Supremo Opportunity Flashcards

1
Q

If “black” is said, it might make one think of the word “white.” The connection in one’s memory between these concepts is known as

  • associationism.
  • dualism.
  • empiricism.
  • nativism.
A

Associationism.

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2
Q

Which theorist was considered an empiricist?

  • Plato
  • Charles Darwin
  • Francis Galton
  • Aristotle
A

Aristotle

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3
Q

If one believes that all babies are born with the potential to become great musicians, one would agree with the ideas of

  • Plato.
  • Gottfried Leibniz.
  • John Locke.
  • Francis Galton.
A

John Locke.

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4
Q

Charles Darwin proposed three criteria for traits to evolve through natural selection. Which statement is an example of the criterion of relevance to survival?

  • Giraffe necks can range from short to long across members of the species.
  • Finch beaks range in shape from thin to thick.
  • Fawns with camouflaging spots will be protected from predators.
  • Neck length is a trait passed from giraffe parent to offspring.
A

Fawns with camouflaging spots will be protected from predators.

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5
Q

In experimental psychology, the group that receives the treatment is referred to as the:

  • control group.
  • independent variable.
  • correlational group.
  • dependent variable.
A

Independent variable.

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6
Q

In Ebbinghaus’s studies of memory, what was the dependent variable?

  • length of delay between learning and relearning
  • length of time it took to relearn a list
  • length of the list being learned
  • amount of practice done before being tested
A

Length of time it took to relearn a list

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7
Q

One problem with Ebbinghaus’s studies was that:

  • he did not manipulate any variables.
  • he used a double-blind design.
  • he used a blind design.
  • there was a possibility of subject bias.
A

There was a possibility of subject bias.

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8
Q

If experimenters play a very loud buzzer, a rat will be startled. If they repeatedly flash a light before the buzzer is played, the rat will eventually be startled by the light alone. This is an example of:

  • generalization.
  • classical conditioning.
  • the law of effect.
  • instrumental conditioning.
A

Classical conditioning.

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9
Q

Which statement predicts the law of effect?

  • If a tone is played while the dog is given food, the dog will eventually salivate in response to the tone.
  • If a child is bitten by a large black dog, the child will start to fear all dogs, not just large black dogs.
  • If a teenager is grounded for staying out past his curfew, he will come home on time in the future.
  • If one can remember a list of words for a few hours after studying it, one will be less likely to forget the list later on.
A

If a teenager is grounded for staying out past his curfew, he will come home on time in the future.

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10
Q

Behaviorism places the GREATEST emphasis on:

  • interpersonal relationships.
  • unconscious emotions.
  • observable behavior.
  • mental processes.
A

Observable behavior.

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11
Q

In the movie Trading Places, a millionaire bets his brother that he can turn a beggar and thief into an upstanding citizen and turn a wealthy, moral man into a common criminal, just by altering the circumstances and environment of the two men. This view reflects the ideas of:

  • John Watson.
  • Charles Darwin.
  • Plato.
  • René Descartes.
A

John Watson.

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12
Q

Emily believes that babies learn language simply by being rewarded for making the correct language-like sound in response to something they hear. Her idea about learning language is MOST similar to the ideas of:

  • B. F. Skinner.
  • Edward Tolman.
  • Herbert Simon.
  • George Miller.
A

B. F. Skinner.

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13
Q

Edward Tolman’s research on the formation of cognitive maps in rats was important because it:

  • demonstrated that learning is based on stimulus–response association.
  • emphasized the importance of studying the role of internal representations in learning.
  • enabled him to devise a comprehensive mathematical model of animal learning.
  • demonstrated the importance of insight in learning.
A

Emphasized the importance of studying the role of internal representations in learning.

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14
Q

George Miller demonstrated that short-term memory capacity for digits was:

  • between 10 and 20 digits.
  • virtually unlimited.
  • about 3 digits.
  • between 5 and 9 digits.
A

Between 5 and 9 digits.

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15
Q

Who proposed the idea that learning relies on network connections between simple processing units?

  • Herbert Simon
  • W. K. Estes
  • Edward Tolman
  • David Rumelhart
A

David Rumelhart

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16
Q

If one stubs one’s toe, the painful sensation is carried to the brain by neurons in the:

  • occipital lobe.
  • frontal lobe.
  • central nervous system.
  • peripheral nervous system.
A

Peripheral nervous system.

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17
Q

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for processing things that one hears?

  • frontal
  • temporal
  • occipital
  • parietal
A

Temporal

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18
Q

Comparative neuroanatomy refers to the examination of the similarities and differences among the:

  • brains of people of different ages.
  • cerebral hemispheres.
  • different lobes of the cerebral cortex.
  • brains of different organisms.
A

Brains of different organisms.

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19
Q

The ability of worms and jellyfish to learn is notable because they each have:

  • a CNS but not a PNS.
  • no recognizable brain.
  • no neurons.
  • very large brainstems.
A

No recognizable brain.

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20
Q

Which part(s) of a neuron send(s) signals to other neurons?

  • dendrites
  • the cell body
  • the axon
  • glia
A

The axon

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21
Q

Phrenology involves:

  • scanning the brains of living humans using a magnetic field.
  • associating deficits in mental abilities with damage to specific brain regions.
  • associating bumps on the skull with abilities and personality traits.
  • examining which parts of the brain are damaged after a head injury.
A

Associating bumps on the skull with abilities and personality traits.

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22
Q

A doctor is concerned that Martha has a dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?

