Summary CPP cards Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main purposes of testing physical security systems and technologies?

A

To ensure continuous monitoring for performance, effectiveness, and suitability.

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2
Q

What does the ASIS International Risk Assessment standard define security as?

A

The protection being provided against hazards, threats, risks, and menaces.

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3
Q

How can managers benefit from a Security Metrics Program?

They can v, a, c and m PC and SP

A

They can view, analyze, compare, and measure program components and staff performance.

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4
Q

What 5 pieces of knowledge can security professionals gain from effectively applying security metrics?

UP
I R
D P
A C and
Lev Se Ca

A

Understanding performance
Identifying risks
Discovering problems
Assessing compliance
Leveraging security capabilities

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5
Q

What are the key aspects included in designing a metrics program for security?

MF
T____, o____ and s_____ C E

A

Measurement framework,
technical, operational, and
strategic criteria evaluation.

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6
Q

What are the three key approaches to evaluating security metrics?

A

Effectiveness, efficiency, and strategic improvement aligned with organizational objectives.

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7
Q

What 6 questions should be considered when evaluating each element of the security program?

PF
SF
NP
P
T and
R

A

• PF → Primary functions
• SF → Secondary functions
• NP → Necessary procedures
• P → Processes
• T → Tools
• R → Resources

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8
Q

What is the basic tool for developing an understanding in physical security projects?

A

Security risk assessment or security survey.

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9
Q

What is the first step in a comprehensive risk assessment?

A

Identifying and valuing the organization’s assets.

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10
Q

What are the 6 categories that can increase assets’ exposure to the risk of loss?

P,S,P environment
HE
P and P and
CC

A

Physical environment,
social environment,
political environment,
historical experience,
procedures and processes, and
criminal capabilities.

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11
Q

What is a gap analysis used for in the risk assessment process?

To determine steps to i_____
An org’s r______ a______ capacity.

A

To determine steps to improve an organization’s risk assessment capacity.

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12
Q

What is the best method for monitoring and preparing to respond to security risks?

A

An ongoing risk assessment program.

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13
Q

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative risk assessment?

A

Qualitative uses expert judgment, while quantitative uses probabilities and statistics.

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14
Q

When might using a blended approach for risk assessment be appropriate?

A

When combining elements of qualitative and quantitative analysis is most suitable.

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15
Q

What is the focus of a physical security assessment or security survey?

A

Risks to physical assets and property, along with protection measures.

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16
Q

What eight documents are typically included in a bid package?

C I
Dr
Sp
HS
BI
Li
T and C, and
S-s Info req

A

Contract information,
drawings,
specifications,
hardware schedules,
bidder instructions,
licenses,
terms and conditions, and
security-sensitive information requirements.

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17
Q

When should a bidder’s conference or site visit be scheduled?

A

One week after the Request for Proposal (RFP) is issued.

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18
Q

What are the three steps taken after receiving bids for a project?

EB for C to R
P a FE and
S a B

A
  1. Evaluate bids for conformance to requirements
  2. Perform a financial evaluation, and
  3. then select a bidder.
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19
Q

What are 3 pillars discussed during the initial kick-off meeting for a contract?

A

Setting the course for scope, schedule, and budget.

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20
Q

What activities are involved in managing the warranty period?

A

Initiating and evaluating warranty work conformance within the scope and schedule.

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21
Q

What is the focus of the initial phase of a security design project?

P&A to develop the B of D and resultant D D

A

Planning and assessment to develop the basis of design and resultant design documentation.

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22
Q

Why is it important to establish a security ‘basis of design’?

PR
Th
As
Vu
RA and
CDS

A

• PR → Project Requirements
• Th → Threats
• As → Assets
• Vu → Vulnerabilities
• R A → Risk Assessment
• CDS → Conceptual Design Solutions

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23
Q

What are 12 key elements considered in developing design criteria?

