Summative Assessment 2 - SAA, FFR, RCL, GREN, PYRO Flashcards

1
Q

SAA

What type of propellant in ball F1 50 cal?

A

Single base propellant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SAA

3 configurations of cart 50 cal ball F1

A

linked, mixed link and loose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SAA

describe the .50 cal ball F1

A
manafactured by aus munitions 
single base
boxer type primer
boat tailed steel coated 
rimless CC
Knurled cannelure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SAA

Muzzle velocity of the two grades of .50 cal ball?

A

Grade A - 903+/- 9 m/s

Grade B -903 +/- 15 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SAA

What is the colour tip of the MP NM 140 raufoss round?

A

Green tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SAA

HE fill of the NM 140?

A

Main: HMX 96%
Constituents: wax 3% Graphite 0.5% Zinc stearite 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SAA

Major design characteristic of the NM 140

A

MP Concept - does not use any primer, detonator or sensitive explosives in the explosive train

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SAA

Describe the NM140

A
Double base propellant 
boxer fuse
incendiary nose with he fill\
Pyro initiated 
target effects - penetration frag blast and incendiary 
tungsten carbide core
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SAA

describe how the NM 140 functions

A

nose compressed on impact (functions by adiabatic heating
pressure builds and pyro ignites HE component
Deflagrates to detonation
incendiary composition burns for 1 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SAA

How many fragments behind target plate must the projectile produce?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SAA

Where must NM 140 be stored?

A

Out of direct sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SAA

functional requirements of NM 140?

A

perforate 10mm of armour with brinell hardness between 321-375 at 100m
perforate 2mm Dural plate at 200m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PYRO

Define luminosity

A

The intrinsic brightness of a celestial object. measured by candela/candlepower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PYRO

Smoke and flare colour of SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT

A

flare-red

Smoke- Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PYRO

Smoke emission time and flare burn time for SIG DISTARESS DAY/NIGHT

A

Smoke - 15-25 seconds

Flare - 17-25 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PYRO

Light intensity of flare for SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT

A

5000 Candela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PYRO

Visibility of SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT

A

smoke 5000m

flare 8000m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PYRO

How long can SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT be submerged for

A

2 Hours at a maximum depth of 30 metres one dive only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the function of the SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT

A

Select mode and remove end cap
pull and twist d ring
safety fork releases striker from safe detent which strikes percussion cap
produces flash which ignites cambric and celluloid strip in main filling
Burning strip ignites flare or smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PYRO

what is the life time for SIG DISTRESS DAY/NIGHT ( training and operational)

A

Training 7 years

operational 6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disperser OC Stream

Describe Disperser OC Stream

A

powerful incapacitating riot control agent
produces burning sensation for up to 60 minutes
affected individual are encouraged not to rub contaminated areas so as not to prolong or spread burning effect
stored in IRCAD unit (individual riot control agent disperser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disperser OC Stream

Describe Disperser OC Stream

A

powerful incapacitating riot control agent
produces burning sensation for up to 60 minutes
affected individual are encouraged not to rub contaminated areas so as not to prolong or spread burning effect
stored in IRCAD unit (individual riot control agent disperser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Disperser OC Stream

what is the effective range?

A

3.05m to 3.65m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Disperser OC Stream

what is the composition?

