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NBSTSA Review > CRQ Microbiology > Flashcards

CRQ Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

When an infection is caused by a patient’s own normal flora, the source would be referred to as:

A) endogenous

B) exogenous

C) transient

D) airborne

A

A) endogenous

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2
Q

Airnorne contamination in the operating room can be reduced by:

A) negative air pressure

B) filtering out particles with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters

C) increasing traffic in and out of rooms

D) sterilization

A

B) filtering out particles with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters

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3
Q

What spore is used to test steam under pressure (steam sterilizer)

A) C perfringens

B) Bacillus stearothermophilus

C) Treponema pallidum

D) S aureus

A

B) Bacillus stearothermophilus

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4
Q

The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was

A) Ehrlich

B) Madame Curie

C) Alexander

D) Lister

A

D) Lister

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5
Q

The space caused by separation of wound edges is called

A) lag phase

B) evisceration

C) fibrous scarring

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

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6
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

A) Fusobacterium

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Clostridium perfringens

A

D) Clostridium perfringens

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7
Q

Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by

A) urine

B) feces

C) nose and mouth

D) sex organs

A

C) nose and mouth

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8
Q

The bacteria that are spherical in shape. appear in clusters, and are the most common cause of postoperative wound infections are:

A) Treponema Pallidum

B) Clostridium Perfringens

C) Escherichia coli

D) Staphylococcus aureus

A

D) Staphylococcus aureus

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9
Q

Which of the following bacilli are spore forming anaerobes, found in soil, and capable of causing gas gangrene

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) mycobacteria

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Bacillus subtilis

A

A) Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q

A tough resistent “shell form” of some gram-positive bacilli which is extremely resistant to destruction and toward which all sterilization methods are aimed is a/an:

A) capsule

B) endotoxin

C) endospore

D) flagellum

A

C) endospore

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11
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

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12
Q

Microbial death occurs when an organism is

A) reproducing at a slower rate

B) reduced in population

C) no longer capable of reproduction

D) exposed to heat

A

C) no longer capable of reproduction

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13
Q

A labaratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

A) Gram stain

B) iodine stain

C) acid fast stain

D) differential stain

A

A) Gram stain

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14
Q

Microorganisms that can be macroscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are:

A) bacteria

B) rickettsiae

C) protozoa

D) parasitic worms

A

D) parasitic worms

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15
Q

The microbes that reside on the skin and are easily removed are referred to as

A) resident

B) transient

C) aseptic flora

D) none of the above

A

B) transient

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16
Q

Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as

A) bacilli

B) cocci

C) spirilla

D) spirochetes

A

A) bacilli

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17
Q

The laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

A) Gram stain

B) iodine stain

C) acid fast stain

D) differential stain

A

A) Gram stain

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18
Q

Normal flora of the intestinal tract includes:

A) Lactobacillus acidophilus

B) Staphylococcus albus

C) Streptococcus pyogens

D) Escherichia coli

A

D) Escherichia coli

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19
Q

What immune protection is available to the fetus?

A) natural active

B) natural passive

C) active artificial

D) passive artificial

A

B) natural passive

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20
Q

A microbial relationship in which one organism lives completely at the expense of the host is:

A) parasitism

B) commensalism

C) symbiosis

D) antibiosis

A

A) parasitism

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21
Q

Tensile strength of a wound refers to

A) the suture strength

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

C) wound contraction

D) tissue approximation

A

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

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22
Q

The procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called

A) incision and drainage

B) dessication

C) lysis of adhesions

D) debridement

A

D) debridement

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23
Q

An enzyme produced by some virulent microorgansisms, such as hemolytic streptococcus, that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is:

A) fibrinolysin

B) coagulase

C) leukocidin

D) exotoxin

A

A) fibrinolysin

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24
Q

Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?

A) Clostridium tetani

B) Trypanosoma brucei

C) Pediculus vestimenti

D) Yersinia pestis

A

A) Clostridium tetani

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25
Q

The immunity received by having had a disease (e.i. measels) is known as:

A) naturally acquired active immunity

B) artificially acquired active immunity

C) naturally acquired passive immunity

D) artifically acquired passive immunity

A

A) naturally acquired active immunity

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26
Q

Bacteriostatic means

A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms

B) to destroy microorganisms

C) to control microorganisms

D) to inactivate microorganisms

A

A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms

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27
Q

The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called

A) symbiosis

B) mitosis

C) lymphocytosis

D) phagocytosis

A

D) phagocytosis

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28
Q

The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, peraly white, or charred-appearing surface is

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

C) third

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29
Q

What bacteria is the common cause for post operative wound infections?

A) S aureus

B) Rickettsiae

C) Hemophilus influenza

D) Candida

A

A) S aureus

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30
Q

Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and the loss of function. The redness can be attributed to

A) serum brought into the area

B) constriction of capillaries

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

D) heat from metabolic reaction

A

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

31
Q

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by

A) primary intention

B) secondary intention

C) third intention

D) fourth intention

A

B) secondary intention

32
Q

When a patient has a generalized (systemic) infection the white blood cell (WBC) count would:

A) increase

B) decrease

C) stay the same

D) not be a factor

A

A) increase

33
Q

The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into two groups is:

A) Gram Stain

B) acid-fast stain

C) simple stain

D) sensitivity study

A

A) Gram Stain

34
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to

A) provide guidelines to prevent transmission of blood-borne infections

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

C) require that communicable disease be reported to a public health agency

D) train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices

A

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

35
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease are known as:

A) carriers

B) pathogens

C) vectors

D) saprophytes

A

B) pathogens

36
Q

Organisms that cause hepatitis are:

A) bacteria

B) streptococci

C) protozoa

D) viruses

A

D) viruses

37
Q

When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as:

A) autoimmunity

B) rejection syndrome

C) anaphylaxis

D) passive immunity

A

A) autoimmunity

38
Q

A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Bordetella pertussis

C) Franciscella tularensis

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

A) Escherichia coli

39
Q

MRSA methicillin resistant S aureus is a strain of S aureus that is resistant to most antibiotics. What is the only drug of choice to treat MRSA at this time?