Co and St
Ca, Qu, and Pe,
Co, fe and op,
Cu, im, and mo, and
Re

A

Codes and standards,
Capacity, quality and performance,
Cost, features and operations,
culture, image, and monitoring, and
response.

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24
Q

What are the six elements of the management process in security projects?

IM
QM
RM
CM
RM and
PM

A

• IM – Integration Management
• QM – Quality Management
• RM – Resource Management
• CM – Communications Management
• RM – Risk Management
• PM – Procurement Management

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25
Q

What are the three constraints under which security projects work?

A

Project scope, project schedule, and project budget.

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26
Q

What are the 5 basic tasks of physical protection system (PPS) implementation?

P&A
DCS
PDD
SB and
In

A

• P&A → Planning and assessment
• DCS → Developing conceptual solutions
• PDD → Preparing design documentation
• SB → Soliciting bids
• In → Installation

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27
Q

What are the 6 roles a security project manager may play in the security project process?

DCC
PDM
BM
PI
S and
C

A

Design concept creator,
principal decision maker,
budget manager,
project influencer,
stakeholder, and
contractor.

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28
Q

What are the five phases through which security projects are typically administered?

PC
PP
PDM
PBPM and
PC

A

Project conception,
project planning,
project design management,
project bid process management, and
project construction.

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29
Q

What should security projects do to integrate physical, electronic, and operational security elements?

Use AR
To Create a CS
To d, d and R
To S I

A

Use available resources
to create a cohesive solution
to deter, delay, and respond
to security incidents.

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30
Q

What 6 things are included in the project management process for an integrated PPS project?

U D M
D P S, S and B
D the P, and
M the B P

A

Understanding decision makers,
defining project scope, schedule and budget
designing the project, and
managing the bid process.

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31
Q

What are the two crime prevention operating assumptions related to CPTED?

C P K is C D and In; and
S must be F and C

A

1) Crime prevention knowledge is continually developing and interdisciplinary; and
2) strategies must be flexible and creative.

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32
Q

What are 5 ways CPTED measures can help prevent repeat victimization?

By R S of V
R A
I P S
P V T and
B easy A to T

A

By quickly removing signs of victimization,
By regulating access
By improving physical security
By protecting vulnerable targets, and
By blocking easy access to targets

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33
Q

According to routine activity theory, how can the presence of capable guardians deter crime?

A

Capable guardians may deter crime by their presence.

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34
Q

What is the focus of situational crime prevention?

A

To manage, design, or manipulate the environment to increase effort and risk for potential offenders while reducing rewards.

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35
Q

What are the four main strategies of second-generation CPTED?

A

Cohesion, capacity threshold, community culture, and connectivity.

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36
Q

What does CPTED 3-D stand for?

A

Designation of space,
Definition in terms of management and identity, and
Design as it relates to desired function and behavior.

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37
Q

What 3 tools apply to the underlying elements of CPTED: territoriality, surveillance, and access control?

E T
S ( n______/e_____ ), and
A C (n_____/m______)

A

Effective training,
surveillance (natural/ electronic), and
access control (natural/mechanical).

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38
Q

How can security practitioners reduce opportunities for crime through architectural design?

A

By integrating CPTED features during initial planning and working with appropriate community and professional groups.

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39
Q

What is the focus of access control strategies (3) in physical security?

A

1) deny access to a crime target,
2) create a perception of risk in potential offenders,
3) and include detection, delay, and response strategies.

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40
Q

Name some examples (3) of mechanical access control methods.

L,
C K S and
S D and WH

A

Locks,
card key systems,
special door and window hardware.

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41
Q

Why should a metrics program only be established after introspection and planning?

A

To ensure measures are properly collected, analyzed, defined, scoped, and applied.

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42
Q

What does SMART stand for in the context of metrics?

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Repeatable, Time-dependent.

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43
Q

Why should metrics be specific according to the course notes?

A

To provide actionable intelligence for a clear purpose.

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44
Q

What does it mean for a metric to be attainable?

