

A

B) prosthesis must be dried completely before implant

125
Q

The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are:

A) corticoids

B) adrenalin

C) adrenocorticotropic

D) insulin

A

A) corticoids

126
Q

A sunburn is classified as a

A) second degree burn

B) first degree burn

C) third degree burn

D) Not classified

A

B) first degree burn

127
Q

Which of the following studies combines computed tomography with isotope scanning to highlight chemical or metabolic activity?

A) PET

B) IOC

C) MRI

D) EEG

A

A) PET

128
Q

The medial malleolus is a projection at the ankle of the:

A) radius

B) fibula

C) femur

D) tibia

A

D) tibia

129
Q

The layers of skin included in a full thickness skin graft is:

A) Epidermis only

B) Epidermis and dermis

C) Epidermis and portion of dermis

D) Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

A

B) Epidermis and dermis

130
Q

Which classification of wound healing is involved with perforated bowel?

A) Secondary intention

B) Primary intention

C) Third intention

D) Fourth intention

A

C) Third intention

131
Q

Which term describes the thumb side of the hand?

A) dorsal

B) radial

C) volar

D) ulnar

A

B) radial

132
Q

The gastroenemius is the chief muscle of the

A) calf of the leg

B) stomach

C) stomach’s greater curvature

D) thigh

A

A) calf of the leg

133
Q

A neurologist might order an EEG for a patient with which suspected diagnosis?

A) herniated disc

B) hydrocephalus

C) partial paralysis

D) seizure disorder

A

D) seizure disorder

134
Q

What is the term for the removal of foreign material or contaminated debris from a wound?

A) debridement

B) dehiscence

C) denuding

D) desiccation

A

A) debridement

135
Q

Which artery supplies the head and neck?

A) Subclavian

B) Carotid

C) Brachiocephalic

D) Aortic Arch

A

B) Carotid

136
Q

A wound that is not sutured and that gradually fills in by granulation heals by which intention?

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

B) second

137
Q

The degree of burn that destroys all layers of the skin and includes subcutaneous tissue is:

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

A

C) Third

138
Q

Which of the following intraoperative techniques would not promote wound healing?

A) inoculum of bacteria into the wound

B) preservation of blood supply

C) elimination of dead space

D) irrigation to debride the wound

A

A) inoculum of bacteria into the wound

139
Q

The normal range of lymphocytes is between

A) 10000 to13000

B) 5000 to 10000

C) 7000 to14000

D) 2000 to 5000

A

B) 5000 to 10000

140
Q

A patient undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:

A) Class I, primary union wound

B) hyperactive immune response

C) immunosuppressed status

D) vascular proliferation

A

C) immunosuppressed status

141
Q

The myocardium is the

A) sac surrounding the heart

B) lining of the heart

C) thick muscular wall of the heart

D) major blood vessel supplying the heart

A

C) thick muscular wall of the heart

142
Q

Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:

A) breasts

B) cheeks

C) eyes

D) nares

A

B) cheeks

143
Q

Technique used in arthroscopic MIS, hyteroscopy, and cystoscopy to expand the body cavity is

A) balloon dissection

B) continuous irrigation

C) insufflations

D) infiltration

A

B) continuous irrigation

144
Q

Collimated laser light is light in which the waves are:

A) triangulated

B) parallel

C) Coherent

D) Continuous

A

B) parallel

145
Q

Laser used for Skin resurfacing where the epidermis and a portion or the dermis is removed to reduce facial lines and wrinkles:

A) CO2

B) Argon

C) ND:Yag

D) Excimer

A

A) CO2

146
Q

For which procedure would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution?

A) abdominoplasty

B) liposuction

C) mastopexy

D) syndactyly release

A

B) liposuction

147
Q

Laser used in ophthamology surgery such as retinal tears, glaucoma, macular degeneration, retinopathy, and retinal vein occlusion and dermatological procedures to remove pigmented lesions.

A) CO2

B) Argon

C) Holmium Yag

D) Excimer

A

B) Argon

148
Q

Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren’s contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?

A) Derma-carrier

B) K-wires

C) lead hand

D) Senn retractors

A

C) lead hand

149
Q

The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the

A) vestibule

B) semicircular canal

C) labyrinth

D) cochlea

A

D) cochlea

150
Q

Wound classification in which a traumatic open wound is less than 4 hours old with acute inflammation present.

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

A

C) Class III

151
Q

What does a mesh graft device do?

A) It attaches a skin graft to the donor site.

