Guided Weapons - Guided Study Flashcards

1
Q

What features are included in the warhead design of the Bolide?

A

Multiple effects warhead combining blast, frag, and shaped charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the shape and dispersive effects of the casing of the warhead for the RBS70?

A

The casing has a convex contour to provide an effective dispersion of fragments both forwards and rearwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Label the diagram for RBS-70

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the RBS-70 Safe and Arm Device require to arm and how does it function?

A
  • Located behind the main charge
  • Requires firing stimuli to begin arming
  • Wing Switch (upon missile exit of tube)
  • 7g G Switch (in SAD)
  • Internal mechanical safety
  • Interrupter slide held out of alignment
  • Stepper motor moves slide from safe to arm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the slider interrupter do in the SAD in the Bolide?

A

The slider interrupter keeps the warhead initiator out of line prior to arming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three modes of operation of the proximity fuse?

A

Off-ground targets
Normal - delay used to engage large targets allowing the missile to get closer (speed dependant)
Small target - UAV or standoff weapons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many tungsten spheres are in the Warhead of the RBS70?

A

3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 5 parts make up the Missile in Container?

A

End caps
Launcher tube
Missile lock
Missile launch motor
Bolide missile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On Proximity for the RBS70 what are the ranges?

A

Min 0.4
Max 6m
Typical 4m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main components of the RBS-70?

A

Missile in Container
Stand
Sight
Clip on Night Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the explosive charge in the RBS70 warhead consist of?

A

475g Charge of Octol - HMX/ TNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What provides storage and transport protection once the MiC is removed from the ISU?

A

Shock absorbing Cellular plastic End Caps and a Centre Pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the Safe and Arm Device (SAD) prevent initiation?

A

It keeps the warhead initiator out of line prior to firing until arming conditions are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What enhances the thermal blast effect of the warhead?

A

Aluminium and Magnesium components in the fuselage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What speed does the launch motor accelerate the missile to, when does it burn out and what does it consist of?

A

Accelerates to 50m/s

Burns out within the container (40ms)

Grain consists of 460g of DB Propellant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the Safe separation Distances and times for the Javelin?

A
  1. 75 to 1.8s
  2. 5m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the six phases of operation for the Javelin?

A
  • CLU Prep, Cooldown and Standby
  • Activate AUR
  • Track target
  • Launch
  • Flight Control
  • Warhead Detonation
18
Q

What are the CLU Modes

A

Day

Night

Test

Off

19
Q

What does the Gunner do to ensure communication between CLU and Missile

A

The gunner squeezes and holds the CLU Fire Trigger switch to initiate the launch of the missile.

The Fire Trigger must be held for a minimum of 400 ms. The CLU Seeker Trigger is also being held.

Squeezing the CLU Fire Trigger removes a squib driver interlock and initiates the action of the missile RESTRAINT PIN SQUIB andthe CLU FIRE COMMAND.

20
Q

What pressures does the Javelin BCU operate and vent at?

What is the proof pressure?

A

Operate at 7500 psi

Vent at 13,900 psi

Proof pressure 15,000 psi

21
Q

(Javelin) Where is the GEU and what are its major components

A

Located behind the seeker and in front of the main warhead (Midbody) section

Major components :

Guidance electronic boards

Roll rate gyroscope

Power distribution assembly

Precursor warhead

22
Q

How long does the BCU function for?

A

Battery life of four minutes

23
Q

Label diagram: Javelin

A
24
Q

(Javelin)

What are the four Missile components?

A

Guidance Section

Main Warhead Section (Mid-body section)

Propulsion section

Control Section

25
Q

(Jav)

“Missile Fin Lock” is one signal required prior to firing warheads, what are the other two?

A

Missile Safe Separation

Missile ‘good guidance’ from GEU

26
Q

How long does the seeker need to cool?

A

9.5 seconds

27
Q

What constitutes the All Up Round (AUR) of the Javelin?

A

Launch Tube Assembly (LTA)

Missile

Battery Cooling Unit (BCU)

28
Q

What are the four launch modes of the Hellfire?

A

Lock-on Before Launch (LOBL)

Lock-on After Launch - Direct (LOAL-Direct)

Lock-on After Launch - Low (LOAL-Low)

Lock-on After Launch - High (LOAL-High)

29
Q

What are the four main sections of the Hellfire?

A

Guidance

Warhead

Propulsion

Control

30
Q

Label Diagram: Hellfire

A
31
Q

What are the compositions in the Main Charge for the Hellfire?

A

2.3kg of PBXN-109

218g Zirconium Sponge Incendiary Pellets

32
Q

What is the control section arm and firing sequence

A

The rocket motor SAD provides an out of line detonator/squib whose electrical contacts are grounded and shunted in the safe position.

The CIA CCA provides the SAD with 28Vdc power which rotates the rocket motor squibs to be “inline”. If the SAD is returned to zero volts the SAD will rotate back to its original (safe) position.

The SAD should not be energized for more than 1 minute or the SAD may be damaged. Once the voltage is removed from a damaged SAD it will return to a safe position under the action of the return mechanism.

A fire pulse providing more than 3.8 amps to each squib will fire the dual rocket motor squibs and ignite the rocket motor.

33
Q

The Control Interface Group (CIG) provides what?

A
  • 28 vdc missile power
  • 600 psi nitrogen/freon for flight control actuators
  • interfaces for squib activations
  • Control signals to fin actuators
34
Q

What happens when the Hellfire thermal battery cools to 204˚?

A

Battery power is terminated when solidification of the electrolyte occurs

35
Q

How does the AGM 114 ESAF work

A

Using digital circuitry to control the exploding foil initiator and slapper type detonator which is physically in line with the warhead charge

36
Q

How long does the propulsion section motor burn for on the AGM-114?

A

3 seconds

37
Q

What does the Gyro Optics Assembly (GOA) do?

A

Detects, filters, focuses and amplifies laser energy from the target.

38
Q

What are the parts of the Gyro Optics Assembly (GOA) for the AGM-114?

A

Magnet

Counterbalance

Parabolic mirror.

39
Q

What is the Electronic Safe, Arm and Fire device (ESAF) arming sequence?

A

Power On

Built in Test (BIT) passed

Umbilical separation

Fuse data

Safety separation have been received in the proper sequence.

40
Q

What does the propulsion section consist of

A

Case/Grain assembly

Safe-arm-igniter and rod/grain assembly

Phenolic stabilizer (spider) nozzle

Wiring harness

41
Q

How much pressure does the accumulator contain, and what does it regulate it to?

A

8000psi

Regulates to 600psi

42
Q

How long does the thermal battery provide power, and how much?

A

Minimum of 55 seconds, providing 28Vdc