A

A metric should not take excessive time to gather to remain effective.

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45
Q

Why is it important for a metric to be time-dependent?

A

Consistent collection ensures accuracy and meaningful comparison.

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46
Q

How does analyzing physical security systems from an operational perspective help?

A

It enhances efficiency by addressing system flaws like excessive alarms.

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47
Q

What insights (3) do metrics tracking the human element in security programs provide?

In into RS
C, and
OE

A

Insights into required staffing,
costs, and
operational efficiency.

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48
Q

How does collecting and analyzing metrics help improve a security program?

A

It shows program effectiveness and areas for enhancement.

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49
Q

What should acceptance tests of physical security measures simulate?

A

Actual threat conditions up to site-specific threat limits.

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50
Q

What 3 factors should be considered in determining what tests to conduct on security systems?

S-S T
W-C S
C S F

A

Site-specific threats,
worst-case scenarios,
critical system functions, etc.

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51
Q

What are the 6 categories of expenses in security system procurement?

A

Bonding,
overhead,
operating costs,
maintenance costs,
other costs, and
adjustments.

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52
Q

What are the three major forms of security systems procurement?

A

Sole source, request for proposal (RFP), and invitation for bid (IFB).

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53
Q

When should the type of procurement be selected in the design phase?

A

Before or at the start of the design phase.

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54
Q

When is sole source procurement appropriate?

A

When an owner already has a vendor on board.

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55
Q

What is the purpose of a Request for Proposal (RFP) in security systems procurement?

A

To competitively choose vendors based on factors like cost, schedule, and technical ability.

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56
Q

What is the key feature of Invitation for Bid (IFB) in procurement?

A

Projects are competitively bid, and the award goes to the lowest responsive bidder.

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57
Q

What should be reviewed when comparing proposal costs?

The L-C C, which includes c____ and m_____ costs
Over the system’s u_____ life.

A

The life-cycle cost, which includes capital and maintenance costs over the system’s useful life.

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58
Q

What factors should be checked if one proposal’s costs are significantly lower than others?

ME
Q of E
CE
Understanding of the P and
FS

A

Mathematical errors,
quality of equipment,
contractor experience, understanding of the project, and financial stability.

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59
Q

What should be done before making an award decision in procurement?

A

Check all contractors’ references.

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60
Q

What should the designer attempt to determine during interviews with leading contenders?

A

Good relationship with contractor’s reps, experience, problem-solving, and working well with other trades.

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61
Q

What should negotiating the final price with shortlisted contractors be based on?

A

Value.

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62
Q

What is essential for the successful implementation of any physical security construction project?

A

A well-defined and executed procurement contract.

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63
Q

What are the 6 components of a full-featured access control system?

CR
CC
DP
CD
S and
R to E devices

A

Credential reader,
communication cabling,
distributed processor,
central database,
software, and
request-to-exit devices.

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64
Q

What is personnel access control used for?

A

To authorize entry and verify personnel authorization to a controlled area.

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65
Q

How can an access control point be defeated through deceit?

A

By employing false pretenses to convince security personnel for entry.

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66
Q

What are some common types of credentials used in personnel access control?

A

Photo identification badges, exchange badges, stored-image badges, coded credentials.

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67
Q

What is the purpose of metal detectors in contraband detection?

A

To sense contraband using a varying magnetic field over a short period.

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68
Q

What are the basic building blocks of an intrusion detection system?

A

Sensors that initiate the detection function and indicate intrusion attempts.

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69
Q

What 4 technologies can sensors in intrusion detection systems be based on?

Op
El
ElMe
Me

A

• Op → Optical
• El → Electronic
• ElMe → Electromechanical
• Me → Mechanical

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70
Q

What 4 things must be included in a VA report to make it understandable to facility management?

D of F
DT
IA and
SEA

A

Description of facility,
defined threats,
identified assets, and
system effectiveness analysis.

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71
Q

How should a VA report be protected and distributed?