  • phrenology
  • diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
  • computed tomography (CT) scan
  • magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A

Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

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23
Q

Which behavior is reflexive?

  • a dog salivating in response to food
  • a student studying hard after receiving a poor grade
  • a pigeon pecking at a light to obtain food
  • a child saying “please” in order to get a cookie
A

A dog salivating in response to food

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24
Q

The Bell-Magendie law:

  • applies to the brainstem but not to the spinal cord.
  • proposes one nerve system for sensing and another for responding.
  • applies to the central nervous system but not to the peripheral nervous system.
  • proposes that the brain is divided into two hemispheres.
A

Proposes one nerve system for sensing and another for responding.

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25
Q

When one recognizes a friend at a party, which brain area is the first to receive the information from one’s visual receptors?

  • the primary visual cortex (V1)
  • the primary sensory cortex
  • the thalamus
  • the frontal cortex
A

The thalamus

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26
Q

Suppose researchers train a pigeon to peck at a blue disc to obtain food. They then lesion a very small part of its brain and find that the pigeon has forgotten that it needs to peck the blue disc for food. Such a finding would be evidence for:

  • the theory of equipotentiality.
  • the Bell-Magendie law of neural specialization.
  • synaptic plasticity.
  • the engram.
A

The engram.

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27
Q

In neuroimaging studies, researchers use a(n) _____ to determine how activity at each point in the image has changed relative to a baseline.

  • engram
  • event-related potential
  • lesion
  • difference image
A

Difference image.

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28
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI):

  • directly measures neural activity.
  • usually picks up more areas of brain activation than does positron emission tomography (PET).
  • requires injecting radioactive materials into the participant’s bloodstream.
  • is faster than positron emission tomography (PET).
A

Is faster than positron emission tomography (PET).

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29
Q

Which mechanism is NOT one by which drugs alter synaptic transmission?

  • increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  • increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to receive neurotransmitter
  • decreasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  • altering the mechanisms for clearing neurotransmitter from the synapse
A

Increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to receive neurotransmitter

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30
Q

Long-term potentiation:

  • was first observed in the thalamus.
  • occurs when the postsynaptic neuron is stimulated with a high-frequency burst.
  • can last for hours or even longer.
  • involves a weakening in synaptic transmission following recent activity.
A

Can last for hours or even longer.

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31
Q

Suppose a person never buys eggs because he doesn’t like them. One weekend, he has guests who love eggs, and so he decides to buy some at the store. Even though he has never bought eggs at this store, he knows exactly where they are in the store from all the times he has shopped there before. The fact that he has learned where the eggs are during those past trips is an example of:

  • sensitization.
  • habituation.
  • latent learning.
  • perceptual learning.
A

Latent learning.

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32
Q

When Brenda and Don first got married, she was bothered by his snoring, but after 15 years of marriage, she barely notices it anymore. This is an example of:

  • habituation.
  • sensitization.
  • priming.
  • dishabituation.
A

Habituation.

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33
Q

Sarah woke up from a frightening dream. Lying awake in bed, she is overly frightened by the normal noises in her house. This is an example of:

  • habituation.
  • sensitization.
  • priming.
  • dishabituation.
A

Sensitization

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34
Q

Under which condition would there be a skin-conductance response to reveal sensitization?

  • playing a quiet noise right before a neutral musical tone
  • playing a loud noise right before a neutral musical tone
  • playing a neutral musical tone repeatedly
  • playing a loud noise repeatedly
A

Playing a loud noise right before a neutral musical tone

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35
Q

According to the dual-process theory of learning:

  • there are two mechanisms, only one of which is activated at any given time.
  • there are two mechanisms, both of which are activated to some degree.
  • the habituation mechanism is only activated by intense stimuli.
  • there is just one mechanism that accounts for learning.
A

There are two mechanisms, both of which are activated to some degree

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36
Q

Over the first several weeks of teaching a class, the teacher becomes better at telling her students apart. This is an example of:

  • habituation.
  • sensitization.
  • perceptual learning.
  • priming.
A

Perceptual learning

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37
Q

People are generally better at distinguishing individuals belonging to racial groups that they frequently encounter than individuals belonging to racial groups with whom they don’t interact. This is an example of:

  • habituation.
  • priming.
  • mere exposure learning.
  • discrimination training.
A

Mere exposure learning

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38
Q

Regarding spatial learning, it has been found that:

  • conscious effort is required for people to learn spatial layout.
  • rats can learn spatial layout even if they are not rewarded during learning.
  • wasps rely on an internal sense of direction, rather than environmental cues, to navigate to and from their nests.
  • rats learn to navigate mazes primarily by learning a sequence of movements.
A

Rats can learn spatial layout even if they are not rewarded during learning

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39
Q

In Aplysia touching the siphon causes the gill to withdraw. If the siphon is touched repeatedly, eventually the gill will not withdraw anymore. This is an example of:

  • habituation.
  • sensitization.
  • mere exposure learning.
  • learned non-use.
A

Habituation

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40
Q

In Aplysia, sensitization results from a(n):

  • decrease in glutamate released from the sensory neurons.
  • increase in glutamate released from the sensory neurons.
  • decrease in the number of sensory neurons.
  • increase in the number of motor neurons.
A

Increase in glutamate released from the sensory neurons

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41
Q

When visual input is absent from birth, it is often seen that other cortical areas take over the areas of the brain normally devoted to vision. This demonstrates:

  • habituation.
  • perceptual learning.
  • learned non-use.
  • cortical plasticity.
A

Cortical plasticity

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42
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding place cells?