B) It expands the size of the skin graft.

C) It slices a split thickness of donor skin.

D) It smoothes the skin graft to prevent bunching up.

A

B) It expands the size of the skin graft.

152
Q

What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?

A) horizontal mattress

B) figure of eight

C) purse-string

D) vertical mattress

A

B) figure of eight

153
Q

The purpose of the iris is to

A) regulate the amount of light entering the eye

B) protect the iris

C) supply the choroid with nourishment

D) receive images

A

A) regulate the amount of light entering the eye

154
Q

The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the

A) temporal

B) sphenoid

C) ethmoid

D) parietal

A

B) sphenoid

155
Q

During a repair of Cheiloschisis the procedure in which tissue from the cheek is used to cover the defect is:

A) Rhinoplasty

B) Palatoplasty

C) Triangular flap cheiloplasty

D) Rotational advancement cheiloplasty

A

D) Rotational advancement cheiloplasty

156
Q

A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called:

A) cartilage

B) tendon

C) joint

D) ligament

A

D) ligament

157
Q

An example of reticular tissue is:

A) bone

B) fascia

C) blood

D) muscle

A

C) blood

158
Q

Which condition of excess fluid is analyzed by thoracentesis?

A) ascites

B) hydrocephalus

C) hyperhidrosis

D) pleural effusion

A

D) pleural effusion

159
Q

The fourth force found only in nature, and not in the nucleus, is known as

A) electromagnetic force

B) gravitational force

C) binding energy

D) kinetic energy

A

B) gravitational force

160
Q

Resonant frequency capacitive coupling and dielectric breakdown are examples of:

A) computer program malfunctions

B) electrosurgery burns to personnel

C) laser energy tissue effects

D) robotic operation modes

A

B) electrosurgery burns to personnel

161
Q

What is the primary reason bolsters are used with retention sutures?

A) to facilitate easy postop suture removal

B) to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin

C) to stabilize heavy dressings without use of tape

D) to prevent dressings from touching the suture line

A

B) to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin

162
Q

Robots are said to have joints like humans that allow the robot to move on certain planes. They refered to this as being:

A) Binaural

B) Roll

C) Telechir

D) articulated

A

D) articulated

163
Q

Laser beams that are parallel and do not spread out as they travel are?

A) Monochromatic

B) Collimated

C) Coherent

D) Stimulated

A

B) Collimated

164
Q

All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:

A) periareolar

B) subclavicular

C) axillary crease

D) inframammary crease

A

B) subclavicular

165
Q

Tissue breakdown at the wound margin is

A) adhesion

B) hematoma

C) debridement

D) dehiscence

A

D) dehiscence

166
Q

The highly specialized blood cell whose funstion is oxygen transportation

A) red blood cell

B) white blood cell

C) blood plasma

D) fibrinogen

A

A) red blood cell

167
Q

Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy?

A) fifth (V)

B) sixth (VI)

C) seventh (VII)

D) eighth (VIII)

A

C) seventh (VII)

168
Q

A graft containing epidermis and only a pertion of the dermis is called a

A) split-thickness graft

B) full-thickness Wolfe graft

C) composite graft

D) full-thickness pinch graft

A

A) split-thickness graft

169
Q

During routine robotic surgery procedures, where is the surgeon?

A) sitting on the contralateral side of the OR table from the surgical site

B) standing on the operative side of the OR table

C) sitting at the robotic console separate from the OR table

D) standing between the patient’s legs, which are in low-lithotomy stirrups

A

C) sitting at the robotic console separate from the OR table

170
Q

The opposite charged ends of a magnet are its:

A) apertures

B) filaments

C) gaps

D) poles

A

D) poles

171
Q

Which of the following is associated with secondary intention wound healing?

A) Wound that is sutured together

B) Infected contaminated wound

C) Wound space that is packed

D) Wound that is not sutured

A

D) Wound that is not sutured

172
Q

The first ring of the tracheal cartilage, utilized during Sellick’s maneuver is the:

A) thyroid cartilage

B) cricoid cartilage

C) laryngeal cartilage

D) hyoid cartilage

A

B) cricoid cartilage

173
Q

Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure?

A) transversus abdominis

B) rectus abdominis

C) latissimus dorsi

D) pectoralis major

A

B) rectus abdominis

174
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of a liposuction?

A) electrosurgery

B) laser

C) tumescent

D) ultrasonic

A

A) electrosurgery

175
Q

What is the term for the developing technology of performing a surgical procedure in real time but from a distant location?