A

Defined in master project agreement for protection and appropriate distribution.

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72
Q

What approach does the assessment team take in the Outside-Inward Approach?

A

Adversary role, penetration of physical perimeter, envision ways to get in.

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73
Q

In the Inside-Outward Approach, which role does the assessment team take?

A

Security professional (defender) role, working from asset/target outwards.

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74
Q

What are 5 examples of security layers considered in VA assessments?

A/T
C/V
C A
S D and
B P

A

Asset/target,
container/vault,
controlled area,
security desk, and
building perimeter.

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75
Q

What does the Functional (Security Discipline) Approach address in VA assessments?

A

Addresses each security function or discipline individually.

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76
Q

What does the Security Architecture and Engineering component of VA assessments address?

A

Design of facilities with security features built in from the start.

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77
Q

What 4 things are included in Structural Security Measures in VA assessments?

O B S
P B
L S and
Li S

A

Overall building structure,
physical barriers, and
locking and lighting systems.

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78
Q

What does Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) focus on in VA assessments?

A

Engages planners, designers, architects, law enforcement, for crime prevention.

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79
Q

What 5 things does the Electronic Security Systems component of VA assessments encompass?

AC
ID
S
Co
ES

A

• A C→ Access control
• I D → Intrusion detection
• S → Surveillance
• C → Communications
• ES → Electronic systems

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80
Q

Why is evaluation of security officers and the human element important in VA assessments?

A

Discuss importance of QA and QC programs in managing security officers.

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81
Q

What are the three primary functions of a Physical Protection System (PPS)?

D
D and
R

A

Detection, delay, and response.

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82
Q

What does the detection function in a PPS involve?

Discovery of C or O actions by an a______ and e______ C

A

Discovery of covert or overt actions by an adversary and entry control.

83
Q

How is delay effectiveness in a PPS measured?

A

Time required by the adversary to bypass each delay element.

84
Q

What is the purpose of the response function in a PPS?

A

Preventing adversary success through interruption and accurate communication.

85
Q

Why is it important for a PPS to have functional integration of detection, delay, and response?

To reduce v____; deviation from this integration implies h_____ v_______

A

To reduce vulnerability; deviation from this integration implies higher vulnerability.

86
Q

What factors determine the amount of protection required for an asset?

V of the A and the
R T of the En

A

Value of the asset and the risk tolerance of the enterprise.

87
Q

Why is a cost-benefit analysis important in the security assessment process?

A

To weigh actual costs of security measures against projected results.

88
Q

In a Vulnerability Assessment (VA), why is it crucial to analyze the PPS as a system of features working together?

A

To determine the overall effectiveness and identify potential solutions.

89
Q

What is the purpose of a VA report in relation to the PPS?

A

Inform facility management of PPS state and needed upgrades.

90
Q

What are the three types of skills demanded in security roles?

A

Cognitive (knowledge),
psychomotor (physical), and
affective (attitudinal) skills.

91
Q

What should be part of a risk analysis survey when determining the size of security force?

A

Determining the size of the force.

92
Q

What are the three security force models discussed in the notes?

A

Proprietary or in-house staff, contract staff, and a hybrid approach.

93
Q

What 8 factors should organizations consider when determining the appropriate security force structure?

T of O and PG
L and R R
F and M C
PE and CF

A

Type of organization and programmatic goals,
location(s) and regulatory requirements,
financial and management capabilities,
performance expectations and cultural factors.

94
Q

What are the 6 basic functions of a security officer force?

Pa
A C
In
Mo
ER and
Tr Co

A

Patrol,
access control,
inspection,
monitoring,
emergency response,
traffic control, etc.

95
Q

What 5 vital roles can security officers fill in organizations?

PS and CP
Co and Ma tasks and
Re

A

Physical security and crime prevention
Consulting and management tasks, and
Representative.

96
Q

What should organizations review before purchasing uniforms and equipment for security officers?