  • They are hardwired at birth.
  • There are sufficient numbers of neurons to assign a place cell to every place one will ever encounter.
  • They respond to an internal sense of location in space but not to external location cues.
  • They each have a preferred location called a place field.
A

They each have a preferred location called a place field

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43
Q

Learned non-use occurs when a stroke patient stops using a body part because:

  • that body part being physically restrained.
  • of damage to the hippocampus.
  • of damage to the motor areas controlling that body part.
  • of lack of sensory input from that body part.
A

Of lack of sensory input from that body part

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44
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of constraint-induced movement therapy to treat learned non-use?

  • It exploits mechanisms of cortical plasticity.
  • It is less effective than encouraging people to use their affected limb.
  • It helps muscles to recover but has little effect on brain activity.
  • It is used when motor control is lost but sensation is retained.
A

It exploits mechanisms of cortical plasticity

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45
Q

An example of a sensory prosthesis is a:

  • cochlear implant.
  • place cell.
  • place field.
  • receptive field.
A

Cochlear implant.

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46
Q

Every day when Isabelle returns home from work, her son gives her a big hug as soon as she walks through the front door. Now, the sight of the front door makes Isabelle feel happy. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is:

  • Isabelle’s son.
  • the front door.
  • a big hug.
  • Isabelle.
A

The front door.

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47
Q

In eyeblink conditioning the puff of air is the:

  • CS.
  • US.
  • CR.
  • UR.
A

US.

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48
Q

Suppose a child acquired a fear of the doctor’s office because the office came to be associated with getting shots. To remove this fear, the child’s parents decide to bring the child to the doctor’s office several times each week without the child getting a shot. What technique are the parents using to eliminate the child’s fear?

  • extinction
  • blocking
  • trace conditioning
  • latent inhibition
A

Extinction

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49
Q

Because Carrie’s friend Emily often brings home-baked goodies when she visits, Carrie feels her mouth water at the sight of Emily. For one week Emily, brought her cousin Michelle with her whenever she visited Carrie. A few weeks later, Carrie bumped into Michelle at the store. In this scenario, blocking would be demonstrated if Carrie:

  • no longer feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
  • still feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
  • does not feel her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.
  • feels her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.
A

Does not feel her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.

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50
Q

If a US occurs just as often without the tone as it does in the presence of the tone, then little or no conditioning will accrue to the tone. This would suggest that animals are sensitive to _____ of the potential CS and US.

  • causality
  • contingency
  • cue-outcome
  • frequency
A

Contingency

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51
Q

In trace conditioning, the:

  • CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.
  • US begins before the CS and ends before the onset of the CS.
  • CS begins before the US and stays on until the US has occurred.
  • US begins before the CS and stays on until the CS has occurred.
A

CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.

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52
Q

The US first activates which brain area?

  • inferior olive
  • pontine nuclei
  • cerebellar cortex
  • interpositus nucleus
A

Inferior olive

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53
Q

Recordings of activity in the _____ during eyeblink conditioning in rabbits show activity that occurs _____ the response is made.

  • cerebellar cortex; a few milliseconds before
  • cerebellar cortex; at the same time as
  • interpositus nucleus; a few milliseconds before
  • interpositus nucleus; at the same time as
A

Interpositus nucleus; a few milliseconds before

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54
Q

Removing the interpositus nucleus results in:

  • small, poorly timed conditioned responses.
  • complete loss of conditioned responses.
  • small, poorly timed unconditioned responses.
  • complete loss of unconditioned responses.
A

Complete loss of conditioned responses.

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55
Q

The hippocampus:

  • must be intact for normal eyeblink conditioning to occur.
  • is especially active during the early phases of classical conditioning.
  • is important in mediating response timing.
  • computes the degree to which the US is unexpected.
A

Is especially active during the early phases of classical conditioning.

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56
Q

The mechanisms for classical conditioning in Aplysia involve _____ changes in the neural circuits that connect the _____.

  • presynaptic; CS and UR
  • postsynaptic; CS and UR
  • presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and UR
  • presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and CR
A

Presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and CR

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57
Q

It has been suggested that drug addicts should use small amounts of their drug during therapy to extinguish their habit. This is because:

  • the addict will experience less withdrawal.
  • drug use is part of the context.
  • drug use has become a US.
  • the addict will experience fewer cravings.
A

Drug use is part of the context.

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58
Q

According to the law of effect, Thorndike’s cats learned to escape the puzzle box because they:

  • learned the correct sequence of responses that led to a desirable outcome.
  • instinctively knew how to escape.
  • acquired an understanding of what they needed to do in order to escape.
  • learned the correct sequence of responses by watching other cats escape from similar boxes.
A

Learned the correct sequence of responses that led to a desirable outcome.

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59
Q

What is the main difference between classical and operant conditioning?

  • Operant conditioning shows extinction but classical conditioning does not.
  • Classical conditioning shows extinction but operant conditioning does not.
  • In operant conditioning, the outcome depends on the response, while, in classical conditioning, the outcome occurs, regardless of the response.
  • In classical conditioning, the outcome depends on the response, while, in operant conditioning, the outcome occurs, regardless of the response.
A

In operant conditioning, the outcome depends on the response, while, in classical conditioning, the outcome occurs, regardless of the response.

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60
Q

If a little boy can hear his mother moving around in the kitchen downstairs in the morning, he can be fairly certain that it is time to get up and have his breakfast. The discriminative stimulus in this example is the:

  • breakfast.
  • sounds of his mother moving around.
  • little boy.
  • kitchen.
A

Sounds of his mother moving around.