A) Vancomycin

B) Penicillin

C) Gentamicin

D) Keflex

A

A) Vancomycin

40
Q

What living cells are more complex, have nuclei and include protozoa, fungi, green, red and brown algae?

A) Eukaryotic

B) Facultative

C) Prokaryotic

D) Passive

A

A) Eukaryotic

41
Q

Mycotic Infections (athletes foot and ringworm) are caused by:

A) fungi

B) viruses

C) staphylcocci

D) rickettsiae

A

A) fungi

42
Q

The organism most frequently found in burns is

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Clostridium tetani

D) hemolytic streptococci

A

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

43
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

44
Q

Pathogens that get past the first line of defense are engulfed by white blood cells, a precess known as:

A) filtration

B) phagocytosis

C) antigen-antibody reaction

D) immunization

A

B) phagocytosis

45
Q

The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Streptococcus

C) Pseudomonas

D) Staphylococcus

A

B) Streptococcus

46
Q

Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be

A) anaerobic

B) bacillic

C) antibiotic

D) aerobic

A

D) aerobic

47
Q

The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is

A) superinfection

B) septicemia

C) cross-infection

D) cellulitis

A

B) septicemia

48
Q

An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as :

A) primary infection

B) acute infection

C) community-acquired infection

D) nosocomial infection

A

D) nosocomial infection

49
Q

Keloids are

A) a form of abcess

B) an adhered serous membrane

C) a raised, thickened scar

D) a benign tumor

A

C) a raised, thickened scar

50
Q

Hospital-acquired infections are known as

A) Antibiotic resistant

B) Bacteremia

C) Nosocomial

D) MRSA

A

C) Nosocomial

51
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause

A) ischemia

B) excessive scar tissue

C) keloids

D) adhesions

A

A) ischemia

52
Q

The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is

A) fibrinogen

B) prothrombin

C) fibrin

D) thrombin

A

A) fibrinogen

53
Q

A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called

A) arthus reaction

B) hypersensibility

C) anaphylactic shock

D) autoimmune disease

A

C) anaphylactic shock

54
Q

A bacterial pathogen most frequently invading damaged skin is

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Pseudomonas septica

D) Candida albicans

A

A) Staphylococcus aureus

55
Q

A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is

A) rabies

B) gas gangrene

C) pateurellosis

D) tetanus

A

B) gas gangrene

56
Q

Herpes simplex is commonly called

A) cold sore

B) shingles

C) smallpox

D) chicken pox

A

A) cold sore

57
Q

A cicatrix is

A) an abcess

B) a scar

C) pus

D) a wound

A

B) a scar

58
Q

The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is:

A) protective

B) strict

C) enteric

D) drainage and secretions

A

A) protective

59
Q

The most likely portal of entry for Treponema pallidum organism is:

A) the respiratory tract

B) a break in the skin

C) the genitourinary tract

D) the alimentary canal

A

C) the genitourinary tract

60
Q

Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called

A) metosis

B) miosis

C) osmosis

D) symbiosis

A

C) osmosis

61
Q

E coli is part of the normal flora of the __________ in humans.

A) skin

B) hair

C) intestinal tract

D) none of the above

A

C) intestinal tract

62
Q

Clostridium tetani causes

A) gangrene

B) nosocomial infection

C) lockjaw

D) malaria

A

C) lockjaw

63
Q

Host resistance to infection may be lowered by all of the following except:

A) poor circulation

B) presence of another disease process

C) emotional depression

D) proper nutritional state

A

D) proper nutritional state

64
Q

Which of the following factors would have the least effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it?

A) weight of host

B) resistance of the host

C) dose and virulence of the organism

D) duration of exposure

A

A) weight of host

65
Q

Which of the following infectious organisms is most likely to be transmiktted through a contaminated needle stick?

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) Hepatitis B (HBV)

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

B) Hepatitis B (HBV)

66
Q

A toxoid is

A) an inactivated toxin

B) a substance that elicits an immune response

C) a poison produced by an infectious agent

D) a substance that the body recognizes as foreign, thus evoking an immune response

A

A) an inactivated toxin

67
Q

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

A) decontamination

B) debridement

C) dehiscence

D) desiccation

A

B) debridement

68
Q

All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except

A) heat

B) pain

C) vasoconstriction

D) edema

A

C) vasoconstriction

69
Q

The bodies first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is

A) the immune response

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

C) cellular and chemical responses

D) phagocytosis

A

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

70
Q

Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?

A) moist

B) necrotic

C) dry

D) warm

A

B) necrotic

71
Q

The type of immunity that is acquired by a vaccination is

A) naturally acquired active immunity

B) naturally acquired passive immunity

C) artificial active acquired immunity

D) artificial passive acquired immunity

A

C) artificial active acquired immunity

72
Q

What gram stain turns red at the end of the staining procedure

A) gram-positive

B) gram-negative

C) acid fast positive

D) acid fast negative

A

B) gram-negative

73
Q

What organism is responsible for a boil?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Escherichia coli

D) Neisseria

A

A) Staphylococcus aureus

74
Q

Bacteria that live only in the presence of oxygen are called:

A) parasites

B) anaerobes

C) pathogens

D) aerobes

A

D) aerobes

NBSTSA Review (29 decks)

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