A

Relevant laws and guidelines to ensure compliance and differentiate from law enforcement officers.

97
Q

Why is it important to establish minimum standards for hiring and training security officers?

A

Quality and competence of security force impact the success of security operations.

98
Q

How can organizations leverage the human element in security?

A

By including nonsecurity personnel with specialized security knowledge.

99
Q

What should organizations do to assess the effectiveness of physical security measures?

A

Test and monitor security measures.

100
Q

What are the three main types of tests mentioned in the notes?

C…..
LS….. and
Ev

A

Coordinated, limited scope, and evaluation tests.

101
Q

How often should an evaluation test of the security system be performed?

A

At least once a year.

102
Q

What should a formal report after an exercise document?

A

The review of PAPMS plans, processes, proposed actions, and nonconformities.

103
Q

What is the purpose of conducting internal audits?

A

To evaluate the physical protection system and validate compliance.

104
Q

What are the two main types of physical protection system maintenance?

A

Remedial maintenance and preventive maintenance.

105
Q

What does preventive maintenance include?

A

Keeping hardware and software in good condition, updating, and testing.

106
Q

What are the three major security purposes of lighting?

A

Creating a psychological deterrent, enabling detection, and enhancing video surveillance.

107
Q

What are the characteristics that affect security effectiveness of lighting?

Q of L
L or I,
L R, and
C T

A

Quantity of light, level or intensity, light reflectance, and color temperature.

108
Q

What are the four applications for security lighting?

A

Standby, continuous, movable, and emergency.

109
Q

What are the types of lighting equipment used for security purposes?

St, Se, Fl, Fr and H M lighting.

A

Streetlight, searchlight, floodlight, Fresnel, and high mast lighting.

110
Q

What does Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) target?

A

Places, behavior, design and use of space.

111
Q

What are the underlying elements of CPTED?

A

Territoriality, surveillance, and access control.

112
Q

What are the categories of CPTED measures?

A

Mechanical, organizational, and natural.

113
Q

What is natural territorial reinforcement in CPTED?

A

Establishing ownership and accountability to increase vigilance.

114
Q

How can natural surveillance help in CPTED?

Increasing v______ to detect T or M

A

Increasing visibility to detect trespassers or misconduct.

115
Q

What is natural access control in CPTED?

Using _____ to d____ and l______ access to a space.

A

Using barriers to define and limit access to a space.

116
Q

What are the three main characteristics of intrusion sensor performance?

A

Probability of detection (PD), nuisance alarm rate, vulnerability to defeat.

117
Q

Name some authoritative bodies providing guidance on sensor standards.

U L
ASTM
GSA
NFPA and
EAS

A

Underwriters Laboratories (UL), American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), General Services Administration (GSA), National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), European Alarm Standard.

118
Q

What are the classifications of exterior intrusion sensors based on detection methods?

P or A
C or V
L of S or T F
V or line detection
App

A

Passive or active, covert or visible, line-of-sight (LOS) or terrain-following, volumetric or line detection, application.

119
Q

Which are 7 common exterior sensor technologies mentioned in the notes?

PCC
FDS
SF
EF or CS
FIS
Bi M S
VMD

A

• PCC → Ported coaxial cables
• FDS → Fence disturbance sensors
• SF → Sensor fences
• EF or CS → Electric field or capacitance sensors
• FIS → Freestanding infrared sensors
• Bi M S → Bistatic microwave sensors
• VMD → Video motion detectors (VMDs)

120
Q

What is emphasized as important despite technological advancements in security solutions?

A

The need for well-trained security officers.

121
Q

Why is there a growing trend towards more highly trained security officers?

A

To offer a greater return on investment.

122
Q

What are the challenges presented by the rapid change of technologies in security?

A

Increased need for security officers with learning and adapting capabilities.

123
Q

How should businesses approach the training of security personnel?

A

By committing resources to support the required training for better service quality.

124
Q

According to the notes, how should security personnel be viewed in a security plan?