A

propylene glycol, capsaicin, Nitrogen, water and 2 propanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
GRENADE | what are the 2 parts to the F3 grenade?
Grenade hand practice inert | Grenade hand practice fuse
25
GRENADE | what are the three main assemblies for the F3 Grenade?
grenade body assembly fuze assembly striker housing assembly
26
GRENADE | what is the delay on the F3 hand grenade
5 seconds +/- 0.5
27
GRENADE | What is the effective throwing distance and burst safety distance of the F3 grenade?
Throwing distance 35m | burst safety distance 3m
28
GRENADE | what is the Grenade special purpose 9 banger sound intensity?
165db
29
GRENADE | what is the candlepower of the Grenade special purpose 9 banger ?
1,500,000 candela
30
GRENADE | delay length between flashes for the Grenade special purpose 9 banger?
two types 1.5 sec and 0.5 sec. Australia uses the 0.5 sec after the first delay, successive flashes are 0.3 seconds apart
31
MINES | What are the 3 characteristics of a claymore
Versatility, reliability and lethality
32
MINES | what impacts the effectiveness of a claymore?
obstructions or folds in the ground | areas to the rear of the claymore where blast and secondary frag can be dangerous to friendly troops
33
MINES | Purpose of a claymore?
command initiated fixed, directional fragmentation device | primarily employed in defence or fixed positions
34
MINES | what does the complete kit of the claymore consist of
``` M18A1 Weapon M57 firing device M7 Bandolier M40 test set M4 blasting cap ```
35
MINES | how many steel balls within the M18A1 claymore?
700
36
NON ELEC SHOCK TUBE | What are NON ELEC SHOCK TUBE lined with
small amount of HMX with AL powder
37
ELEC SHOCK TUBE | what is the VoD of NON ELEC SHOCK TUBE
2000 M/S +/- 300
38
NON ELEC SHOCK TUBE | What are the three layers present in NON ELEC SHOCK TUBE
Inner layer: HMX and Al Middle layer: provides tensile strength and to prevent tube bursting to contain propagating shock wave outer layer: abrasive resistant and colour coded.
39
Charge block 600g | What is the composition of Charge block 600g
59.5 % RDX 39.5% TNT 1 % beeswax
40
Charge block 600g | What is Charge block 600g used for??
used for dems and material destruction also used as an initiating charge for other items of ordnance initiated by 38g primer
41
Charge block 600g | what is the warning on the Charge block 600g ?
Exudation of MNT/DNT/TNT isomers and/or TNT/Comp B High Explosive (HE) can occur as it deteriorates with age and/or is exposed to elevated temperature. The exudate is friction and crush sensitive and may form a potential ‘flash path’. It also poses a Toxicity Hazard during handling i.e. dermal exposure path.
42
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | At what distance does the fuze arm?
12m
43
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | what is the range of the Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6
effective range 220m stationary targets 350m max flight range 1400m
44
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | description of the Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6
``` A lightweight, telescoping, single shot, disposable structure consisting of: o o Aluminium tube o Fibreglass outer tube o Tube detent device o Mechanical sight system o Firing mechanism o Safety interlocks o Firing pin assembly o Rear cover o Shoulder rest assembly ```
45
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | what are the main components of the Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6
o M72A6 Warhead HE Assembly o Fin Group Rocket Motor o M412A1 Fuze
45
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | what are the main components of the Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6
o M72A6 Warhead HE Assembly o Fin Group Rocket Motor o M412A1 Fuze
46
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | AP capabilities of the Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6
penetrate up to 150 mm of armour
47
Rocket 66mm HEAT M72A6 | describe the function of the fuze
Operation of the M412A1 Fuze - On setback, leaves disengage - rotor turns clockwise - rate retarded by a geared escapement - after set back, fuze arms - safe arming distance of 12m - spring loaded escapement winds down (0.67 sec) - When armed, rotor aligns the electric detonator to the firing block contacts and the graze action cocked striker. Both detonators align with the fuze booster pellet, achieving explosive train alignment - On impact o The ceramic piezo-electric crystal element in the windshield is crushed o Produces an electric charge, transmitted via internal wires within the inner cavity of the warhead - initiates the detonator o This detonates the fuze booster pellet - detonates the warhead charge (from the rear)
48
Cart 84mm ASM 509 | Describe the Cart 84mm ASM 509
anti structure munition` designed to defeat targets in light construction can be used to engage with light armoured vehicles shell is filled with blast enhanced explosive
49
Cart 84mm ASM 509 | operation in flight and impact
Arming Sequence - Percussion cap initiated, igniting composition, propellant - resultant gas pressure imparts motion to shell, and forces a pressure plunger located in the fuze holder through a hole in the base disc located behind the detent pin of the SAI unit - The pressure plunger moves the detent pin upwards, releasing the ball which in turn releases the escapement locking pin - Acceleration and the escapement locking pin spring force the escapement locking pin downwards, releasing the escapement - The main spring turns the rotor lock 180o to the unlocked position - acceleration also forces the driving plunger downwards and the spring-loaded driving pin in the rotor is released - The driving plunger is blocked against the pin since the rotor cannot be turned - retained in its position by the rotor lock that has not yet completed its 180o turn - When the rotor lock has turned to the unlocked position and the acceleration ceases, the plunger spring forces the plunger upwards, turning the rotor into the armed position - Also - setback plate returns to the initial position against the grounding clip. This means that the piezoelectric system is short-circuited even after the rotor has reached the armed position and no current reaches the electric detonator. Target Impact - Upon impact, shock wave is generated that piezo-electric crystal converts into electrical energy (sufficient to make the diode conductive) - (I) mode o diode closes the electric detonator circuit achieving initiation - (D) mode o system is short circuited preventing current from reaching the electric detonator o The magnetic inertia pellet, which is attached to the base disc, is forced forward on impact and strikes the delay detonator o Delay detonator ignites and initiates the electric detonator. This gives a delay of about 30 ms
50
Cart 84mm ASM 509 | what is the Fail safe mechanism
if the escapement is released during transport or handling before the driving plunger is pressed down, the rotor lock will turn 260 degrees into the fail safe position
51
Cart 84mm ASM 509 | main fill of the warhead?
PAX-47 40% Al Powder 40%HMX plus binder and plasticiser
52
81mm Mortar smoke | definition
IDF Support weapon to generate screening smoke, 3 round volley is usually used
53
81mm Mortar smoke | How many smoke pellets are located within its loading assembly
28
54
81mm Mortar smoke | settable time range
4 to 56 seconds
55
81mm Mortar smoke | deployment height
175m
56
81mm Mortar smoke | how many rounds provide what effect under what condition
volley of 3 rounds under atmospheric conditions produces a screen for 5 minutes
57
81mm Mortar smoke | The GAM is removed before firing T/F?
True
58
Fuze M734 | how many settings?
4, proximity impact, NSB and delay