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61
Q

Darren is trying to get his young son to eat his peas. At first, Darren praises him whenever he moves his fork near the peas; after the child does this reliably, Darren praises him only if he actually puts a pea on his fork; then Darren’s praise is only given when the child puts a pea on his fork and moves the fork toward his mouth. Darren carries on this way until the child eats his peas. Darren is using _____ to get his son to eat his peas.

  • the matching law
  • a token economy
  • shaping
  • chaining
A

Shaping

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62
Q

Which is an example of a primary reinforcer?

  • money
  • praises
  • grades
  • food
A

Food

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63
Q

Six-year-old Timmy was misbehaving in class one morning. Which punishment is likely to be the MOST effective in preventing Timmy from misbehaving again?

  • making Timmy stay after school
  • making Timmy sit in the corner
  • taking Timmy aside at lunchtime and asking him to stop misbehaving
  • giving Timmy a warning, and making the punishment more severe if he misbehaves again
A

Making Timmy sit in the corner

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64
Q

Swatting a dog with a newspaper would be _____ of the behavior of chewing up one’s favorite socks.

  • positive reinforcement
  • positive punishment
  • negative reinforcement
  • negative punishment
A

Positive punishment

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65
Q

If it rains, opening the umbrella keeps one from getting wet. Escaping from getting wet would be _____ of the behavior of opening the umbrella.

  • positive reinforcement
  • positive punishment
  • negative reinforcement
  • negative punishment
A

Negative reinforcement

66
Q

In which example would one MOST likely see a steady rate of responding without any noticeable pauses?

  • A charitable organization receives a donation for every 10 phone calls it makes on average.
  • A teenager receives an allowance every Saturday.
  • A college student gets a call from home every Friday morning.
  • A blueberry picker receives $1 each time he fills three boxes.
A

A charitable organization receives a donation for every 10 phone calls it makes on average.

67
Q

If one buys lottery tickets, one may win on average every 15 times one plays. This is an example of a _____ schedule of reinforcement.

  • fixed-ratio
  • fixed-interval
  • variable-ratio
  • variable-interval
A

Variable-ratio

68
Q

According to the Premack principle, if a teenager would rather go shopping than clean her room:

  • her desire to clean her room will be increased by restricting her access to going shopping.
  • her desire to go shopping will be increased by restricting her access to cleaning her room.
  • allowing her to go shopping could be used as a reward for cleaning her room.
  • cleaning her room could be used as a reward for going shopping.
A

Allowing her to go shopping could be used as a reward for cleaning her room.

69
Q

The dorsal striatum seems to be especially important for learning:

  • whether an outcome is pleasant or unpleasant.
  • the identity of an expected outcome.
  • R–O associations.
  • S–R associations.
A

S–R associations.

70
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

  • Only primary reinforcers trigger dopamine release in the ventral tegmental area/substantia nigra pars compacta.
  • Animals will continue to work for electrical brain stimulation if dopamine transmission is blocked.
  • Dopamine seems to be involved in liking, rather than wanting, a reinforcer.
  • A trained animal will reduce its response rate if dopamine transmission is blocked.
A

A trained animal will reduce its response rate if dopamine transmission is blocked.

71
Q

The major difference between an individual who uses cocaine weekly and tried to stop and can’t and an individual that skydives weekly and can’t stop is that:

  • they both have a bad habit and can’t stop it.
  • the first individual is experiencing a pathological addiction, while the second individual is experiencing a behavioral addiction.
  • both individuals are seeking a “high,” but the skydiver isn’t worried about becoming addicted.
  • There is no difference—both individuals are suffering from a type of dysfunction.
A

The first individual is experiencing a pathological addiction, while the second individual is experiencing a behavioral addiction.

72
Q

Malcolm’s 2-year-old daughter throws a tantrum when she doesn’t get what she wants. Malcolm has decided to ignore his daughter whenever she has a tantrum. This is an example of:

  • extinction.
  • distancing.
  • reinforcement of alternative behaviors.
  • delayed reinforcement.
A

Extinction.

73
Q

Knowing that the speed limit on a highway is 65 kmph is an example of _____ memory.

  • nondeclarative
  • implicit
  • semantic
  • episodic
A

Semantic

74
Q

Remembering that one received a B in one’s last math test is an example of _____ memory.
- nondeclarative

  • implicit
  • semantic
  • episodic
A

Episodic

75
Q

Declarative memory:

  • includes both semantic and episodic memory.
  • is the same as implicit memory.
  • is not consciously accessible.
  • includes semantic memory but not episodic memory.
A

Includes both semantic and episodic memory.

76
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding episodic and semantic memory?

  • Semantic memory has autobiographical content, while episodic memory does not.
  • Episodic memory is acquired in a single exposure, while semantic memory usually requires multiple exposures.
  • Semantic memory is accessible to conscious recall, while episodic memory is not.
  • Episodic memory can be communicated in a format other than that in which it was acquired, while semantic memory cannot be communicated in a different format.
A

Episodic memory is acquired in a single exposure, while semantic memory usually requires multiple exposures.

77
Q

The finding that scrub jays can remember what type of food they stored in different locations as well as how long ago it was stored demonstrates that scrub jays may have _____ memory.

  • an episodic
  • a semantic
  • declarative
  • nondeclarative
A

An episodic

78
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the level of processing idea?