A

As part of a comprehensive plan, not a standalone resource.

125
Q

What is the most critical yet most expensive component of a security program?

A

Security personnel.

126
Q

What categories of services are typically included in a system maintenance agreement?

A

Both physical protection system (PPS) and remedial maintenance.

127
Q

Why is it beneficial to select a single contractor for system maintenance?

A

To have a single point of contact for diagnosing and resolving problems.

128
Q

What should a maintenance agreement be structured to resolve?

A

Both noncritical problems and major disruptions to the organization.

129
Q

Why is it important to train staff in preventive maintenance?

A

To better understand and operate security systems.

130
Q

What should the maintenance plan consider regarding security systems tuning?

A

Periodic tuning to eliminate nuisance and false alarms.

131
Q

What is essential to develop in a maintenance plan?

G to identify R and R

A

Guidelines to identify roles and responsibilities.

132
Q

What aspects of service levels should be jointly developed by the customer and contractor?

SP
SL and
RT for each component.

A

Support plan, service levels, and response times for each component.

133
Q

How can costs escalate rapidly in a maintenance agreement?

A

Due to staff hours, travel, and equipment required for guaranteed response times.

134
Q

Why should roles and responsibilities be clearly defined in system maintenance agreements?

A

To ensure minimum downtime and operational efficiency.

135
Q

What factors may affect support fees in maintenance agreements?

A

Geographic location, online diagnosis, and support capabilities.

136
Q

What pricing approach might consist of a fixed fee for an advance period?

A

Plus allowances or formulas for various costs.

137
Q

What type of documentation should the manufacturer provide regarding the system configuration?

Comprehensive documentation including
SS, CD, SPL and IS

A

Comprehensive documentation including switch settings, cable diagrams, spare parts lists, and installation steps.

138
Q

Why is it important for all subsystems to have advanced diagnostics?

A

To identify faulty components for easy replacement in the field.

139
Q

How can remote diagnostics be helpful for a large, decentralized system?

A

It allows for troubleshooting and diagnostics without physical presence.

140
Q

What does subscribing to an upgrade service after installation guarantee?

A

Incorporation of latest engineering change orders and field change orders, extending the system’s life.

141
Q

Why is it important to keep accurate records about security systems?

A

To help identify trouble spots, deficiencies, and justify system replacements.

142
Q

What should maintenance records include for all components?

A

Components should be cross-referenced to subsystems to identify repair patterns.

143
Q

Why should spare parts and repair equipment be procured in advance?

A

To minimize downtime in the event of remedial repairs.

144
Q

Why is it recommended to standardize devices through sole-source vendor relationships?

A

To reduce inventory needs and training requirements.

145
Q

What should maintenance manuals provided by the contractor include?

A

• I → Inspection
• Perform → Preventive maintenance
• Fixes → Fault diagnosis
• Regularly → Repair/Replacement procedures

This phrase reinforces the idea of consistently maintaining and fixing equipment.

146
Q

What should be considered for preventive maintenance tasks to be performed adequately?

Ch______ that include m_______ guidelines.

A

Checklists that incorporate equipment manufacturers’ guidelines.

147
Q

Why is it important to develop checklists for preventive maintenance tasks?

A

To ensure all necessary tasks are performed adequately and consistently.

148
Q

Why should preventive maintenance be pursued simultaneously with remedial maintenance activities?

A

To conserve travel time and optimize maintenance efficiency.

149
Q

What types of adjustments may have to be made periodically to security systems?

A

Adjustments to ensure effective operation like detection pattern modifications for sensors.

150
Q

What should a regular test and maintenance program include for effective device operation?

A

Periodic equipment and circuit testing, backup power checks, and thorough equipment inspections.

151
Q

What should be verified for the data and video transmission system during security system acceptance tests?

A

Installation, testing, and approval as specified.

152
Q

What verification is required for remote devices during security system acceptance tests?

A

Functionality, communication with the monitoring center, and specified functions.