A) Cartesian coordinate geometry

B) expert systems

C) revolute geometry

D) telesurgery

A

D) telesurgery

176
Q

A cicatrix is

A) an abcess

B) a scar

C) pus

D) a wound

A

B) a scar

177
Q

Which generation of robots does NOT have any degree of artificial intelligence (AI) and requires consistent oversight?

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

A) first

178
Q

Blood is supplies to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the

A) thoracic aorta

B) aortic arch

C) abdominal aorta

D) pulmonary artery

A

C) abdominal aorta

179
Q

Which structure is also known as the “fatty apron”?

A) greater omentum

B) lesser omentum

C) mesentary

D) falciform ligament

A

A) greater omentum

180
Q

The nerves that control the release of epinephrine during “Fight or flight” are the:

A) sympathetic nerves

B) parasympathtic nerves

C) cranial nerves

D) lumbar nerves

A

A) sympathetic nerves

181
Q

Bilateral incision through the fascia to release the tourniquet effect on an extremity or the chest; done to improve circulation:

A) Cut down

B) Fasciotomy

C) Full-Thickness graft

D) osteotomy

A

B) Fasciotomy

182
Q

The loose skin covering the glans penis like a sheath is called the

A) crura

B) prepuce

C) bulb

D) tunica albuginea

A

B) prepuce

183
Q

A ganglion is a

A) chemical substance secreted by the ova

B) necrotic death of tissue

C) missing segment

D) collection of nerve endings

A

D) collection of nerve endings

184
Q

The number of pairs of spinal nerves is

A) 12

B) 28

C) 30

D) 31

A

D) 31

185
Q

The lack of voluntary control over micturation is called

A) retention

B) urination

C) incontinence

D) suppression

A

C) incontinence

186
Q

The wall or partition dividing the heart into right and left sides is called the

A) semilunar valve

B) mitral valve

C) chordae tendeneae

D) septum

A

D) septum

187
Q

Which of the following skin closure materials would be appropriate for use in hand surgery?

A) staples

B) 0 Chromic gut on a cutting needle

C) 5-0 nylon on a cutting needle

D) 2-0 Vicryl on a taper needle

A

C) 5-0 nylon on a cutting needle

188
Q

Which nonadherent surgical dressing is used for a clean surgical wound and also care of specimans?

A) Sterile gauze

B) Telfa

C) ABD

D) xeroform

A

B) Telfa

189
Q

The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the

A) stomach

B) intestines

C) spleen

D) kidney

A

B) intestines

190
Q

The absence of a normal body opening, duct or canal is called:

A) atrophia

B) atrichia

C) ataxia

D) atresia

A

D) atresia

191
Q

Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:

A) epinephrine

B) mineral oil

C) phenylephrine

D) thrombin

A

B) mineral oil

192
Q

What is the term for a type of suture that has the strand of suture material inserted into the hollowed-out needle end?

A) closed eye

B) crimped

C) French-eye

D) swaged

A

D) swaged

193
Q

A circumferential bandage should be applied to an extremity

A) distal to proximal

B) proximal to distal

C) anterior to lateral

D) medial to anterior

A

A) distal to proximal

194
Q

Tissue trauma is minimized by using which type of suture-needle combination?

A) threaded suture on a closed-eye taper needle

B) threaded suture on a closed-eye Keith needle

C) suture loaded on a French-eyed taper needle

D) suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle

A

D) suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle

195
Q

The artery at the back of the knee is the

A) popliteal

B) femoral

C) iliac

D) celiac

A

A) popliteal

196
Q

The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the

A) sphincter of Oddi

B) ileocecal sphincter

C) pyloric sphincter

D) duodenal sphincter

A

B) ileocecal sphincter

197
Q

Removal of nonviable tissue from a nonhealing or traumatic wound is known as

A) debridement

B) undermining

C) grafting

D) Mohs surgery

A

A) debridement

198
Q

Wound healing that employs a technique allowing the wound to heal from the bottom up is called

A) interrupted intention

B) first intention

C) second intention

D) third intention

A

C) second intention

199
Q

Laser that produces a cool beam through fiberoptic bundles. It is extremely precise and commonly used in ophthalmic procedures and dermatology.

A) Argon

B) CO2

C) Holmium YAG

D) Excimer

A

D) Excimer

200
Q

A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age?

A) neonate

B) 12 months old

C) 10 years old

D) 21 years or older

A

B) 12 months old

NBSTSA Review (29 decks)

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