  • One remembers information better when one thinks about its meaning than when one focuses on more superficial characteristics.
  • It is clear how to determine whether information is processed deeply.
  • One remembers information best when it is presented multiple times.
  • There does not seem to be any difference in brain activity during “deep” versus “superficial” processing of information.
A

One remembers information better when one thinks about its meaning than when one focuses on more superficial characteristics.

79
Q

Which principle was demonstrated by Godden and Baddeley’s finding that divers remembered material best if they learned and were tested in the same environment?

  • interference
  • transfer-appropriate processing
  • consolidation
  • false memory
A

Transfer-appropriate processing

80
Q

If one studies for a psychology test, then studies for a biology test, one’s memory for the biology material can make it harder to remember the psychology material. This is an example of:

  • false memory.
  • transfer-appropriate processing.
  • proactive interference.
  • retroactive interference.
A

Retroactive interference.

81
Q

The findings regarding the effect of electroconvulsive shock on memory have been used to support the idea that:

  • information is remembered best when it can be related to prior knowledge.
  • memory is best when the encoding and retrieval contexts are the same.
  • memories have a consolidation period.
  • memory is better when more cues are present.
A

Memories have a consolidation period.

82
Q

Tanya remembers that her favorite celebrity is going to have twins, but she can’t recall where she heard this bit of gossip. This is an example of:

  • proactive interference.
  • retroactive interference.
  • source amnesia.
  • false memory.
A

Source amnesia.

83
Q

Francis has no memory for what he did today, although he can remember his childhood well. Which type of amnesia is Francis suffering from?

  • source
  • infantile
  • anterograde
  • retrograde
A

Anterograde

84
Q

Which brain area is involved in forming new episodic and semantic memories?

  • hippocampus
  • frontal cortex
  • diencephalon
  • basal forebrain
A

Hippocampus

85
Q

Which brain area is involved in determining which information has to be stored?

  • hippocampus
  • frontal cortex
  • diencephalon
  • basal forebrain
A

Frontal cortex

86
Q

Damage to the diencephalon can lead to:

  • retrograde amnesia, but not anterograde amnesia.
  • difficulty determining what information to store.
  • anterograde amnesia and confabulation.
  • difficulty remembering one’s identity.
A

Anterograde amnesia and confabulation.

87
Q

Transient global amnesia:

  • is one of the rarest forms of amnesia.
  • is psychological in nature.
  • usually lasts a few hours or days.
  • involves forgetting one’s identity.
A

Usually lasts a few hours or days.

88
Q

Which action is an example of a cognitive skill?

  • running
  • tying one’s shoes
  • climbing a ladder
  • balancing a checkbook
A

Balancing a checkbook

89
Q

An example of a closed skill is _____, and an example of an open skill is _____.

  • surfing; tying one’s shoes
  • tying one’s shoes; playing pat-a-cake
  • surfing; playing pat-a-cake
  • playing pat-a-cake; surfing
A

Playing pat-a-cake; surfing

90
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

  • Massed practice is more effective than spaced practice for long-term retention.
  • Constant practice is more effective than variable practice overall.
  • Massed practice requires less total practice time than spaced practice.
  • It is unclear whether constant practice or variable practice is more effective.
A

It is unclear whether constant practice or variable practice is more effective.

91
Q

If one is driven from home to school, one may learn the route without consciously trying to do so. This is an example of:

  • massed practice.
  • implicit learning.
  • skill decay.
  • the power law of practice.
A

Implicit learning.

92
Q

A person who is just learning to drive a car needs to listen carefully to all of the steps involved as his instructor is telling. Which stage of skill acquisition is the person in?

  • cognitive
  • associative
  • autonomous
  • expert
A

Cognitive

93
Q

A person who has a very hard time learning to play the piano but, with practice, becomes a concert pianist:

  • has talent but is not an expert.
  • has talent and has become an expert.
  • does not have talent but has become an expert.
  • does not have talent and is not an expert.
A

Does not have talent but has become an expert.

94
Q

Suppose a baby learns to eat using a spoon. According to the idea of transfer specificity, which action would the baby have the easiest time learning?

  • eating with a slightly larger spoon
  • eating with a fork
  • cutting her food with a knife
  • drinking from a cup
A

Eating with a slightly larger spoon

95
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding skill decay?

  • It can occur because of interference from newer skills.
  • It happens more for perceptual-motor skills than for cognitive skills.
  • It occurs at a fairly steady rate.
  • There is less decay if multiple skills are practiced on the same day.
A

It can occur because of interference from newer skills.

96
Q

The basal ganglia:

  • are especially important for performing skills that require precise timing.
  • are active when people learn cognitive skills.
  • send most of their output to the spinal cord.
  • are mainly involved in controlling complex actions.
A

Are active when people learn cognitive skills.

97
Q

Imagine a ballerina who has performed a particular ballet so many times that she doesn’t even need to think about the movements anymore. She has developed:

  • apraxia.
  • an open skill.
  • a motor program.
  • a talent.
A

A motor program

98
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the cerebral cortex?

  • Animals without much cerebral cortex cannot learn perceptual-motor tasks.
  • Practicing a perceptual-motor skill leads to increased cortical activity.
  • Practicing a skill leads to a decrease in the amount of cortical gray matter.
  • It is particularly important for tasks that involve tracking a target.
A

Practicing a perceptual-motor skill leads to increased cortical activity.

99
Q

According to the power law of practice, performance during learning:

  • starts slowly and then rapidly improves.
  • improves rapidly at first and then slows down.
  • improves at a steady rate.
  • improves rapidly at first and then declines.
A

Improves rapidly at first and then slows down.