153
Q

What needs to be verified about the video switcher during security system acceptance tests?

FF and PS

A

Full functionality and proper software programming.

154
Q

What is essential to verify for all system software functions during security system acceptance tests?

A

Correct operation.

155
Q

What must be verified regarding electrical and mechanical controls during security system acceptance tests?

A

Designed functions are performed.

156
Q

How should cameras aimed at the rising or setting sun be positioned during security system acceptance tests?

A

Aim sufficiently below the horizon to avoid viewing the sun.

157
Q

What verification is needed for night assessment capabilities near assessment areas in security system acceptance tests?

A

Verification of capabilities, including headlight effects.

158
Q

What must be verified to avoid picture rolling when cameras are switched during security system acceptance tests?

S______ of cameras

A

Synchronization of cameras.

159
Q

What should be checked for the alarm interface to the intrusion detection subsystem during security system acceptance tests?

F and ACC for AP

A

Functionality and automatic camera call-up for alarm points.

160
Q

What is the purpose of post-implementation testing for security systems?

A

To ensure proper system operation and conformance to specifications.

161
Q

What is the purpose of physical security?

A

To protect assets, whether tangible or intangible.

162
Q

What are the four basic functions of physical security strategy?

CA
Ob
D e
Ev (option but helps with R D-m)
Re

A

• Controlling access
• Observing
• Detecting events
• Evaluating (optional, but helps with response decision-making)
• Responding

163
Q

Define the concept of the four Ds in physical security.

A

Deter, detect, delay, and deny an adversary access.

164
Q

What are the components of physical security measures?

St
El and
Hu Co

A

Structural, electronic, and human components.

165
Q

List examples of structural components in physical security.

L
L and L
CPTED,
B and F

A

Lighting,
locks and landscaping
CPTED,
barriers and fencing

166
Q

Name some examples of electronic components in physical security.

Su
AC
I D S

A

Surveillance, access control, intrusion detection systems.

167
Q

What are some examples of human components in physical security measures?

SO F
Vi Ma and
In Ma Sy

A

Security officer force, visitor management, incident management systems.

168
Q

Explain the importance of coordinating physical security components with the security functions.

A

To ensure a well-orchestrated integrated protection strategy.

169
Q

Why is it crucial to address the relationship between security components and peripheral systems?

A

To prevent conflicts and ensure proper functioning.

170
Q

What are some examples of peripheral systems in physical security planning?

A

Life safety systems,
building controls, and
IT infrastructure.

171
Q

What is the purpose of a security survey?

A

To assess current security level, identify deficiencies, and recommend improvements.

172
Q

Define adequacy in security measures.

A

Adequacy refers to meeting the appropriate level of security or protection.

173
Q

What is a vulnerability in security terminology?

A

A weakness that can be exploited by an adversary.

174
Q

How does a vulnerability assessment differ from a comprehensive risk assessment?

A

A vulnerability assessment focuses more on vulnerabilities, while a risk assessment covers assets, threats, and consequences.

175
Q

What are some objectives of a vulnerability assessment?

Id W,
L of R
S pts of F and
In Re Ca

A

Identify weaknesses, lack of redundancy, single points of failure, and inadequate response capability.

176
Q

What components are evaluated in a Physical Protection Systems (PPS) analysis?

A

PPS components at both component and system levels are evaluated.

177
Q

What are some elements of a PPS analysis?

A

Elements include gathering information, reviewing documents, interviews, and evaluation testing.

178
Q

What is the goal of a vulnerability assessment?

A

To identify weaknesses in PPS components related to security functions.

179
Q

What is SWOT analysis?

A

A tool that assesses strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

180
Q

What are the five criteria of good reporting?

A

Accuracy, clarity, conciseness, timeliness, and slant or pitch.

181
Q

Why should a survey report include positive and negative findings?

A

To focus on how security can be improved and why it’s important.

182
Q

What are considerations that may affect the effectiveness of automated assessment tools?

A

Qualifications of assessment personnel, cost, complexity, and inability to assess intangible factors.

183
Q

Why should automated assessment tools not be relied upon as the sole process in a physical security assessment?

A

They may not account for all factors accurately and should be supplemented.

184
Q

What does project management involve in the context of physical security?

A

Planning, organizing, monitoring, and controlling resources for security projects.

185
Q

What distinguishes a project from ordinary operations?

A

Projects are temporary efforts with defined goals and objectives.

186
Q

What are the goals of security projects?

A

Improve security management and assure operational effectiveness.

187
Q

What areas should a security project ensure effectiveness in?

A

Only authorized access and secure management of public areas.

188
Q

What should records of system tests include?

A

Test date, name of person conducting the test, and results.

189
Q

What factors should a security manager consider for system replacement?

A

Cost of maintenance, lack of spare parts, obsoleteness of hardware/software, operating costs, reliability, new technologies, and features.

190
Q

Where can additional information for Domain Five be found according to the text?

A

Protection of Assets - Physical Asset Protection Standard 243.

191
Q

What 7 things should the factory test setup include during physical security predelivery testing?

All SCC M E
Se
Co Ce
Da Tr Li
Lo Pro
Sen Sim
Se
Po Con

A

• All SCC M E → All security control center monitoring equipment
• Se → Sensors
• Co Ce → Control center (security control center monitoring equipment)
• Da Tr Li → Data transmission links
• Lo Pro → Local processors
• Sen Sim → Sensor simulators
• Se → Sensors
• Po Con → Portal configurations

192
Q

What 8 pieces of equipment are needed for testing security video systems during physical security predelivery testing?

VC with L
Mo
VR
VS
AIP
P/T M
Ca
An Eq

A

• VC with L → Video cameras with lenses
• Mo → Monitors
• VR → Video recorder
• VS → Video switcher
• AIP → Alarm input panel
• P/T M → Pan/tilt mount
• Ca → Cabling
• An Eq → Ancillary equipment

193
Q

What should a customer require in a written report of factory testing during physical security predelivery testing?

A report indicating
A T P,
R and
Re of D noted

A

A report indicating all tests performed, results, and resolution of deficiencies noted.

194
Q

What 5 things should the contractor provide to the customer before site acceptance testing begins?

A report describing
FT
D
C
C and
A S T P

A

A report describing
functional tests,
diagnostics,
calibrations,
certification, and
approved site test procedures.

195
Q

What 3 things should the contractor demonstrate during site acceptance testing?

Co with CR
Phy and Fu P R and
C of N and F A rates

A

Compliance with contract requirements,
physical and functional project requirements, and
calculation of nuisance and false alarm rates.

196
Q

When should the site acceptance test begin?

A

After receiving written approval from the customer.

197
Q

What actions can the customer take during site acceptance testing if the system fails to perform as specified?

A

The customer may terminate testing at any time.

198
Q

What should be considered when selecting countermeasures?

A

Effectiveness ………depending on adversary, different threat levels, increasing sophistication.

199
Q

What are the components of structural security?

A

Elements like walls, doors, windows, roofs, floors, fencing, and barriers.

200
Q

What types of safes are there in terms of protection?

A

Record safes for fire protection, safes for valuables protection.

201
Q

What are the two general classes of locks?

A

Mechanical locks and electrified locking mechanisms.

202
Q

What are the benefits of traditional mechanical locks and keys?

A

Low cost,
simplicity, and
reliability….despite modern access control systems.

203
Q

What 6 elements are considered in professionally planned locking systems?

LS Pl
LP
R-e Sys,
C-o locks
Co and bi locks

A

Lock system planning,
locking policy,
rapid-entry systems, credential-operated locks, combination and
biometric locks.

204
Q

What disciplines are involved in the study of lighting for security applications?

LD
En, and
Te

A

Various disciplines like lighting design, engineering, and technology.