100
Q

The cerebellum is:
- important for learning motions that involve precise timing.

  • only present in a few species.
  • particularly important for linking sensory events to motor responses.
  • involved in performing skills but not in learning them by watching others perform them.
A

Important for learning motions that involve precise timing

101
Q

A procedure that delivers an electrical current into a patient’s brain through one or more implanted electrodes is known as:

  • transcranial therapy.
  • deep brain stimulation.
  • electroconvulsive therapy.
  • perceptual motor therapy.
A

Deep brain stimulation.

102
Q

Which treatment is used to alleviate tremors and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease?

  • electroconvulsive therapy
  • perceptual motor therapy
  • transcranial therapy
  • deep brain stimulation
A

Deep brain stimulation.

103
Q

Sensory memory:

  • lasts for several minutes.
  • uses rehearsal to maintain information.
  • decays rapidly.
  • lasts longer when a whole-report procedure is used.
A

Decays rapidly.

104
Q

In his studies of visual sensory memory, George Sperling found that participants could remember more items from an array if:

  • there was a 1-minute delay between presentation of the array and recall.
  • a tone was played at the very start of each trial to catch their attention.
  • after the array disappeared, a tone was played to indicate which row to recall.
  • they were instructed to recall all of the items, rather than just a specific row.
A

After the array disappeared, a tone was played to indicate which row to recall.

105
Q

If one wants to retain a list of letters in one’s short-term memory, one should:

  • make sure there are no more than two or three letters on the list.
  • interrupt the rehearsal frequently.
  • try to group them so they form words.
  • use the partial-report technique.
A

Try to group them so they form words.

106
Q

In Baddeley’s working-memory model, the two short-term memory buffers are called the:

  • phonological loop and central executive.
  • visuospatial sketchpad and iconic memory.
  • iconic memory and short-term memory.
  • phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.
A

phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.

107
Q

The phonological loop can retain information for about how long?

  • 1/2 second
  • 2 seconds
  • 10 seconds
  • 2 minutes
A

2 seconds

108
Q

Which component of working memory would be responsible for remembering the locations of objects?

  • the phonological loop
  • the visuospatial sketchpad
  • the iconic memory
  • the central executive
A

The visuospatial sketchpad

109
Q

Suppose a young man is dating two different women. Which part of his working memory would be responsible for keeping track of when and where he has dated with each of them?

  • the phonological loop
  • the visuospatial sketchpad
  • the iconic memory
  • the central executive
A

The central executive

110
Q

Tina needs to stop at the store on her way to work one day. To go to the store, she has to remember to turn right out of her driveway instead of turning left like she normally would when she goes straight to work. The task her central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is:

  • controlled updating of short-term memory buffers.
  • setting goals.
  • task switching.
  • supervisory attentional system.
A

Supervisory attentional system.

111
Q

Which part of the brain seems to be critical for working memory and executive control?

  • the cerebellum
  • the thalamus
  • the prefrontal cortex
  • the hippocampus
A

The prefrontal cortex

112
Q

Which action is NOT a problem for patients with frontal-lobe damage?

  • the N-back task
  • a digit-span task
  • planning and organizing
  • skill learning
A

Skill learning

113
Q

The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex seems to be involved in the functions of which component of working memory?

  • the central executive
  • the phonological loop
  • the visuospatial sketchpad
  • transient memory
A

The central executive

114
Q

Which part of the brain seems to be involved in encoding and retrieval?

  • the orbital prefrontal cortex
  • the medial prefrontal cortex
  • the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
  • the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
A

The ventrolateral prefrontal cortex

115
Q

Which task would activate the left-anterior ventrolateral prefrontal cortex?

  • deciding whether two words sound the same
  • rehearsing nonsense words
  • listening to backwards speech
  • deciding whether two words have the same meaning
A

Deciding whether two words have the same meaning

116
Q

In people with schizophrenia, the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is _____ and the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is _____.

  • normal; dysfunctional
  • dysfunctional; normal
  • dysfunctional; dysfunctional
  • normal; normal
A

Dysfunctional; normal

117
Q

People with ADHD may have deficits in the _____ cortex, which is the region associated with _____.

  • right-prefrontal; verbal and semantic processing
  • left-prefrontal; verbal and semantic processing
  • right-prefrontal; spatial attention and working memory
  • left-prefrontal; spatial attention and working memory
A

Right-prefrontal; spatial attention and working memory

118
Q

Cameron’s heart begins to beat rapidly right before he has to deliver an important sales pitch to a client. This is an example of:

  • a physiological response.
  • an overt behavior.
  • a conscious feeling.
  • perseveration.
A

A physiological response.

119
Q

Autonomic arousal involves:

  • a decrease in blood pressure.
  • increased sexual arousal.
  • diverting energy away from the large muscles.
  • decreased pain sensitivity.
A

Decreased pain sensitivity.

120
Q

Oliver was furious when he learned that his brother had stolen money from him. His heart rate and blood pressure increased, and he started to breathe more rapidly. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion:

  • Oliver determined that his physiological changes were a result of the theft, and he labeled the changes as “anger.”
  • Oliver felt angry that led to the physiological changes he experienced.
  • Oliver took into account both his physiological changes and the theft in determining that the emotion he felt was “anger.”
  • Oliver’s physiological changes led him to consciously experience “anger.”
A

Oliver’s physiological changes led him to consciously experience “anger.”

121
Q

Experimental studies of emotion in animals have focused mainly on the emotion of:

  • anger.
  • happiness.
  • surprise.
  • fear.
A

Fear

122
Q

Which statement is an example of a conditioned emotional response?

  • A girl’s heart rate increases upon entering the theater where she had previously seen a horror movie.
  • A boy is startled by a sudden loud noise outside his window on a stormy night.
  • A woman screams when she nearly steps on a snake during a mountain hike.
  • A child smiles on hearing a funny joke.
A

A girl’s heart rate increases upon entering the theater where she had previously seen a horror movie.

123
Q

Although Cooper tried to learn to play chess, other players easily beat him. Now Cooper refuses to try playing chess again. This is an example of:

  • a conditioned emotional response.
  • learned helplessness.
  • mood congruency of memory.
  • perseveration.
A

Learned helplessness.

124
Q

The research on learned helplessness suggests that depression may be prevented by:

  • encouraging people to think about the good things in their lives.
  • encouraging people to smile, even when they feel sad.
  • exposing people to adversities that they can overcome.
  • preventing people from experiencing even minor challenges.
A

Exposing people to adversities that they can overcome.

125
Q

Mood congruency demonstrates that emotion can influence which aspect of memory?

  • encoding
  • storage
  • retrieval
  • All of the answers are correct.
A

Retrieval

126
Q

Memories for highly emotional events such as the terrorist attacks of September 11 are known as:

  • mood-congruent memories.
  • episodic memories.
  • flashbulb memories.
  • false memories.
A

Flashbulb memories.

127
Q

If one hears a cracking twig in the forest at night, which part of the amygdala is responsible for causing one’s heart rate to increase?

  • the lateral nucleus
  • the central nucleus
  • the basolateral nucleus
  • the medial prefrontal area
A

The central nucleus

128
Q

The _____ sends sensory input to the amygdala.

  • adrenal gland
  • frontal lobes
  • thalamus
  • hippocampus
A

Thalamus

129
Q

Epinephrine mediates the physiological components of the fight-or-flight response by stimulating the:

  • cortex.
  • brainstem nuclei.
  • hippocampus.
  • frontal lobes.
A

Brainstem nuclei

130
Q

The part of the brain that mediates learning about contextual information is the:

  • amygdala.
  • thalamus.
  • frontal lobes.
  • hippocampus.
A

Hippocampus.

131
Q

The medial prefrontal cortex seems to be involved in:

  • interpreting the expression of emotion in other people.
  • mediating arousal in the autonomic nervous system.
  • sending incoming sensory information to the amygdala.
  • stimulating the release of stress hormones.
A

Interpreting the expression of emotion in other people.

132
Q

People with posttraumatic stress disorder:

  • have a conditioned fear reaction that is triggered by one specific stimulus.
  • may benefit from drugs that increase the levels of stress hormones.
  • often have a smaller hippocampal volume than people without this disorder.
  • have higher-than-normal levels of stress hormones following the initial traumatic event.
A

Often have a smaller hippocampal volume than people without this disorder.

133
Q

In Bandura and colleagues’ Bobo doll study (1961) it was found that children were more likely to behave aggressively if they:

  • had been rewarded for behaving aggressively.
  • first observed an adult behaving aggressively.
  • were other children in the room with them.
  • were explicitly told to behave aggressively.
A

First observed an adult behaving aggressively

134
Q

According to modern social-learning theory, learning occurs as a result of:

  • observation.
  • conditioning.
  • both observation and conditioning.
  • both observation and performance of the behavior.
A

Observation.

135
Q

Tony is excited when he watches his high school football team win the championship. He decides to try out for the team the following year, hoping that he will get to enjoy the same excitement he observes in the players he sees on the team. His behavior demonstrates that people are more likely to copy models:

  • who are similar to themselves.
  • whom they admire.
  • when the outcome is desirable.
  • when they have the motor capabilities to perform the same actions.
A

When the outcome is desirable.

136
Q

Ella observed her father cleaning up toys by putting them all in a large bin and then carrying the bin over to the corner. The next time Ella had to clean up her toys, she left the bin in the corner and carried the toys to it one by one. This is an example of:

  • perspective taking.
  • stimulus matching.
  • emulation.
  • true imitation.
A

Emulation.

137
Q

In a dog kennel, if one dog starts barking, there is a tendency for the rest of the dogs to also start barking. This is an example of:

  • observational conditioning.
  • stimulus enhancement.
  • vocal learning.
  • emotional contagion.
A

Emotional contagion.

138
Q

When one dog starts sniffing the ground for a potential scrap of food, other dogs’ attention may be drawn to that part of the ground, and they may copy this sniffing behavior. This is an example of:

  • observational conditioning.
  • stimulus enhancement.
  • social conformity.
  • emotional contagion.
A

Stimulus enhancement.

139
Q

Which species are the only mammals other than humans that are known to be able to flexibly imitate sounds?

  • dogs
  • birds
  • dolphins
  • whales
A

Dolphins

140
Q

Stimulus matching refers to:

  • copying the exact actions that are observed.
  • directly comparing a generated stimulus with an observed stimulus.
  • copying the end result of a behavior that is observed.
  • being able to imagine oneself in the place of another person.
A

Directly comparing a generated stimulus with an observed stimulus.

141
Q

The third phase of song learning in songbirds involves:

  • memorizing songs.
  • practicing songs.
  • comparing their own songs to memories of songs they have heard in the past.
  • learning when it is appropriate to sing.
A

Learning when it is appropriate to sing.

142
Q

What has research shown regarding viewing violence in the media and aggression?

  • Viewing violent media has little effect on aggressive behavior.
  • Viewing violent media can reduce aggressive behavior.
  • Viewing violent media can increase aggressive behavior.
  • The results have been mostly inconclusive.
A

Viewing violent media can increase aggressive behavior.

143
Q

Mirror neurons are neurons that respond:

  • during both performance and visual observation of an action.
  • when an organism performs an action that is the opposite of the observed action.
  • during true imitation but not during emulation.
  • during observational learning in which visual feedback occurs.
A

During both performance and visual observation of an action.

144
Q

In songbirds, neurons in _____ behave like mirror neurons in monkeys.

  • the robust nucleus of the archistriatum (RA) and the high vocal center (HVC)
  • area X
  • the basal ganglia
  • the lateral magnocellular nucleus of the anterior neostriatum (LMAN)
A

The robust nucleus of the archistriatum (RA) and the high vocal center (HVC)

145
Q

According to studies of social transmission of food preferences in rats, which brain area(s) seem(s) particularly important for learning of novel food preferences from demonstrator rats?

  • the basal forebrain
  • the basal forebrain and the cortex
  • the hippocampus and the cortex
  • the hippocampus
A

The basal forebrain

146
Q

Children with autism:

  • have reduced intellectual abilities.
  • have more trouble imitating individual actions than sequences of actions.
  • cannot recognize when they are being imitated.
  • show more impairment of meaningless gestures than meaningful ones.
A

Show more impairment of meaningless gestures than meaningful ones.

147
Q

People with frontal-lobe damage who exhibit deficits in the ability to imitate:

  • can still imitate an action when instructed to do so.
  • can still imitate an action when they observe someone performing the action.
  • may have problems with inhibiting imitation.
  • usually show deficits in executive-control functions.
A

May have problems with inhibiting imitation.

148
Q

Learning has been demonstrated to occur in humans beginning:

  • about a week after birth.
  • at birth.
  • at about 25 weeks gestational age.
  • at about 36 weeks gestational age.
A

At about 25 weeks gestational age.

149
Q

Which concept appears to develop the EARLIEST?

  • semantic memory
  • episodic memory
  • working memory
  • operant conditioning
A

Operant conditioning

150
Q

An animal that is raised with a patch over one eye will probably be completely blind in that eye as an adult. This is an example of:

  • synaptogenesis.
  • a sensitive period.
  • imprinting.
  • neurogenesis.
A

A sensitive period.

151
Q

Humans are able to differentiate particular pairs of speech sounds:

  • only if they are exposed to the sounds before they are about 8 months old.
  • if they are exposed to the sounds sometime during their childhood.
  • if they have a great deal of exposure to the sounds as an adult.
  • only if they are exposed to the sounds before they are born.
A

Only if they are exposed to the sounds before they are about 8 months old.

152
Q

Working memory develops _____ and decays _____ than other memory systems.

  • earlier; earlier
  • earlier; later
  • later; later
  • later; earlier
A

Later; earlier

153
Q

Men would be expected to outperform women when trying to remember:

  • a list of words.
  • landmarks in a new town.
  • the way to navigate through a maze.
  • pairs of words.
A

The way to navigate through a maze.

154
Q

In elderly people, skill learning:

  • is as fast as young adults.
  • takes longer than in young adults.
  • declines even for highly practiced skills.
  • is slow but less error-prone than in young adults.
A

Takes longer than in young adults.

155
Q

A person with _____ would perform best on tests of learning and memory.

  • two copies of the Met allele
  • two copies of the Val allele
  • one copy of the Met allele
  • one copy of the Val allele
A

Two copies of the Val allele

156
Q

Twin studies suggest that:

  • genes play a very minor role in determining our learning and memory abilities.
  • genes play a strong role in determining our learning and memory abilities.
  • identical twins are no more similar than are fraternal twins on a variety of learning and memory measures.
  • the environment plays a very minor role in determining our learning and memory abilities.
A

Genes play a strong role in determining our learning and memory abilities.

157
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

  • Neurogenesis is relatively uniform throughout the brain.
  • Synaptogenesis continues throughout the lifespan.
  • Synaptogenesis is a very slow process.
  • Nearly all of the neurons die during apoptosis in childhood.
A

Synaptogenesis continues throughout the lifespan.

158
Q

Which structure is LARGER in men than in women?

  • the lateral frontal cortex
  • the hippocampus
  • the angular gyrus
  • the supramarginal gyrus
A

The angular gyrus

159
Q

In old age:

  • neurons in the hippocampus are lost.
  • neurogenesis no longer occurs.
  • LTP may become unstable.
  • neurons in the cerebellum are not lost.
A

LTP may become unstable.

160
Q

In Alzheimer’s disease:

  • episodic memory starts to decline before other types of memory.
  • patients cannot learn new skills.
  • the cortex shows signs of damage before other brain regions do.
  • the cerebellum shows signs of damage before other brain regions do.
A

Episodic memory starts to decline before other types of memory.

161
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles:

  • may cause damage by stimulating the immune system.
  • are an abnormal byproduct of a common protein.
  • are present in adults with Alzheimer’s disease but not in adults with Down syndrome.
  • are collapsed proteins that normally hold neurons in place and transport nutrients.
A

Are collapsed proteins that normally hold neurons in place and transport nutrients.

162
Q

Individuals with Down syndrome:

  • may have an enlarged cerebellum.
  • are more likely to be female than male.
  • have visibly smaller brains at birth.
  • usually develop amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles as adults.
A

Usually develop amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles as adults.